Top 181 Latest API 570 Practice Questions and Answers (Closed Book)

Top 181 Latest API 570 Practice Questions and Answers (Closed Book)

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1) API 570 covers inspection, repair alteration, and re-rating procedures for metallic piping systems that __________.

a) Are being fabricated
b) Does not fall under ASTM B31.3
c) Have been in-service.
d) Has not been tested

2) API 570 was developed for the petroleum refining and chemical process industries.

a) It shall be used for all piping systems
b) It may be used, where practical, for any piping system.
c) It can be used, where necessary, for steam piping
d) It may not be used unless agreed to by all parties

3) API 570 __________ be used as a substitute for the original construction requirements governing a piping system before it is placed in-service.

a) Shall not.
b) Should
c) May
d) Can

4) API 570 applies to piping systems for process fluids, hydrocarbons, and similar flammable or toxic fluid services. Which of the following services is not specifically applicable?

a) Raw, intermediate, and finished petroleum products
b) Water, steam condensate, boiler feed water.
c) Raw, intermediate, and finished chemical products
d) Hydrogen, natural gas, fuel gas, and flare systems

5) Some of the classes of piping systems that are excluded or optional for coverage under API 570 are listed below. Which one is a mandatory included class?

a) Water
b) Catalyst lines.
c) Steam
d) Boiler feed water

6) The __________ shall be responsible to the owner-user for determining that the requirements of API 570 for inspection, examination, and testing are met.

a) Piping Engineer
b) Inspector.
c) Repair Organisation
d) Operating Personnel

7) Who is responsible for the control of piping system inspection programs, inspection frequencies and maintenance of piping?

a) Authorised Piping Inspector
b) Owner-user.
c) Jurisdiction
d) Contractor

8) An authorised piping inspector shall have the following qualifications. Pick the one that does not belong in this list:

a) Four years of experience inspecting in-service piping systems.
b) High school education plus 3 years of experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of piping systems
c) Two year certificate in engineering or technology plus 2 years of experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of piping systems
d) Degree in engineering plus one year experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of piping systems

9) Risk based inspections include which of the following:

a) Likelihood assessment
b) Consequence analysis
c) Operating and inspection histories
d) All of the above.

10) An RBI assessment can be used to alter the inspection strategy provided:

a) The degradation methods are identified
b) The RBI is fully documented
c) A third party conducts the RBI
d) Both A and B above.

 

11) Which one of the following is not a specific type of an area of deterioration?

a) Rectifier performance.
b) Injection points
c) Deadlegs
d) Environmental cracking

12) Injection points subject to accelerated or localised corrosion may be treated as __________.

a) The focal point of an inspection circuit
b) Separate inspection circuits.
c) Piping that must be renewed on a regular schedule
d) Locations where corrosion inhibitors must be used

13) The recommended upstream limit of inspection of an injection point is a minimum of:

a) 12 feet or 3 pipe lengths whichever is smaller
b) 12 inches or 3 pipe diameters whichever is smaller
c) 12 inches or 3 pipe diameters whichever is greater.
d) 12 feet or 3 pipe lengths which is greater

14) The recommended downstream limit of inspection of an injection point is a minimum of

a) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 feet beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is less.
b) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 feet beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is greater
c) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 inches beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is less
d) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 inches beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is greater

15) Select thickness measurement locations (TMLs) within injection point circuits subjected to localised corrosion according to the following guidelines. Select the one that does not belong.

a) Establish TMLs on appropriate fittings within the injection point circuit
b) Establish at least one TML at a location at least 25 feet beyond the downstream limit of the injection point.
c) Establish TMLs on the pipe wall at location of expected pipe wall impingement or injected fluid
d) Establish TMLs at both the upstream and downstream limits of the injection point circuit

16) What are the preferred methods of inspecting injection points ?

a) Radiography and / or ultrasonics.
b) Hammer test and / or radiograph
c) Ultrasonics and / or liquid penetrant
d) Liquid penetrant and / or eddy current

17) During periodic scheduled inspections, more extensive inspection should be applied to an area beginning __________ upstream of the injection nozzle and continuing for at least __________ pipe diameters downstream of the injection point.

a) 10 inches, 20
b) 12 feet, 10
c) 12 inches, 10.
d) 10 feet, 10

18) Why should deadlegs in piping be inspected?

a) API 510 mandates the inspection of deadlegs
b) Acid products and debris build up in deadlegs
c) The corrosion rate in deadlegs can vary significantly from adjacent active piping.
d) Caustic products and debris build up in deadlegs

19) Both the stagnant end and the connection to an active line of a deadleg should be monitored. In a hot piping system, why does the high point of a deadleg corrode and need to be inspected?

a) Corrosion occurs due to directed currents set up in the deadleg
b) Erosion occurs due to convective currents set up in the deadleg
c) Corrosion occurs due to convective currents set up in the deadleg.
d) Erosion occurs due to directed currents set up in the deadleg

20) What is the best thing to do with deadlegs that are no longer in service?

a) Ultrasonically inspect often
b) Radiograph often
c) Inspect often
d) Remove them.

21) What are the most common forms of corrosion under insulation (CUI).

a) Localised corrosion of non-ferrous metals and chloride stress corrosion cracking of carbon steel
b) Localised corrosion of chrome-moly steel and chloride stress corrosion cracking of ferritic stainless steel
c) Localised corrosion of carbon steel and chloride stress corrosion cracking of austenitic stainless steel.
d) Localised corrosion of nickel-silicon alloy and caustic stress corrosion of austenitic stainless steel

22) What climatic area may require a very active program for corrosion under insulation?

a) Cooler northern continent locations
b) Cooler direr, mid-continent locations
c) Warmer, marine locations.
d) Warmer drier, desert locations

 

23) Certain areas and types of piping systems are potentially more susceptible to corrosion under insulation. Which of the items listed is not susceptible to CUI?

a) Areas exposed to mist over-spray from cooling water towers
b) Carbon steel piping systems that normally operate in-service above 250 degrees but are in intermittent service
c) Deadlegs and attachments that protrude from insulated piping and operate at a different temperature than the temperature of the active line
d) Carbon steel piping systems, operating between 250 degrees F and 600 degrees F.

24) What location is subject to corrosion under insulation and inspection contributes to it?

a) Locations where pipe hangers and other supports exist
b) Locations where insulator has been stripped to permit inspection of the piping
c) Locations where insulation plugs have been removed to permit piping thickness measurements.
d) Locations where there is damaged or missing insulation jacketing

25) Soil-to-air (S/A) interfaces for buried piping are a location where localised corrosion may take place. If the buried part is excavated for inspection, how deep should the excavation be to determine if there is hidden damage?

a) 12 to 18 inches
b) 6 to 12 nches.
c) 12 to 24 inches
d) 6 to 18 inches

26) At concrete-to-air and asphalt-to-air interfaces of buried piping without cathodic protection, the inspector look for evidence that the caulking or seal at the interface has deteriorated and allowed moisture ingress. If such a condition exists on piping systems over __________ years old, it may be necessary to inspect for corrosion beneath the surface before resealing the joint.

a) 8
b) 5
c) 15
d) 10

27) An example of service-specific and localised corrosion is:-

a) Corrosion under insulation in areas exposed to steam vents
b) Unanticipated acid or caustic carryover from processes into non-alloyed piping
c) Corrosion in deadlegs
d) Corrosion of underground piping at soil-to-air interface where it ingresses or egresses.

28) Erosion can be defined as:

a) Galvanic corrosion of a material where uniform losses occur
b) Removal of surface material by action of numerous impacts of solid or liquid particles
c) Gradual loss of material by a corrosive medium acting uniformly on the material surface
d) Pitting on the surface of a material to the extent that a rough uniform loss occurs

29) A combination of corrosion and erosion results in significantly greater metal loss that can be expected from corrosion or erosion alone. This type of loss occurs at:

  • a) High-velocity and high-turbulence areas
  • b) Areas where condensation or exposure to wet hydrogen sulphide or carbonates occur
  • c) Surface-to-air interfaces f buried piping
  • d) Areas where gradual loss of material occurs because of a corrosive medium

30) Environmental cracking of austenite stainless steels is caused many times by:-

a) Exposing areas to high-velocity and highturbulence streams
b) Excessive cyclic stresses that are often very low
c) Exposure to chlorides from salt water, washup water, etc.
d) Creep of the material by long time exposure to high temperature and stress

31) When the inspector suspects or is advised that specific piping circuits may be susceptible to environmental cracking, the inspector should:

a) Call in a piping engineer for consultation.
b) Investigate the history of the piping circuit.
c) Obtain advice from a Metallurgical Engineer.
d) Schedule supplemental inspections.

32) If environmental cracking is detected during internal inspection of pressure vessels, what should the inspector do?

a) The inspector should designate appropriate piping spools upstream and downstream of the vessel to be inspected if piping is susceptible to environmental cracking.
b) The inspector should consult with a metallurgical engineer to determine extent of the problems
c) The inspector should review history of adjacent piping to determine if it has ever been affected.
d) The inspector should consult with a piping engineer to determine the extent of the problems.

33) If external or internal coatings or refractory liners on a piping circuit are in good condition, what should an inspector do?

a) After inspection, select a portion of the liner for removal
b) The entire liner should be removed for inspection
c) Selected portions of the liner should be removed for inspection
d) After inspection, if any separation, breaks, holes or blisters are found, it may be necessary to remove portions of the lining to determine the condition under it.

34) What course of action should be followed it a coating of coke is found on the interior of a large pipe of a reactor on a Fluid Catalytic Cracking Unit?

a) Determine whether such deposits have active corrosion beneath them. If corrosion is present, thorough inspection in selected areas may be required.
b) The coke deposits should be removed from the area for inspection.
c) The coke deposits may be ignored – the deposits will probably protect the line from corrosion.
d) Consult with a Process Engineer and a Metallurgist on the necessity of removing the coke deposits.

35) Fatigue cracking of piping systems may result from

a) Embrittlement of the metal due to it operating below its transition temperature
b) Erosion or corrosion / erosion that thin the piping where it cracks
c) Excessive cyclic stresses that are often well below the static yield strength of the material
d) Environmental cracking caused by stress corrosion due to the presence of caustic, amine, or other substance.

36) Where can fatigue cracking typically be first detected?

a) At points of low-stress intensification such as reinforced nozzles
b) At points of high-stress intensification such as branch connections
c) At points where cyclic stresses are very low
d) At points where there are only bending or compressive stresses.

37) What are the preferred NDE methods for detecting fatigue cracking?

a) Eddy current testing ultrasonic A-scan testing, and / or possibly hammer testing
b) Liquid penetrant testing, magnetic particle testing and / or possibly acoustic emission testing.
c) Visual testing, eddy current testing and / or possibly ultrasonic testing
d) Acoustic emission testing, hydro-testing, and / or possibly ultrasonic testing.

38) Creep is dependent on:

a) Time, temperature, and stress
b) Material, product contained, and stress
c) Temperature, corrosive medium, and load
d) Time, product contained and load

39) An example of where creep cracking has been experienced in the industry is in the problems experienced with cracking of 1.25 % Chrome steels operating at temperatures above __________ °F.

a) 500
b) 900
c) 1000
d) 1200

40) Brittle fracture can occur in carbon, low-alloy and other ferritic steels at or below __________.

a) 140 degree
b) Ambient
c) 100 degree
d) 30 degree

41) Water and aqueous solutions in piping systems may freeze and cause failure because of the

a) Expansion of these materials
b) Contraction of these materials
c) Construction of these materials
d) Decrease of these materials

42) Different types of inspection and surveillance are appropriate depending on the circumstances and the piping system. Pick the one that does not belong in the following list:-

a) Internal and external visual inspection
b) Thickness measurement inspection
c) Vibrating piping inspection
d) Chemical analysis inspection

43) Internal visual inspections are __________ on piping unless it is a large diameter transfer line, duct, catalyst line or other large diameter piping system.

a) The most effective inspection
b) The most useful means of inspection
c) Not normally performed
d) The major means of inspection

44) Name an additional opportunity for a normal non-destructive internal inspection of piping.

a) When the piping fails and the interior is revealed
b) When maintenance asks for an internal inspection
c) When piping flanges are disconnected
d) When a fire occurs and the pipe is in the fire

45) Why is thickness measurement inspection performed?

  • a) To satisfy jurisdictional requirements
    b) To determine the internal condition and remaining thickness of the piping components
    c) To determine the external condition and amount of deposits inside the piping
  • d) To satisfy heat transfer requirements of the piping

46) Who performs a thickness measurement inspection?

  • a) The operator or control man
  • b) The inspector or examiner
  • c) The maintenance workers or supervisor
  • d) The Jurisdiction or OSHA

47) When corrosion product build-up is noted during an external visual inspection at a pipe support contact area, lifting of such supports may be required for inspection. When doing this, care should be:

  • a) Exercised if the piping is in-service
  • b) Used when determining the course of action
  • c) Practiced so as not to disturb the supports
  • d) Taken that a complete record of the problem is made

48) Qualified operating or maintenance personnel also may conduct external visual inspections when:

  • a) Satisfactory to the owner-user
  • b) Acceptable to the inspector
  • c) Agreeable to the maintenance supervisor
  • d) Permissible to the operation supervisor

49) Who would normally report vibrating or swaying piping to engineering or inspection personnel?

a) Operating personnel
b) Maintenance personnel
c) Jurisdictional personnel
d) OSHA personnel

50) Thermography is used to check for:

a) Vibrating sections of the piping system
b) Detecting localised corrosion in the piping system
c) Abnormal thermal expansion of piping systems
d) Hot spots in refractory lined piping systems

51) Thickness measurement locations (TMLs) are specific __________ along the piping circuit where inspections are to be made

a) Points
b) Areas
c) Items
d) Junctures

52) The minimum thickness at each TML can be located by:

a) Electromagnetic techniques
b) Ultrasonic scanning or radiography
c) Hammer testing
d) MT and / or PT

53) Where appropriate, thickness measurements should include measurements at each of __________ on pipe and fittings:

a) Two quadrants
b) Three locations
c) Four quadrants
d) Six points

54) Where special attention should be placed when taking thickness measurements of an elbow?

a) The outlet end
b) The inlet end
c) The inside and outside radius
d) The sides

55) TMLs should be marked on inspection drawings and __________ to allow repetitive measurements

a) On the inspectors notes
b) On a computer system
c) On the piping system
d) On maintenance department charts

56) What is taken into account by an experienced inspector when selecting TMLs?

a) The amount of corrosion expected
b) The patterns of corrosion that would be expected
c) The number and the cost of reading the TMLs
d) Whether the TMLs are easily accessed

57) In theory, a piping circuit subject to perfectly uniform corrosion could be adequately monitored with __________ TMLs.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

58) More TMLs should be selected for piping systems with any of the following characteristics:

a) Low potential for creating a safety or environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
b) More complexity in terms of fittings, branches, deadlegs, and injection points, etc.
c) Relatively non-corrosive piping systems
d) Long, straight-run piping systems

59) Fewer TMLs can be selected for piping systems with any of the following characteristics:

a) More complexity in terms of fittings, branches, deadlegs, and injection points, etc.
b) Higher expected or experienced corrosion rates
c) Long, straight-run piping systems
d) Higher potential for localised corrosion

60) TMLs can be eliminated for piping systems with the following characteristics:

a) Higher potential for creating a safety or environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
b) Low potential for creating a safety or environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
c) Extremely low potential for creating a safety of environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
d) More complexity in terms of fittings, branches, deadlegs, and injection points, etc.

61) What is usually the most accurate means for obtaining thickness measurements on installed pipe larger than NPS 1?

a) MT
b) UT
c) PT
d) ET

62) What thickness measuring technique does not require the removal of some external piping insulation?

a) AE
b) UT
c) ET
d) RT

63) When ultrasonic thickness measurements are taken above __________ degrees F, instruments couplants, and procedures should be used that will result in accurate measurements at the higher temperature

a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 250

64) Typical digital thickness gages may have trouble measuring thickness less than __________ inches.

a) 0.2188
b) 0.1875
c) 0.1562
d) 0.1250

65) When pressure testing of piping systems are conducted, they shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of:

a) ASME B31.3
b) ASME B&PV Code, Section VIII
c) SA B16.5
d) API 510

66) If a lower pressure test (lower than prescribed by code) is used only for tightness of piping systems, the __________ may designate the pressure

a) Owner-user
b) Inspector
c) Jurisdiction
d) Contractor

67) The preferred medium for a pressure test is __________:

a) Steam
b) Air
c) Water
d) Hydrocarbon

68) If a non-toxic hydrocarbon (flammable) is used as the test medium, the liquid flash point shall be at least __________ °F or greater.

a) 95
b) 100
c) 110
d) 120

69) Piping fabricated of or having components of 300 series stainless steel should be tested with __________.

a) Water with a pH of 4
b) Water with a pH of 6
c) Water with a chloride content of less than 400 ppm chlorides
d) Steam condensates

70) For sensitised austenitic stainless steel, piping subject to polythionic stress corrosion cracking, consideration should be given to using __________ for pressure testing

a) An acidic-water solution
b) An alkaline-water solution
c) A water with a pH of 5
d) A water with a pH of 4

71) When a pipe requires post weld heat treatment, when should the pressure test be performed?

a) During heat treatment
b) Before any heat treatment
c) After any heat treatment
d) No test is required

72) During a pressure test, where test pressure will exceed the set pressure of the safety relieve valve or valves on a piping system, the safety relief valve or valves should be __________ when carrying out the test.

a) Altered by screwing down the adjusting screw
b) Reset to exceed the test pressure
c) Checked or tested
d) Removed or blanked

73) When using block valves to isolate a piping system for pressure test, what precaution should be taken?

a) Do not use a globe valve during a test
b) Make sure the packing gland of the valve is tight
c) Do not exceed the permissible seat pressure of the valve
d) Check the bonnet bolts to make sure they are tight

74) Several methods may be used to verify that the correct alloy piping is in a system. Pick the incorrect method from the list below:

a) Holography
b) Optical spectrographic analyser
c) X-ray fluorescent analyser
d) Chemical spot checking

75) Name a part of a piping system that thickness measurements are not normally routinely taken.

a) Elbows
b) Expansion loops
c) Tees
d) Valves

76) If environmental cracking is found during inservice inspection of welds, who assesses the problem?

a) Owner-user
b) Inspector
c) Piping Engineer
d) Metallurgist

77) If an inspector finds an imperfection in an original fabrication weld and analysis is required to assess the impact of the weld quality on piping integrity, which of the following may perform the analysis?

a) An API 510 inspector, WPS inspector, A Pressure Vessel Engineer
b) An API 570 inspector, a CWI inspector, a piping engineer
c) An owner-user, a B31.3 inspector, an industrial engineer
d) A Jurisdictional representative, a API 574 inspector, a Chemical Engineer

78) According to API 570, some welds in a piping system that has been subjected to radiography according to ASME B31.3:

a) Will meet random radiograph requirements and will perform satisfactorily in-service without a hydrotest
b) Will not meet random radiograph requirements, and will not perform satisfactorily in-service even though hydrotested.
c) Will meet random radiograph requirements, and will not perform satisfactorily in-service after a hydrotest
d) Will not meet random radiograph requirements, but will still perform satisfactorily in-service after being hydrotested.

 

79) How should fasteners and gaskets be examined to determine whether they meet the material specifications:

a) All fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if their markings are correct according to ASME and ASTM standards
b) A representative sample of the fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if their markings are correct according to ASME and ASTM standards
c) Purchase records of all fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if the fasteners and gaskets meet ASME and ASTM standards
d) A representative sample of the purchase records of fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if the fasteners and gaskets meet ASME and ASTM standards.

80) When checking flange and valve bonnet bolts for corrosion, what type of NDT is usually used?

a) RT
b) UT
c) VT
d) AE

81) What course of action is called for when an inspector finds a flange joint that has been clamped and pumped with sealant?

a) Disassemble the flange joint; renew the fasteners and gaskets. The flanges may also require renewal or repair.
b) Renew all the fasteners and renew the gasket if leakage is still apparent.
c) Check for leakage at the bolts; if re-pumping is contemplated, affected fasteners should be renewed.
d) No action is required since the joint has been pumped with a sealant.

82) All process piping systems must be categorised into different classes. On what are the classifications selection based?

a) Requirements of jurisdiction and the proximity of population areas
b) Potential safety and environmental effects should a leak occur
c) Liability to the owner-user and the requirements of the jurisdiction
d) Access to the systems for inspection and closeness to population areas

82) (A) Inspection strategy based on likelihood and consequence of failure is called:

a) RBI
b) FFS
c) BIR
d) MSOS

82) (B) An RBI assessment can be used to __________ the inspection interval limits in Table 1 of API 570 or the extent of the inspection conducted:

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Either a or b above
d) None of the above

82) © When an RBI assessment is used to increase or decrease inspection intervals, the assessment shall be conducted on Class 1 systems at a maximum interval of __________ years.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 3

83) Listed below are several examples of a CLASS 1 piping system. Which one does not belong?

a) Anhydrous hydrogen chloride;
b) Hydrofluoric acid
c) Piping over or adjacent to water and piping over public throughways
d) Distillate and product lines to and from storage and loading

84) Of the three classification of piping systems, which includes the majority of unit processes and selected off-site piping?

a) Class 3
b) Combination of classes 1 and 2
c) Class 1
d) Class 2

85) Class 3 piping is described as being in services:

a) With the highest potential of resulting in an immediate emergency if a leak occurs.
b) That are flammable but do not significantly vaporise when they leak and are not located in high-activity areas
c) That are not flammable and pose no significant risk to populated areas
d) That are not in classes 1 and 2.

86) Who establishes inspection interval for thickness measurements, external visual inspections and for internal and supplemental inspections?

a) Piping engineer
b) Owner-user or the inspector
c) Chemical Engineer
d) Piping engineer and the jurisdiction

87) Thickness measurement inspection should be scheduled based on the calculation of not more than

a) One half the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval of 5 years whichever is shorter.
b) One half the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval allowed by API 570 in Table 1, whichever is shorter
c) One fourth the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval of 10 years whichever is shorter.
d) One quarter the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval allowed by API 570 in Table 1, whichever is shorter.

88) For external inspections for potential corrosion under insulation (CUI) on Class 1 systems, the examination should include at least __________ percent of all suspect areas and __________ percent of all areas of damaged insulation.

a) 50, 75
b) 50, 33
c) 75, 50
d) 25, 10

89) Piping systems that are known to have a remaining life of over __________ years or that are protected against external corrosion need not have insulation removed for the periodic external inspection.

a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 20

90) For Class 3 piping systems, the examination for corrosion under insulation (CUI) should include at least __________ percent of all suspect areas.

a) 50
b) 30
c) 10
d) 0

91) For Class 2 piping, the extent of CUI inspections on a system operating at – 45oF will be:

a) 75% of damaged areas, 50% of suspect areas
b) 50% of suspect areas, 33% of damaged areas
c) 33% of damaged areas, 50% of suspect areas
d) None of the above

92) Small bore piping (SBP) that is Class I shall be inspected

a) Where corrosion has been experienced
b) At the option of the inspector
c) To the same requirements as primary process piping
d) Only if it has dead legs

93) Inspection of small bore piping (SBP) that is secondary and auxiliary (associated with instruments and machinery) is

a) Only required where corrosion has been experienced
b) Optional
c) Only if it has dead legs
d) Only if it is threaded

94) If an inspector finds threaded small bore piping (SBP) associated with machinery and subject to fatigue damage, he should:

a) Plan periodically to assess it and consider it for possible renewal with a thicker wall or upgrade it to welded components.
b) Inspect it only if it is corroded and the class of service requires an inspection.
c) Call for dismantling the threaded joints for close inspection to determine if any cracks are in the roots of the threads.
d) Have all the threaded piping renewed at each inspection period.

95) An eight-inch diameter piping system is installed in December 1979. The installed thickness if measured as 0.34”. The minimum thickness of the pipe is 0.20”. It is inspected 12/83 and the thickness is found to be 0.32”. An inspection 12/87 reveals a loss of 0.01” from the 12/85 inspection. During 12/89 the thickness was found to be 0.29”. The last inspection was during 12/95 and the thickness was found to be 0.26”. What is the long-term corrosion rate of this system?

a) 0.005”/year
b) 0.0075”/year
c) 0.00375”/year
d) 0.0025”/year

96) Using the information in question 95, calculate the short-term corrosion rate:

a) 0.005”/year
b) 0.0075”/year
c) 0.00375”/year
d) 0.0025”/year

97) Using the information in questions 95 and 96, determine the remaining life of the system:

a) 18 years
b) 15 years
c) 12 years
d) 6 years

98) You have a new piping system that has just been installed. It is completely new and no information exists to establish a corrosion rate. Also, information is no available on a similar system. You decide to put the system in service and NDT it later to determine the corrosion rate. How long do you allow the system to stay in service before you take your first thickness readings?

a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months

99) After an inspection interval is completed and if calculations indicate that an inaccurate rate of corrosion has been assumed in a piping system, how do you determine the corrosion rate for the next inspection period?

a) Check the original calculations to find out what the error is in the original assumption.
b) Unless the corrosion rate is higher, the initial rates shall be used.
c) The corrosion rate shall be adjusted to agree with the actual rate found.
d) If the corrosion rate is higher than originally assumed, call in a corrosion specialist.

100) If a piping system is made up of unknown materials and computations must be made to determine the minimum thickness of the pipe, what can the inspector or the piping engineer do t establish the minimum thickness?

a) The lowest grade material and joint efficiency in the applicable code may be assumed for calculations.
b) Samples must be taken from the piping and testing for maximum tensile stress and yield strength will determine the allowable stress to be used.
c) The piping made of the unknown material must be removed from service and current piping of known material must be installed.
d) The piping of unknown material may be subjected to a hydrostatic stress tests while having strain gages on it to determine its yield strength and thus allowable stress.

101) A piping engineer is designing a piping service with high potential consequences if a failure occurs, i.e., a 350 psi natural gas line adjacent to a high density population area. What should he consider doing for unanticipated situations?

a) Have all his calculations checked twice.
b) Increase the required minimum thickness.
c) Notify the owner-user and the jurisdiction.
d) Set up an emergency evacuation procedure.

102) When evaluating locally thinned areas, the surface of the weld includes __________ on either side of the weld or __________ times the minimum measured thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater.

a) 0.5”, 3
b) 1”, 2
c) 2”, 1
d) 1.5”, 1.5

103) An inspector finds a thin area in a fabricated 24” diameter pipe. The thin area includes a longitudinal weld in the pipe and is 10 feet long and 2 foot circumferentially. Calculations show that with 0.85 joint factor, the pipe must be repaired, renewed, etc. or the pressure in the pipe must be lowered. The owner does not want to do any hot work on the pipe and he does not wish to lower the pressure. What other course could you follow?

  • a) Write the results of the inspection up and leave it with the owner.
  • b) Radiograph the weld 100 % and increase the joint factor to one.
  • c) Insist that the weld be repaired or renewed or that the pressure be lowered.
  • d) Call in a regulator agency to force the owner to repair, renew, etc. the line.

104) Piping stress analysis is done during the system’s original design. How can the inspector make use of stress analysis information?

  • a) An inspector cannot use this information. It is only meaningful to a piping engineer.
  • b) It can be used to make sure the piping system was originally evaluated and designed correctly.
  • c) It can be used to concentrate inspection efforts at locations most prone to fatigue or creep damage, and to solve vibration problems.
  • d) The inspector should use this information to evaluate the need for conducting additional piping stress analysis.

105) You are inspecting a piping system. You find a significant loss of material (a major increase of corrosion rate) in gas oil piping (used as reboiler oil, temperature 500°F) on a Fluid Catalytic Cracking Unit. What is the best course of action for you to take?

  • a)The losses may be reported to your supervisor for corrective response
  • b) The losses should be recorded and reported in your final report after the unit has started.
  • c) It shall be reported to the owner-user for appropriate action.
  • d) Replace excessively thin piping and note replacement in the final report after unit startup.

106) The __________ shall maintain appropriate permanent and progressive records of each piping system covered by API 570.

  • a) Inspector
  • b) Owner-user
  • c) Jurisdiction
  • d) Examiner

107) When making repairs and alterations to piping systems, the principles of __________ or the code to which the piping system was built shall be followed:

  • a) ASME B31.3
  • b) API 570
  • c) API 574
  • d) ASME B&PV Code

108) Repair and alteration work must be done by a repair organisation as defined in API 570 and must be authorised by the __________ prior to its commencement:

  • a) Jurisdiction
  • b) Inspector
  • c) Owner-user
  • d) Examiner

109) Authorisation for alteration work to a piping system may be given by the inspector after:

  • a) Notifying the jurisdiction and getting their approval
  • b) Consulting API 570 and getting the approval of the owner-user
  • c) Consultation with and approval by a piping engineer
  • d) Discussing with and consent by an examiner

110) A repair procedure involving welding requires that the root pass of the weld be inspected before continuing the weld. A “hold” on the repair is required at this point. Who designates this “hold?”

  • a) A metallurgist
  • b) The owner-user
  • c) An API 570 inspector
  • d) The welder supervisor

111) What type of repairs and procedures may the inspector give prior general authorisation to continue (provided the inspector is satisfied with the competency of the repair organization)?

  • a) Major repairs and minor procedures
  • b) Limited or routine repairs and procedures
  • c) Alterations and re-ratings
  • d) Minor re-ratings and alterations

112) Who approves all proposed methods of design, execution, materials, welding procedures, examination and testing of inservice piping?

  • a) The jurisdiction or the piping engineer as appropriate
  • b) The analyst and the operator as appropriate
  • c) The examiner and the piping programmer as appropriate
  • d) The inspector or the piping engineer as appropriate

113) Who must give approval for any on-stream welding?

  • a) Owner-user
  • b) Jurisdiction
  • c) Examiner
  • d) Analyst

114) An inspector finds a crack in the parent metal of a pipe adjacent to a support lug. The pipe was being inspected after a 5 year run. Before repairing, he should:

  • a) Notify the jurisdiction prior to the start of any repairs
  • b) Write a detailed procedure for the repair organisations use in repairing the crack
  • c) Consult with the piping engineer to identify and correct the cause of the crack.
  • d) Consult with a metallurgist prior to writing a procedure to repair the crack.

115) A full encirclement welded split sleeve designed by a piping engineer may be applied over a damaged or corroded area of a pipe. This is considered a temporary repair. When should a permanent repair be made?

  • a) If the owner-user designates the welded split sleeve as permanent, it may remain.
  • b) A full encirclement welded split sleeve is permanent if okayed by the inspector.
  • c) A full encirclement welded split sleeve is considered a permanent repair.
  • d) A permanent repair must be made at the next available maintenance opportunity.

116) What type of defect, corrosion, pitting and / or discontinuity should not be repaired by a full encirclement welded split sleeve?

a) A longitudinal check
b) A circumferential crack
c) Pits that are one half through wall
d) General corrosion in the longitudinal direction.

117) If a repair area is localised (for example, pitting or pin-holes) and the specified minimum yield strength (SMYS) of the pipe is not more than __________ psi, a temporary repair may be made by fillet welding a properly designed plate patch over the pitted area:

a) 30,000 psi
b) 55,000 psi
c) 40,000 psi
d) 36,000 psi

118) Insert patches (flush patches may be used to repair damaged or corroded areas of pipe if several requirements are met. One of these is that an insert patch (flush patch) may be of any shape but it shall have rounded corners with __________ minimum radii.

a) 0.375”
b) 0.50”
c) 0.75”
d) 1”

119) An inspector finds a pin-hole leak in a weld during an on-stream inspection of a piping system. A permissible temporary repair is :-

a) The use of plastic steel to seal off the leak
b) Driving a wooden plug into the hole
c) Screwing a self tapping screw into the hole
d) The installation of a properly designed and fabricated bolted leak clamp.

120) Temporary leak sealing and leak dissipating devices shall be removed and the pipe restored to original integrity:

a) As soon as the piping system can be safely removed from service
b) At a turnaround or other appropriate time
c) When the leak seal and leak dissipating device ceases to work
d) As soon as possible – must be done on a safe, emergency shut-down basis

121) Which of the following is NOT an item for consideration by an inspector when a leak sealing fluid (“pumping”) is used for a temporary leak seal repair:

a) Consider the compatibility of the sealant with the leaking material
b) Consider the pumping pressure on the clamp (especially when re-pumping)
c) Consider the pressure testing of the piping in question
d) Consider the number of times the seal area is re-pumped

122) Any welding conducted on piping components in operation must be done in accordance with

a) NFPA 704
b) API Standard 510
c) ASME B31.3
d) API Publication 2201

123) All repair and alteration welding to piping systems shall be done in accordance with the:

a) Exact procedures of ASME B31.3 or to the code to which it was built
b) Standards of ASME B31.1 or the code to which it was built
c) Principles of ASME B31.3 or the code to which it was built
d) Ideals of ASME, NBIC, or API standards

124) Welders and welding procedures used in making piping repairs, etc. shall be qualified in accordance with:

a) ASME B31.3 or the code to which the piping was built
b) NBIC or the system to which the piping was built
c) NACE or the method to which the piping was built
d) ASTM or the law to which the piping was built

125) The repair organisation responsible for welding shall maintain records of welding procedures and welder performance qualifications. These records shall be available to the inspector:

a) At the end of the job
b) After the start of welding
c) Following the start of welding
d) Before the start of welding

126) Preheating to not less than __________ °F may be considered as an alternative to post weld heat treatment for alterations or repairs of P-1, piping initially post weld heat treated as a code requirement (may not be used if the piping was post weld heat treated due to environmental cracking prevention).

a) 150
b) 200
c) 300
d) 350

127) When u sing local PWHT as a substitute for 360-degree banding on local repairs of PWHT’d piping, which of the following items is NOT considered.

a) The application is reviewed, and a procedure is developed by the piping engineer
b) The locally PWHT’d area of the pipe must be RT’d or UT’d
c) A preheat of 300oF or higher is maintained while welding
d) The PWHT is performed for code compliance and not for environmental cracking

128) Piping butt joints shall be:

a) Double spiral fillet welds
b) Single fillet lap welds
c) Double fillet lap welds
d) Full-penetration groove welds

129) When piping components that need repair should be replaced?

a) When enough time remains on a turnaround to allow replacement
b) When repair is likely to be inadequate
c) When the cost of repair is as high as renewal
d) When replacement is preferred by maintenance personnel

130) Fillet welded patches (lap patches) shall be designed by

a) An engineer
b) The inspector
c) The piping engineer
d) The repair organisation

131) Fillet welded lap patches (overlay patches) shall leave:

a) No membrane stresses
b) Right-angle corners
c) Rounded corners
d) Burnished corners

132) Materials used in making welding repairs or alterations __________ be of known weldable quality:

a) May
b) Shall
c) Should
d) Can

133) Acceptance of a welded repair or alteration shall include __________ in accordance with the applicable code and the owner-user’s specification, unless otherwise specified in API 570.

a) Nominal Pragmatic Sizing (NPS)
b) NBE
c) Safeguards
d) Nondestructive examination

134) After welding is completed on a repair or alteration, __________ in accordance with API 570 shall be performed if practical and deemed necessary by the inspector.

a) NPS
b) Safety sanctions
c) BE
d) A pressure test

135) When are pressure tests normally required?

a) Pressure tests are normally required after alterations and any repair
b) Pressure tests are normally required after alterations and major repairs
c) Pressure tests are normally required after major and minor repairs
d) Pressure tests are normally required only as specified by the owner-user

136) When a pressure test is not necessary or practical, what shall be utilised in lieu of a pressure test?

a) NPS
b) Nondestructive examination
c) Vacuum visual examination
d) NBE

137) Special procedure in place of a pressure test after an alteration or repair may be done only after consultation with :-

a) The operations and the repair organisation
b) The inspector and the piping engineer
c) The jurisdiction
d) The examiner and the inspector

138) When it is not practical to perform a pressure test of a final closure weld that joins a new or replacement section of piping to an existing system, several requirements shall be satisfied. Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements?

a) The closure weld is a full-penetration fillet weld between a weld neck flange and standard piping component or straight sections of pipe of equal diameter and thickness, axially aligned, and or equivalent materials. For design cases up to Class 150 and 500oF, slipon flanges are acceptable alternates.
b) MT or PT shall be performed on the root pass and the completed butt weld. Fillet welds must have PT / MT on the completed weld.
c) The new or replacement piping is pressure tested.
d) Any final closure butt weld shall be of 100 % radiographic quality; or angle-beam UT may be used, provide the appropriate acceptance criteria is established.

139) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for re-rating a piping system by changing the temperature or the MAWP:

a) The existing pressure relieving devices are still in place and set as they were originally
b) Calculations are performed by the piping engineer or the inspector
c) Piping flexibility is adequate for design temperature changes
d) A decrease in minimum operating temperature is justified by impact test results, if required by the applicable code.

140) Why is the inspector of buried process piping (not regulated by DOT) different from other process piping inspection ?

a) The insulating effect of the soil increases the possibility of more internal combustion
b) Internal corrosion has to be controlled by cathodic protection
c) Significant external deterioration can be caused by corrosive soil conditions
d) Internal corrosion must be controlled by internal coatings.

141) Indications of leaks in buried piping may include several indications. Which of the ones listed below is NOT one of the indications ?

a) A change in the surface contour of the ground.
b) Water standing on the pipeline right-of-way
c) Discoloration of the soil
d) Notice odour

142) Corrosion cells can form on both bare and coated pipe where bare steel contacts the soil. How can these cells be detected ?

a) Run an acoustic emission test on the piping
b) Visually survey the route of buried piping
c) The potential at the area of corrosion will be measurable different than other areas and a close-interval potential survey can detect the location of corrosion
d) Run an internal survey of the piping using a video camera

143) A pipe coating holiday survey is used to locate coating defects on coated pipes. It can be used on newly constructed pipe systems to ensure that the coating is intact and holidayfree. More often, it is used on buried pipe to:

a) Show the measurable differences in electrical potential in corroded areas
b) Evaluate coating serviceability for buried piping that has been in-service for along time.
c) Determine the depth of the piping for resistivity testing
d) Evaluate the cathodic protection components of the under-ground pipe

144) Cathodically protected buried piping should be monitored __________ to assure adequate levels of protection:

a) Regularly
b) Intermittently
c) Erratically
d) Frequently

145) If an “intelligent pigging” system is used to inspect buried piping, what type of bends are usually required in the piping system ?

a) Five diameter bends
b) 90 degree pipe ells
c) Ten diameter bends
d) Three diameter bends

146) How often should above-grade visual surveillance of a buried pipeline right-of-way be made?

a) Once a month
b) Approximately 6 month intervals
c) Once a year
d) Once every 3 months

 

147) How often should poorly coated pipes with inconsistent cathodic protection potentials have a pipe-to-soil potential survey made ?

a) Yearly
b) Every 2 years
c) Every 5 years
d) Every 7 years

148) On buried piping, what is the frequency of pipe coating holiday surveys?

a) The frequency is governed by the leak test interval of the pipe
b) It is usually based on indications that other forms of corrosion control are ineffective.
c) Surveys are normally made every 5 years
d) Pipe coating holiday surveys are made when the pipe is excavated.

149) For a piping buried in lengths greater than __________ feet and not cathodically protected, evaluation of soil corrosivity should be performed at 5-year intervals.

a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150

150) If buried piping is cathodically protected, the system should be monitored at intervals in accordance with Section 10 of NACE RP0169 or Section 90 of API RP 651. API RP 651 specifies __________ interval.

a) Annual
b) Biannual
c) Biennial
d) Trennial

151) Buried piping inspected periodically by excavation shall be inspected in lengths of __________ feet at one or more locations judged to be most susceptible to corrosion

a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10

152) After excavation of buried piping, if inspection reveals damaged coating or corroded piping:

a) The condition should be noted in the records and the inspection interval shortened
b) The complete piping system must be daylighted (excavated) for repair or replacement.
c) The damaged coating or corroded piping must be repaired or replaced
d) Additional piping shall be excavated until the extent of the condition is identified.

153) If buried piping is contained inside a casing pipe, the casing should be:

 

a) Capable of carrying the same pressure as the product pipe
b) Checked to see if its protective coating is intact and serviceable
c) Pressure tested to make sure it is serviceable
d) Inspected to determine if water and / or soil has entered the casing

154) An alternative or supplement to inspection of buried piping is leak testing with liquid at a pressure at least __________ % greater than the maximum operating pressure at intervals ½ the length of those shown in Table 9-1 of API 570 for piping NOT cathodically protected and at the same intervals as shown in Table 9-1 for cathodically protected piping.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 25
d) 50

155) The leak test for buried piping should be for a period of __________ hours.

a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 24

156) The leak test for a 8” diameter buried piping system is 300 psi. After 7 hours, the pressure reacts 273 psi. What should the inspector do?

a) Nothing is required. The loss of pressure is negligible and will not affect the test. The loss can be disregarded.
b) The system should be re-pressurised to the original leak test pressure and the test should begin again.
c) The test charts and the temperature should be reviewed to determine if any change in temperature caused the pressure drop.
d) The piping should be visually inspected externally and / or inspected internally to find the leak and assess the extent of corrosion.

157) A buried piping system that is not cathodically protected has to have an inspection interval set. The soil resistivity is checked and found to be 3400 ohm/cm. As the inspector, what interval would you set?

a) 2.5 years
b) 7.5 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years

158) Buried piping also may be surveyed for integrity by removing the line from service and performing a leak test. This inspection method typically involves pressurising the line with a __________, allowing time for the __________ to diffuse to the surface and surveying the buried line with a gas-specific detector to detect the __________

a) Tracer gas (such as helium or sulphur hexafluoride)
b) Light hydrocarbon (such as butane)
c) Smoke type material (such as chemical smoke)
d) Water vapour (such as steam)

159) Repairs to coating on buried piping may be tested using

a) A low-voltage holiday detector
b) Light taps with an inspection hammer
c) A flaw indicator fluid
d) A high-voltage holiday detector

160) If buried piping leaks are clamped and reburied:

a) No further action is required unless the piping leaks again
b) The date of installation shall be marked on the clamp for future identification
c) A record of the location and the date of installation shall be maintained
d) The clamped line shall be leak tested.

161) A 10” diameter piping system with 4” diameter and 6” diameter reinforced branch connections is to have changes made to it. Which of the following is considered an alteration?

a) A new 1” diameter un-reinforced nipple is installed
b) A new 8” diameter reinforced branch connection is installed
c) A new 4” diameter reinforced branch connection is installed
d) A new 3” diameter reinforced branch connection is installed

162) Which of the following would not be classified as an applicable code to which a piping system was built?

a) ASME B31.3
b) ASME B31.1
c) ASA B31.1-1955, Section 3
d) ASTM A-20

163) Which of the inspection agencies listed below is NOT an Authorised Inspection Agency as defined in API 570.

a) Jurisdictional inspection organisation
b) Owner-user inspection organisation
c) ASTM inspection organisation
d) Independent inspection organisation

164) An authorised piping inspector is an employee of an authorised inspection agency who is qualified to perform the functions specified in API 570. Which individual listed below is not usually an authorised piping inspector.

a) An owner-user inspector.
b) A jurisdictional inspector
c) An NDE examiner
d) An insurance inspector

165) Which of the following qualifies as auxiliary piping ?

a) Control valve manifolds
b) Bypass lines around exchangers
c) Pump seal oil lines
d) Orifice runs

166) CUI stands for:

a) Control unit inspector
b) Corrosion under insulation
c) Corrected unobtrusive inserts
d) Corroded underground installation

167) Deadlegs legs of a piping system are:

a) The upstream piping of control valve manifolds
b) Supports attached to a pipeline that has no product in them
c) The upstream part of an orifice runs
d) Sections that normally have no significant flow

168) A defect is an imperfection of a type or magnitude exceeding the __________ criteria.

a) Non-specific
b) Imprecise
c) General
d) Acceptable

169) The design temperature of a piping system component is the temperature at which, under the coincident pressure, the __________ is required.

a) Smallest thickness or highest component rating
b) Greatest thickness or highest component rating
c) Maximum thickness or lowest component rating
d) Minimum thickness or minimum component rating

170) An examiner is a person who __________ the inspector

a) Supplants
b) Assists
c) Supervises
d) Directs

171) Hold point is a point in the repair or alteration process beyond which work may not proceed until the __________ has been performed and documented

a) PWHT required
b) Required inspection
c) RT required
d) Ultrasonic testing

172) What is an imperfection?

a) It is a flaw or discontinuity noted during inspection that may be subject to acceptance.
b) It is a defect noted during inspection that is unacceptable.
c) It is a weld flaw noted during an inspection that may be subject to repair
d) It is a blemish that is only cosmetic and acceptable under all conditions.

173) __________ is a response or evidence resulting from the application of a nondestructive evaluation technique

a) Indication
b) Imperfection
c) Breach
d) Division

174) What are points where chlorine is introduced in reformers, water is added in overhead systems, etc. called

a) Primary process points
b) Level bridle points
c) Injection points
d) Test points

175) What is the loss of ductility and notch toughness in susceptible low-alloy steels such as 1.25 and 2.5 Cr., due to prolonged exposure to high-temperature service called?

a) Creep
b) Temper embrittlement
c) Incipient melting
d) Graphitisation

176) Secondary process piping is small-bore (less than or equal to _____) process piping downstream of normally closed block valves.

a) NPS ¾
b) NPS 1
c) NPS 2
d) NPS 3

177) A test point is an area defined by a circle having a diameter not greater than __________ inches for a line diameter not exceeding 10 inches or not greater than __________ inches for larger lines.

a) 3, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) ¾, 1

178) When making a repair utilising a welded full encirclement repair sleeve and the sleeve material is different from the pipe material, you should:

a) Consult the piping engineer.
b) Use a weld rod matching the higher strength material
c) Use a weld rod matching the lower strength material
d) Use an alloy weld rod such as Inco-A

179) What type of electrode should be used when welding a full encirclement repair sleeve?

a) Low-hydrogen electrode.
b) Low-phosphorous electrode
c) Low-chrome electrode
d) Low-nitrogen electrode

180) Which of the following welding electrodes is low-hydrogen?

a) E6010
b) E7016.
c) E7011
d) E7014

181) When welding a small repair patch, the diameter of electrodes used should not exceed

a) 1/8”
b) 3/16”
c) 5/32”.
d) ¼”

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1. What old code used to build rivet tanks?

a. API Spec 12A
b. API 653
c. API 650
d. API 575

2. What code covers the safety precautions of entering a tank?

a. API 653
b. API 575
c. API 2015
d. API 2000
e. API Spec 12A

3. What code covers cathodic protections of tanks?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

4. What code covers tank lining?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

5. What code covers tank venting?

a. API RP 12R1
b. API Std 2015
c. API 653
d. API Std 2000
e. API Std 2006

6. What code covers design of low-pressure tanks?

a. API 650
b. API 620
c. API 653
d. API 575

7. When taking UT thickness readings, it is recommended to use digital meter that also has a___________________

a. Dual-element
b. Trace display
c. Digital output
d. Transducer

8. Dual-element transducer may give a false reading when the material thickness is less than__________ inch.

a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 0.1
d. 0.001

9. A Dual element transducers on a digital UT meter can effectively measure thickness between:____________ inch.

a. 0.05 – 0.10
b. 0.50 – 5.0
c. 0.05 – 1.0
d. 0.005 – 5.0

10. Which type of UT transducer is best for small diameter deep pits?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducer
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

11. Which of the statement is correct, when UT thickness checking over a paint or coating?

a. For such case Dual-element transducer will give correct thickness of steel
b. For such case single crystal transducer will give false reading
c. Epoxy coatings have a velocity approximately half that of the steel, so that UT tool will read the epoxy coating thickness as twice its actual thickness by Dual element transducer
d. All of the above

12. For coated tanks that have coatings that vary in thickness, which type of UT transducer is best?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducers
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

13. When performing a UT scan, the scans should overlap by __________ of the transducer diameter.

a. 100%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 5%

14. When performing a UT scan, a large diameter transducer may miss ________ diameter deep pits.

a. Small
b. Uneven
c. Even
d. Large

15. UT shear-wave is primarily used in tanks to find defects in _________ joints.

a. Butt welded
b. Groove welded
c. Lap welded
d. Corner

16. Ability to detect following are primary advantage of using the magnet-flux floor scanner, but not this one.

a. Even small size of under side pitting
b. Topside pitting
c. Underside corrosion
d. Holes on the tank floor

17. When using a magnet-flux scanner to inspect a tank floor, indications found are generally “proved-up” using __________.

a. Close monitoring by inspector
b. Ultrasonic examination
c. Further investigation by other tools
d. All of the above

18. When the product temperature in a tank increases, the vapor pressure of the product _______.

a. Decrease
b. No change
c. Increases
d. Small decreases

19. While in operation, which tank type roof is supported by internal members?

a. Cone roof
b. Dome roof
c. Floating roof
d. Umbrella

20. What is the primary reason(s) for using floating roof?

a. To minimize vapor space
b. To minimize time of fill and empty
c. To maximize outlet pressure
d. To prevent from contamination by external impurities

21. Which type of external floating roof is the most susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

22. Which type of external floating roof is the least susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

23. The most common type of floating roof seal are the __________.

a. Rubber seal
b. Tube type seal
c. Gasket seal
d. Mechanical seal

24. When are internal floating roof tanks used? Where liquid _________.

a. Vaporization is more
b. Level is more
c. Vaporization is less
d. Level is less

25. Low-pressure storage tanks are those with a design from ___________ Psig.

a. 5 to 50
b. 2.5 to 15
c. –5 to 15
d. 5 to 25

26. Low-pressure storage tanks are normally used for products that have a high _________ pressure.

a. Vapor
b. Product
c. Liquid
d. Internal

27. For pressure above ________ psig, the hemispheroidal, spheroidal, and nodded spheroidal tanks are commonly used.

a. 2.5
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

28. These type of tanks are usually built in areas where large snowfalls or rainfalls might sink an open top-floating roof.

a. Cone roof
b. Both fixed roof and an internal floating roof
c. Highly corrosive resistant roof structure
d. External floating roof

29. Tank pads with cinders that contain __________ compounds become corrosive when wet.

a. Water
b. Product
c. Sulfur
d. Alkaline

30. These items in a sand pad that may cause bottom-side corrosion, but not this one?

a. Clay
b. Wood
c. Gravel or crushed stone
d. Fine dust

31. Causes of severe external corrosion at the bottom of the lower shell course are _______ .

a. When soil movement has raised the grade level to cover lower portion of the shell
b. When external insulation wicks up ground water
c. When damaged or improperly sealed openings around nozzles and attachments allow water ingress
d. All of the above

32. Small depressions in the roof are susceptible to ___________ corrosion.

a. Atmospheric
b. Localized
c. External
d. All of the above

33. Concentration cell corrosion may occur in the many niches of ____________ tanks.

a. Low pressure
b. Riveted
c. External floating
d. Internal floating

34. What metallurgy is primary used when constructing crude oil tanks?

a. Carbon steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Alloy steel
d. All of the above

35. These are common vapors that corrosion in a tank’s vapor space, but not this one?

a. Oxygen
b. Water vapor
c. Hydrogen sulfide vapor
d. Any combination of above
e. None of the above

36. Generally in the liquid portion of a tank, internal corrosion is worse at the ______.

a. Bottom of tank
b. Top of tank
c. Welds
d. Shells

37. What type of tank failure results in a sudden loss of the product?

a. Crack
b. Brittle fracture
c. Full weld crack
d. When product spill out from the tank

38. The most likely points for cracks to occur are _________.

a. At the bottom to shell connections
b. Around nozzle connection
c. At manholes
d. Around rivet holes
e. All of the above

39. What welds are most susceptible to cracking in a hot tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

40. What is the most susceptible to cracking in a large diameter tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

41. What is the most likely problem when there is excessive uniform settlement?

a. Over stress in nozzle attachments.
b. Crack in shell plates
c. Severe service problem
d. When uniform settlement nothing will happened

42. What is the common problem with pressure-vacuum vents?

a. Fouling materials
b. Corrosion between moving parts and guides or seats
c. The deposits of foreign substance by birds or inserts
d. All of the above

43. A plugged floating roof drain can cause the roof to ________.

a. Inoperative
b. Damage easily
c. Guide to move smoothly
d. Additional supports

44. The inspection checklists in Appendix C are:

a. Mandatory for all tanks
b. Mandatory only on low-pressure tanks
c. Considered a “memory jogger” for the inspector
d. None of the above

45. The tanks made by wooden material are also attacked by _______.

a. Inserts
b. Moisture
c. Atmospheric corrosion on wood
d. Stress corrosion

46. After a significant rainfall the __________ on floating roofs should be checked.

a. Dents, because it leads corrosion easily
b. Water drains
c. Surface area
d. All of the above

47. Before entry or reentry any tank, appropriate safety precautions are necessary, generally such precautions are_______________.

a. Removal of hazardous gases
b. Blinding all toxic inlets
c. Checking of oxygen level
d. All of the above

48. Prior to conducting an external or internal inspection the inspector should review_____________ to become familiar with problems and recommendations noted in previous inspection and maintenance reports.

a. Previous inspection record
b. Inspection procedure
c. Present inspection procedure
d. Drawings, data sheet etc

49. What type of corrosion can happen between a bolt head and a steel plate?

a. Stress corrosion due to over tight
b. Crevice
c. Crack
d. Pitting
e. All of the above

50. When inspecting handrails pay particular attention to tubular members, because they corroded__________.

a. From inside
b. Outside
c. Easily, because of removal of coating will happen frequently
d. By regular touch by operation people

51. Low spot platforms that collect water are routine places for corrosion to occur. This can be solved by _________.

a. Cathodic production
b. Small hole should be drilled for drainage
c. Proper coating after cleaning
d. Raise the height of platform

52. Tank foundations made of ___________

a. Sand pads
b. Concrete piers
c. Ring walls
d. All of the above

53. For tanks on a concrete pad, the floor to pad joint should be ___________

a. Visually checked for washing out
b. Uneven settlement
c. Checked by using surveyor’s level
d. Checked for spilling, cracks and general deterioration

54. Corrosion below as anchor-bolt nut sometimes can be detected by__________

a. UT
b. RT
c. Hammer
d. MT

55. Pipe connected to tanks should be inspected. Where pipe enters soil, the soil should be dug away__________ inches to inspect for soil-to-air corrosion?

a. 12 to 24
b. 6 to 12
c. 24 to 36
d. 36 to 48

56. If distortion is found at the nozzles, the welds and shell area should be examined for __________

a. Cracks
b. Distortion
c. Corrosion
d. Bending

57. Ground connections should be ___________ checked.

a. Resistance
b. Visually
c. Thickness
d. Periodically

58. The resistance of the grounding connections should not exceed _______ ohms.

a. 15
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25

59. Which potential problem with coatings is most difficult to see?

a. Blisters
b. Rust spot
c. Film lifting
d. Even discolor

60. Paint blisters occur most often on the roof and on the shell area that receives most ________

a. Rail fall
b. Sun light
c. Product gases exposure
d. All of the above

61. The ___________ side of an insulated tank is most susceptible to CUI.

a. Shell
b. Shaded
c. Exposed to sun light
d. Bottom

62. CUI may be significant at the bottom of the tank, because the insulation may be in contact with______________.

a. Product always
b. Surface water
c. More stressed bottom
d. Open atmosphere because removal of insulation easily in bottom side

63. Inspectors should not walk on _____________ tank roofs

a. In-service
b. Insulated
c. Painted
d. Cleaned

64. The depth of a locally corroded area can best be measured with a long __________

a. Straight edge
b. Tape
c. Steel wire
d. Flexible scale

65. The depth of isolated pits are normally measured with a ___________

a. Depth gauge
b. UT
c. Pit gauge
d. Visually

66. What part of the shell of a floating roof tank usually corrodes at twice the rate of the rest of the shell?

a. Upper 24inch of uncoated shell
b. All exposed uncoated area
c. Twice rate of corrosion will not occur in any part of tank
d. Surface of floating roof

67. Stiffeners and wind girders are normally inspected visually and by _________testing.

a. PT or MT
b. Leak
c. Hammer
d. UT thickness
e. Outside calipers and steel rules

68. Caustic tanks may be subject to a corrosion mechanism called _________

a. Stress corrosion cracking
b. Caustic embrittlement
c. Temper embrittlement
d. All of the above

69. Where is caustic cracking most common?

a. Bottom of shell
b. Vapor space of the shell & roof
c. Heating coils
d. Nozzle inlet & outlet from tank

70. Caustic material seeping through cracks will usually form readily visible ___________

a. Salts
b. Layer of corrosion
c. Bulging
d. Powdery from outside through cracks

71. Prior to welding on a tank in caustic service the area should be thoroughly cleaned and checked with the _________ solution.

a. Solvent
b. Indicating
c. H2SO4 with 10% Nitric acid
d. HCL with 25% Nitric acid

72. Hydrogen blisters can be found using:

a. Visual examination with flash light
b. Touch with fingers
c. PT or MT
d. All of the above
e. ‘a’ and ‘b’

73. Tank shell distortions can be measured using a ___________

a. Plumb check
b. Straight edge
c. Steel wire
d. Tape

74. Hydrogen blistering mat be found on the shell near:

a. Bottom
b. Nozzles
c. Top of the tank
d. Weld seams

75. These are causes of tank shell distortion and not this one?

a. Severe corrosion of the shell
b. Movement of connecting piping
c. Improper welding method
d. A vacuum in the tank
e. None of the above

76. Tank shell distortions may cause welds to be highly stressed and results in a _________

a. Crack
b. Bending
c. Collapse
d. Corrosion

77. Rivet can be best checked for looseness by using a ____________

a. Light passing through rivets
b. Hammer
c. Scriber
d. UT for loosens and damage

78. The thickness of a tank roof can be checked by __________ or _____________.

a. Hammer test or UT
b. UT or RT
c. UT or ET
d. Scale or outside caliper

79. When walking on a cone-roof tank, planks can be used. Planks that are used should be long enough to span at least __________ should be laid and used as walkways.

a. Two roof rafters
b. All the area of roof
c. Cover one roof plate
d. Leg length of inspector to walk over it

80. Individuals on a tank roof should walk on the _____________.

a. Rafters
b. Weld joints
c. Blanks
d. Center of roof plates

81. When walking on a floating roof, the tank should always be in the _________ position.

a. Low position to reach top safely
b. High gauge position
c. Any where, but safe position
d. Correct level position

82. External corrosion on a tank roof will usually be most severe at __________

a. Coating removed area
b. Insulation removed area
c. Depression where water can remain until it evaporates
d. All of the above

83. What is the primary reason for periodically inspecting flame arrestors?

a. Performance Check
b. Cleanliness and corrosion
c. Plug on arrestors
d. None of the above

84. When tunneling under a tank to inspect the bottom (it is rarely done!) it is difficult to properly_____________ the tunnel.

a. Remove
b. Refill
c. Inspect
d. Access

85. Probably the most expensive way to inspect the bottom-side of the tank floor is to _______ the tank

a. Lift
b. Clean
c. Inspection hole
d. None of the above

86. Types of floating roof drain are_________.

a. Simple open drain
b. Swing joint
c. Flexible-hose drain
d. All of the above

87. When the tank is out-of-service, the floating roof drain piping can be checked by pressure testing. Drains with swing joints require testing at ___________

a. Working pressure
b. Design pressure
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Two pressure 

88. During the external inspection, float-type gauges should be checked to make sure they are not cracked or filled with ___________

a. Water
b. Liquid
c. Any corrosive medium
d. All of the above

89. In a tank you noticed distortion, what will be the immediate action?

a. Check for tolerance of distortion
b. Immediately inform to owner/ operator
c. Determine its cause
d. Ask to analysis for fitness for purpose

90. Before allowing individuals on a floating roof tank that is not in the high-gauge position, a______________ test shall be performed before personnel are allow on the roof.

a. Hammer test
b. Thickness test
c. Gas test
d. Oxygen test

91. Normally internal tank corrosion is most prevalent in:

a. Vapor space
b. Liquid level line
c. Bottom
d. All of the above

92. Dry pyrophoric material can cause:

a. Cracking
b. General metal loss
c. Ignition
d. Pitting

93. Pyrophoric material may accumulate on the tank bottom or on the top of the__________.

a. Bottom plate
b. Nozzles
c. Sump
d. Rafters

94. In source service, corrosion is often occurs in the ___________.

a. Unlined steel
b. Insulation
c. Liquid area
d. Bottom area

95. In source service, corrosive vapors are formed when the _________ mixes with moisture and air.

a. Vapor
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Water
d. Sulfur

96. Carbon steel that has slag inclusions and _______ is more susceptible to hydrogen blistering.

a. Crack
b. Un-coated
c. High temperature
d. Laminations

97. Caustic stress corrosion cracking is prevalent in carbon steel when the temperature is above________°F

a. 100
b. 400
c. 150
d. 350

98. Tank bottoms are normally inspected visually and with __________

a. MFL
b. Ultrasonic thickness or corrosion scan
c. Multi transducer ultrasonic inspection with digital or analog display
d. All of the above

For Question number 99 to 101 :
During the internal inspection, a tank floor can be 100% inspected or partially inspected when
using a statistical method. Based on the statistical method answer the following.

99. What percentage of the floor should be scanned?

a. 100%
b. 50 to 75%
c. 25 to 40%
d. 5 to 10%

100. What pattern across the tank is generally used?

a. Grid
b. ‘X’
c. Line
d. Circular

101. What part should be completely scanned?

a. Any corroded area
b. Center area
c. Outer circumference next to the shell
d. Suspected area

102. Corrosion on the tank bottom may be very ____________.

a. Rare
b. Aggressive
c. Slow
d. Uniform

103. What simple technique can be used to pop deposits out of pits, making the pits much easier to see?

a. Hammering
b. Scratching
c. Blow with air
d. All of the above

104. What tool can assist in measuring the depth of a localized corroded area?

a. Single point ultrasonic-thickness measurements
b. RT
c. UT, MFL & coupon removal
d. All of the above

105. Rivet seams can be checked with a________

a. Hammer
b. Scraper
c. Visual
d. All of the above

106. Depressions in the tank floor and in area around roof supports should be checked for accelerated_________.

a. Corrosion
b. Dent
c. Damage
d. Holes

107. One method to check for penetrations in the bottom is to clean the tank floor and check for_________.

a. Crack
b. Corrosion
c. Wicking
d. Visual

108. One method to check for bottom-side corrosion that is usually not effective is the _______

a. Coupon removal.
b. MFL
c. Ultrasonic computer mapping
d. UT

109. Tanks with bottom angle joining the bottom-to-shell should be checked for _________

a. Corrosion
b. Distortion
c. Crack
d. Leak

110. Tank that contain dilute acids often are lined with________.

a. Rubber lining
b. Asbestos lining
c. Refractory lining
d. Lead lining

111. An effective way to locate pinholes and cracks in lead is with___________

a. MT
b. PT
c. Visual
d. MFL

112. Bulges in a lead liner indicate _________ behind the liner and are likely places of deterioration of the liner.

a. Corrosion
b. CUI
c. Crack
d. Underneath damage in liner

113. What is good practice when examining suspect areas in lead lined tanks?

a. Grid blast and visual
b. Visual & MT
c. Scraping with knife
d. Hammer test

114. Rubber tanks linings can be checked with a __________

a. Holiday detector
b. Visual
c. PT & visual
d. Surface cleaning and visual

115. Holiday testing is used to test ________

a. Erosion and thickness of lining
b. Holes and cracks
c. Mechanical damage
d. All of the above

116. When using a holiday detector it is important that the voltage does not get high enough to_________ the lining.

a. Puncture.
b. Check defect in
c. Operator safety
d. Magnetize

117. Glass-lined tanks should never be _________________.

a. Holiday tested
b. Opened
c. Hammered
d. Leave without NDT after hammer test

118. What type of lined tanks should be painted a unique color to indicate they have a special lining?

a. Rubber lined
b. Lead lined
c. Refractory lined
d. Glass lined

119. If corrosion is noted on the roof and upper shell, the structural members will also usually__________ thinning of the roof or shell.

a. Twice
b. Same
c. Less
d. More

120. What is an effective inspection technique for checking whether there is corrosion behind a concrete lining?

a. Light hammer tapping
b. Rust on surface also evident of corrosion behind
c. If doubt exists cut a section of lining and inspect
d. All of the above 

121. When significant corrosion is seen on the roof during the internal inspection, it is important to erect scaffolding so that ____________

a. Close visual can do
b. NDT for further investigation can do
c. Measurement can taken
d. None of the above

122. If corrosion is found internally on the shell at a specific elevation in a cone roof tank, it is important to check the ______________ at the same elevation.

a. Out side of shell
b. Roof support column
c. Roof structure
d. Shell rings

123. What metallurgy should never be hammer-tested?

a. Carbon steel
b. Alloy steel
c. Cast iron
d. Stainless steel

124. What internal tank component should be hydrostatically tested during an internal inspection?

a. Coils
b. Nozzles & connections
c. Roof drain
d. Tank must hydrostatically tested if required

125. Steam heating coils should be inspected for __________ grooving in the bottom of the coil with either UT or RT.

a. Crack
b. Blockage
c. Condensation
d. Erosion

126. Pontoons on swing line should be visually examined and _________________ for cracks.

a. Cleaned
b. Hammer tapped
c. Conduct leak test
d. Air leak test

127. When hydro-testing a tank consideration should be given to the ________ of the shell material.

a. Stress limit
b. Notch toughness
c. Thickness
d. Type

128. If an atmospheric tank is air tested, the pressure should not exceed _____ inch of water.

a. 0.5
b. 5.0
c. 50
d. 2.0
e. 10

129. A pneumatic test of a tank is good for finding ________ but is not a good pressure test.

a. Leak
b. Defect
c. Strength
d. Bulging

130. What part(s) of the atmospheric tank a very low stress load?

a. Roof
b. Bottom of tank resting on pad
c. Bottom area away from the shell or annular plate
d. All of the above

131. The pressure exerted on the sides of a tank is greatest at the ____________ of the tank.

a. Bottom
b. Shell side
c. Top side
d. Outside, because atmospheric pressure

132. Which of following situations does not appreciably weaken the plate?

a. Crack
b. Locally thinned area
c. Notch
d. Pit

133. Dry pyrophoric accumulations that can’t be cleaned out prior to inspection should be kept__________ during inspection.

a. Dilute
b. Covered
c. Moist
d. Warned to inspection personnel

134. Hydrogen blistering, caustic stress corrosion cracking and mechanical cracking are less frequently occurs in ___________.

a. Roof & bottom
b. Outside of shells
c. Inside of shells
d. Nozzles and internals

135. How can leaking rivets and rivet seams be repaired?

a. Caulked
b. Re-riveted
c. Welded or abrasive blast and epoxy coated
d. All of the above

136. When riveted seams are seal-welded, all rivets and seams with in ______ inches from the weld should be caulked.

a. 4
b. 10
c. 3
d. 6

137. Defective rivets can also be replaced with __________________.

a. Another rivet
b. Welding
c. Tap bolts
d. Plugging

138. List specific requirements when performing weld repairs to rivet heads and seams

a. Use large size electrode to fill the rivet hole easily
b. Position machine at high amperage to melt large size electrode
c. Keep weld bead bigger to fill the hole
d. Use back-step bead application
e. All of the above

139. When installing a new floor over an existing floor at least ________ inches of clean sand, or metal grating or concrete should separate the two floors.

a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2

140. When installing a new floor over existing floor that is cathodically protected, the old floor should___________________.

a. Be removed
b. Not be removed
c. Also be protected
d. Be considered as bottom

141. When installing a new floor over an existing floor that is cathodically protected, and the old floor is not removed, _______________ should be placed between the old and new floors.

a. New cathodic protection
b. Ribbon anodes
c. Corrosion cells
d. Any of the above

142. Prior to gouging out a crack, what should be done?

a. NDT for locating exact propagation of crack
b. Drill hole in each end of crack
c. Grind surface deburr
d. Mark the area of crack for rechecking

143. Deep pits may be filled with _________________

a. Welding
b. Putty
c. Paint
d. Lining

144. Prior to repairing a pit with a coating, the pit should be thoroughly cleaned by____________

a. Abrasive blasting
b. Chemical
c. Any method to make pit free form contamination
d. Cleaner

145. Leaks in tank roofs are often repaired using a ______________

a. Patch plate
b. Welding
c. Coating
d. Soft patch

146. Good inspection records are the basis of ___________ inspection program.

a. Good
b. Effective
c. Complete
d. Proper

147. Tank records should be kept for the ____________ of the each tank.

a. Service life
b. Up to commissioning
c. Up to clearance from AI
d. 5 years from commissioning

148. Item should be documented when internal or external tank inspections are performed.

a. Date of next inspection
b. Name of person who performed the inspection
c. Location of the repair
d. All of the above

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BGAS CSWIP Painting Inspector Exam Questions and Answers

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Here is the Answers keys:

1. What is mean by compliant coating?

a. Coating which applied on specified atmosphere condition
b. Coating which suitable with the requirements of the EPA.
c. Coating which suitable for the steel substrate
d. Coating with non compliance report

2. Which situation is expressed as damp surface?

a. Surface with detectable water
b. Surface temperature below dew point.
c. Surface with a noticeable film of water
d. Surface temperature above dew point

3. Which information is not available in MDS?

a. Flash point
b. Dew point.
c. VS%
d. Recommended Thinner

4. Who is having duty of Safety on a Working site?

a. HSE (Health & safety executive)
b. Contractor
c. Engineer
d. Employees.

5. ___________ used to detect the voltage in Impressed current system

a. National Grid
b. Transformer Rectifier
c. Copper/Copper Sulphate half cell electrode.
d. Sodium Chloride

6. A Coating continues protection of 7 years, Which falls in _____________

a. Long term protection.
b. Medium term protection
c. Short term protection
d. Fixed term protection

7. In dragger tube number specified is n=5,what is RAQ

a. 500 ppm
b. 5 rpm
c. 500 cfm
d. 500 cc.

8. A Galvanized substrate with oxide layer has formed called

a. New Galvanising
b. Weathered Galvanising.
c. Unsuitable galvanizing
d. Previously painted Galvanising

9. A primer used for pretreatment for zinc metal surfaces.

a. Zinc rich epoxy
b. T.Wash.
c. FBE
d. Zinc Phosphate

10. PA 10 specification is suitable for use in the following area:

a. Onshore installations.
b. offshore installations
c. internal coatings of pipes
d. below ground (buried)

11. After applying primer on steel surface, Paint got wetted by raining. As a painting inspector what you do?

a. Wait for water to dry
b. Blast to remove existing primer, recoat.
c. Continue next stage after rain
d. Recoat primer without removing existing coat

12. Who is having permission to change a specified paint system?

a. Paint technologist
b. Painting inspector
c. Engineer.
d. Contractor

13. Which surfaces comes on hot duty surfaces?

a. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 340o C
b. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 100o C.
c. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 37o C
d. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 540o C

14. At which temperature aluminium melts

a. 100 oC
b. 240 oC
c. 425 oC
d. 625 oC.

15. A Multi component paint dried by

a. Solvent evaporation
b. Oxidation
c. Chemical reaction.
d. Coalescense

16. Biscuit Gauge is another name for

a. Hegman’s grind gauge
b. Surface Comparator
c. Banana Gauge
d. Comb Gauge.

17. Gold leaf test is used for _________

a. Adhesion
b. Drying
c. Residual tack.
d. Dust detection

18. A single pack epoxy paint dry by

a. Coalescence
b. Chemical curing
c. Oxidation.
d. Solvent evaporation

19. Pull of Adhesion is a term associated with

a. Tinsley pencil
b. Banana Gauge
c. HATE
d. Dolly Test.

20. Which is not a property of extender pigments

a. Increase Gloss.
b. Increase Adhesion
c. Increase Cohesion
d. Increase film strength

21. ___________ can be used to detect the presence of oil or grease

a. Copper sulphate
b. Transparent Sticking Paper
c. UV Light.
d. Brestle Sample Patch

22. A coating fault which resembles holidays

a. Checking
b. Cratering
c. Crazing
d. Cissing.

23. Which grade of surface preparation required for hot duty surfaces from above 150oC?

a. Sa1
b. Sa2
c. Sa2½
d. Sa3.

24. In Electrostatic spray, The thickness of paint as controlled by

a. Time used to spray
b. Velocity of the particles
c. Voltage.
d. Degree of dispersion

25. Over thickness of Zinc silicate cause

a. Sagging
b. Mud Cracking.
c. Curtaining
d. Cohesive failure

26. Which factor does not affect gloss of a paint film?

a. CPVC
b. Flash Point.
c. Particle Size
d. Solvent type

27. According to Transco PA10,which metal spray not required a sealer

a. TSA
b. Polysiloxane Inorganic Coating.
c. Poly Vinyl Buterol
d. Inorganic Zinc Silicate

28. It is advisable to apply Moisture curing polyurethane by

a. Airless spray
b. Brushing.
c. Roller
d. Padding

29. IGE SR 21 is associated with

a. Gas Plant Manufacture
b. Handling of Methanol
c. Abrasive Blasting Safety.
d. Using of Sand Abrasive

30. Which paint application have “Insulation” effect?

a. Airless Spray
b. Remote Pressure pot
c. Dip coating
d. Electrostatic spray.

31. Reflectometer measures _________

a. Aggregate Size
b. Agglomerates Percentage
c. Gloss.
d. Colour

32. A Non Destructive test can be done

a. When substrate contain MIO
b. When substrate is non ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
c. When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
d. When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non Ferro magnetic.

33. Which one is not included in non ferrous substrate?

a. Stainless steel
b. Mild steel.
c. New Galvanising
d. Weathered Galvanising

34. Which one is not a compound in millscale?

a. FeO
b. Fe2O3
c. Fe2 O4.
d. Fe3O4

35. What is the approximate overlap area in painting?

a. 100 mm.
b. 100 cm
c. 10 mm
d. 100 um

36. In colour attributes, Brightness also referred by the term?

a. Chroma
b. Intensity
c. Value.
d. Weight

37. What is the minimum time for over coating?

a. 30 Minutes
b. 4 Hrs.
c. 12 Hrs
d. 24 Hrs

38. Colour of Millscale

a. Dark Blue.
b. Dark Grey
c. Black
d. No Colour

39. RAL number represents

a. Batch Number
b. Thinner Code
c. Colour Code.
d. Solvent Code

40. Ropiness is fault look like

a. Roller Stiple
b. Rivelling
c. Brush Marks.
d. Blisters

41. ____________ Abrasive is preferred for Wheel abrator

a. Steel Grit
b. Steel Shot.
c. Grit and Shot Mixed
d. Copper Slag

42. _____________ flow cup can be used to check viscosity of hot paint

a. Ford
b. Zahn.
c. ISO
d. DIN

43. Miser Valve ___________________ in dry blasting

a. Controls the Air Pressure
b. Controls the flow of abrasives.
c. Removes oil and water
d. Avoids leakage

44. Which solution is used for cathodic disbandment test?

a. Slightly acidic liquid
b. Salt water.
c. Alkaline liquid
d. Distilled water

45. Concentration and temperature of sulphuric acid in pickling process

a. 5-10% , 65-70 oC.
b. 65-70% , 5-10 oC
c. 2%, 80 oC
d. 80%, 65-75 oC

46. Which one is not a laminar pigment?

a. Graphite
b. Aluminium flake
c. Glass flake
d. China Clay.

47. Phosphating process of steel structure is termed as

a. Pickling
b. Passivation.
c. Cathodic protection
d. Salt Detection

48. Millscale test done , when Blast grade is

a. Sa1
b. Sa2 and Above
c. Sa2½ and Above
d. Sa3.

49. Which one is not a Paint fault?

a. Grinning through
b. Efflorescence.
c. Cracking
d. Bittiness

50. What is the total thickness of compliant epoxy based paint?

a. 325 um
b. 225um
c. 265um.
d. 365um

51. Which term is not relate with binder?

a. VOC.
b. Film former
c. Vehicle
d. Non volatile

52. Internal coating of pipeline come under

a. PA7
b. PA8.
c. PA9
d. PA10

53. If a comb gauge show 120-140 um ,then the actual Dft is

a. 120 um
b. 130um
c. 140 um
d. 120 / 140 um.

54. De-lamination is a fault occurs when using

a. Epoxy
b. CR
c. Micaceous Iron Oxide.
d. Poly Urethane

55. Nuts and Bolts can be coated by

a. Calorising
b. Galvanising
c. Sheradizing.
d. Anodising

56. ________________are examples for natural resin

a. Amber, Laq.
b. Soya Oil, Tung Oil
c. Bitumen , Coal tar
d. Phenolic resin, Cellulosic resin

57. If Paint in a density cup weighs 135gm,Relative Density is ______

a. 135
b. 13.5gm/cc
c. 1.35.
d. 1.35 gm/cc

58. Which paint from below, can be applied over Phenolics?

a. CR
b. Epoxy
c. Alkyd.
d. None of these

59. Which warning symbol represents Toxic?
a
b
c
d

60. If more pigments added in a paint, then the surface should be ___________

a. Gloss
b. Matt.
c. Grinning
d. Fast Drying

61. ____________ is an example for aliphatic HC solvents

a. Water
b. Xylene
c. Turpentine.
d. Acetone

62. Non drying oils can be used in paints, for __________

a. Fast drying
b. Slow drying
c. Activate Chemical reaction
d. Flexibility.

63. Which additive used in paints to stop settlements?

a. Drying oils
b. Non Drying oils
c. Wax.
d. Anti skinning agents

64. If an airless spray pump ratio 35;1 delivery pressure 2800.howmuch the inlet pressure

a. 100psi
b. 90psi
c. 80psi.
d. 70psi

65. How atomization is achieved in conventional spray?

a. Two air channels outside the nozzle.
b. Air pressure applied before nozzle
c. Paint forced at high pressure
d. Hydraulic pressure

66. Which term is used when heat applied over 65 oC for Drying of Paint?

a. Metal Spray
b. Air Drying
c. Stoving.
d. Forced Drying

67. The following is not an information of Daily report sheet

a. Dew point
b. Relative Humidity
c. Relative Density
d. Air Temperature

68. Which one is thermoplastic?

a. Poly ethylene
b. Poly urethane
c. Epoxy
d. Natural Resin

69. Steel temperature can be measured by

a. Psychro meter
b. Limpet Gauge.
c. Thermo meter
d. Horseshoe gauge

70. What is the solution ,if damage occurs to a galvanizing?

a. T Wash
b. Zinc Rich Epoxy.
c. CR
d. Water Borne Acrylic

71. Which mill widely used for producing thick paint?

a. Ball Mill
b. Pearl Mill
c. Triple Roll Mill.
d. Single Roll Mill

72. Which one is suitable for steel work?

a. Short oil paint.
b. Medium oil paint
c. Long Oil paint
d. Full Oil paint

73. Pigment, which dissolve in a binder called

a. Lacquer
b. Dye.
c. Varnish
d. Solute

74. If 11 Litres Paint Weighs 18 Kg then density =

a. 1.8 gm/cm
b. 1.6 gm/cm
c. 1.1 gm/cc
d. 1.6 gm/cc.

75. Ford Flow cup made of ___________

a. Stainless Steel
b. Aluminium Alloy.
c. Mild Steel
d. Glass Reinforced Plastic

76. When temperature increases,__________?

a. Viscosity increases
b. Viscosity decreases.
c. Viscosity Stable
d. Drying time increases

77. What is the approximate induction period of CR?

a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 6-8 hrs
d. Not Applicable.

78. Stroboscope checks

a. Rotation.
b. Polarity
c. Potential
d. Aggregate count

79. Which paint mill produce expensive materials?

a. Triple roll mill
b. Single roll mill.
c. Sand mill
d. Ball mill

80. High speed stone mill is another name for

a. High speed disperser
b. Pearl mill
c. Colloid mill.
d. Attritor Mill

81. Which paint is not suitable for EPA?

a. Water borne
b. High volume solid
c. Solvent Based
d. Solvent free.

82. By which polymerisation method a 2 pack epoxy paint dry

a. Cross linked Polymer.
b. Branched Polymer
c. Solution Polymer
d. Linear Polymer

83. Transco Specification PA9 Specifies

a. New and Maintenance painting at work and site for AGI
b. Paint Properties and Performance.
c. Internal coating of steel small bore pipe
d. Preparation of steel substrate before application of paint

84. Which term cannot be used for solid particles in binder?

a. Aggregates
b. Emulsion.
c. Degree of dispersion
d. Fineness of grind

85. Which one is more suitable for CR paint to increase flexibility?

a. Alkyd resin.
b. Linceed oil
c. Bentones
d. Coconut oil

86. __________ is not a unit of viscosity

a. Stoke
b. Poise
c. Littre.
d. Second

87. Which type of Comb gauge is not available?

a. Square
b. Circle.
c. Triangular
d. Rectangular

88. Which application method used to apply paints on damp surface?

a. Brush.
b. Roller
c. Airless Spray
d. Dip coating

89. What is BS 4800 specifies?

a. Colour co-ordination.
b. Specification of abrasive size sieves
c. Methods of test for paints
d. Glossary of paint and related terms

90. Which application greatly reduce pinholes?

a. Brush.
b. Spray
c. Aerosol
d. Roller

91. Spray tip with adjustable aperture size known as

a. Carbide
b. Venturi
c. Titan,
d. Taber

92. Pyro meter is an instrument to check

a. Adhesion
b. Hardness
c. Steel Temp,
d. Density

93. Graticule scale is a part of

a. PIG,
b. Hegman Grind Gauge
c. Eccentric Wheel
d. Tough type Pfund Crypto meter

94. MDS shows a two pack paint density is 1.35 gm/cc, when the density check completed it shows the density as 1.25.Which one is true

a. Base Part is High
b. Activator Part is High.
c. Mix ratio on MDS is incorrect
d. Activator Part is Low

95. In which temperature Density,Viscosity etc tests of Paints done?

a. 20 ºC ± 0.5 ºC.
b. 37 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
c. 100 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
d. Temperature not affected

96. If metal spray applied on a thin steel plate 

a. Plate should not be heated
b. Plate should be preheated
c. Plate should be post heated.
d. Cannot be applied

97. BS 7079 does not contains

a. Rust Grades
b. Blast Grades
c. Hand and Power tool Grades
d. Salt tests on Substrate.

98. Wa1 ,Wa2 are grades of

a. Abrasive blasting
b. Closed blasting
c. Water Blasting.
d. Weathering Grades

99. When using replica tape 50um deducted because _________

a. Thickness of paper
b. Thickness of transparent layer.
c. Thickness of Testex
d. Dial micrometer Criteria

100. Which blasting is suitable for non-ferrous substrates?

a. Thorough abrasive blasting
b. Sweep blasting.
c. Sa2½
d. Not Applicable

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API 580-581 – Risk Based Inspection Question and Answers

Top 50 Latest API 580-581 – Risk Based Inspection Question and Answers

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Q.1. Successful implementation of RBI will give guidelines for:

  • a. Appropriate inspection methods, extent of inspection and inspection intervals,
  • b. Suggestions for Risk mitigation activities,
  • c. Managing the residual level of risk after inspection and other mitigation actions have been implemented.
  • d. All of above

Q.2. API 580 is specifically targeted at the application of RBI for:

  • a Hydrocarbon industries Oil & Gas
  • b Chemical process industries
  • c Power plants for Electric generation
  • d Only a and b above

Q.3. The graphical representation of scenarios from initiation to potential outcome of an accident will be typically called as :

  • a Event tree
  • b Fault tree
  • c Risk tree
  • d Result tree

Q.4. API 580 does not cover RBI assessment for:

  • a Process piping
  • b Storage tanks
  • c Structural systems
  • d Pressure relief devices

Q.5. The 3 approaches in RBI are typically called

  • a Qualitative, Semi-Qualitative, Realistic
  • b Quantitative, Semi-Quantitative, Qualitative
  • c Realistic, Quantitative, Qualitative
  • d None of above

Q.6. RBI methodology can be adopted for :

  • a Entire operating unit
  • b Section of operating unit
  • c Major system or major equipment
  • d All of above

Q.7. Risk Management means:

  • a Risk mitigation only
  • b Risk mitigation and risk acceptance
  • c Risk mitigation, risk acceptance and risk communication
  • d Risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk acceptance, and risk communication.

Q.8. The term “failure” used for Failure Analysis in RBI typically means:

  • a Failure due to human error
  • b Power failure
  • c Loss of containment
  • d All of above

Q.9. “Risk driver” in RBI means

  • a An item affecting probability significantly,
  • b An item affecting consequence significantly,
  • c An item affecting the either probability or consequence or both the significantly.
  • d A rash driver driving the plant vehicle who causes significant risk to plant personnel.

Q.10. In RBI analysis ‘ ALARP’ means:

  • a Always likely and reasonably possible
  • b As large as reasonably practical
  • c As large as reasonably profitable
  • d As low as reasonably practical

Q.11. Qualitative risk analysis means

  • a A risk analysis based on Quality control plans of equipment
  • b A risk analysis that uses broad categorizations for probabilities and consequences of failure for purpose of risk ranking
  • c A risk analysis that uses NDT methods to evaluate risks
  • d A risk analysis that uses high quality data for detailed numerical analysis

Q.12. RBI typically is focused on systematic determination of _______ for risk analysis and risk ranking

  • a Absolute risk
  • b Realistic risk
  • c Relative risk
  • d Residual risk

Q.13. “ISO risk line” typically represents:

  • a Constant risk level
  • b Risk acceptable to international organization for standards
  • c Incident specific occurrence of risk level
  • d None of above

Q.14. Risk Matrix and Risk Plot are typically used for:

  • a Risk Matrix for Quantitative and Risk Plot for Qualitative analysis
  • b Risk Matrix for Qualitative and Risk Plot for Quantitative analysis
  • c Both can be used for either Quantitative or Qualitative analysis
  • d None of above are correct answers

Q15. Quantitative analysis is less precise than quantitative analysis, but less costly and faster. If your objective is to carry out screening of low risks items/equipment, which type of analysis will you choose?

  • a Qualitative
  • b Quantitative
  • c Quantitative first then Qualitative
  • d API 580 does not give any guideline

Q.16. Effective Inspection by itself can directly reduce risk.

  • (a True
  • (b Wrong

Q.17. For calculating Damage factor for thinning the term ‘age’ means:

  • a Time since installation
  • b Time since RBI study was done
  • c Time since first inspection
  • d Time since last inspection

Q. 18. For finding out damage factor based on ‘inspection Effectiveness’, we should consider

  • a All past inspections
  • b Only last inspection
  • c Only internal inspection
  • d Only external inspection

Q.19. In consequence analysis in API RBI methodology

  • a Only Area-Based Consequence methodology is used
  • b Only Financial-Based Consequence methodology is used
  • c None of above these methodologies can be used
  • d Any of these methodologies can be used

Q.20. In Quantitative analysis the probability of failure depends on

  • a Generic failure frequency only,
  • b Damage factor and generic failure frequency,
  • c Management systems factor, and generic failure frequency
  • d Generic failure frequency , damage factor and management systems factor

Q.21. Choose correct option

  • a The inspection methods will provide little information to correctly identify the true damage state or 20 40% confidence is ‘Poorly Effective’.
  • b The inspection methods that will correctly identify the true damage state in nearly every case or 80–100% confidence is ‘Highly Effective’.
  • c The inspection methods will correctly identify the true damage state about half of the time or 40–60% confidence is ‘Fairly Effective’.
  • d All of above are correct statements

Q.22. In an API RBI assessment, which components should be checked for thinning.

  • a All components should be checked for thinning
  • b 50% components should be checked for thinning
  • c Only the components with General corrosion should be checked for thinning
  • d Only the components with Localized corrosion should be checked for thinning

Q.23. If a piping circuit contains an injection point, then an adjustment factor equal to —— should be used . If a highly effective inspection for injection point circuit (according to API 570 is performed, then this adjustment factor is D.

  • a 3, 2
  • b 2, 0
  • c 3, 1
  • d 2, 1

Q.24. A vessel is in service since year 2003. It is undergoing General corrosion. Up to now, two inspections with external 30% scanning by manual UT were done, and one internal inspection with 60% examination of the surface partial internals removed accompanied by thickness measurements was done. There is no On-Line Monitoring.

The value of Art parameter is 0.20. What is the Damage Factor?

  • a 4
  • b 1
  • c 10
  • d 5

Q.25. For above vessel if corrosion was localized instead of general. Two inspections with 30% manual UT scanning, and spot thickness measurements at areas specified by a corrosion specialist were done. Also one internal inspection with 60% visual examination and spot UT measurements was done. There is no On-Line Monitoring.

The value of Art parameter is 0.20. What is the Damage Factor?

  • a 10
  • b 70
  • c 35
  • d 3

Q26. A vessel is in service since year 2003. It is undergoing Chloride stress corrosion cracking. Choose the correct answer.

  • a External Spot Radiography and Spot shear wave ultrasonic is ‘Usually Effective inspection
  • b Wet fluorescent magnetic particle testing of 100% weldments done from inside is ‘Highly Effective inspection’ .
  • c Visual inspection done from inside is ‘Fairly Effective inspection’ .
  • d None of above are correct answers

Q.27. In Chloride SCC, if cracking is known to be present then for calculating damage factor Severity Index to be used is:

  • a 1
  • b 50
  • c 500
  • d 5000

Q. 28. A Carbon steel insulated vessel is operating in marine weather . Temperature=160 deg. F. The Insulation is Fiberglass. Considering the vessel nozzles, the complexity is can be determined as ‘above average’ and the insulation condition is ‘average’ What corrosion rate is to be used for Damage Factor
calculation?

a 15.6mpy
b 12.5mpy
c 19.5mpy
d 10 mpy

Q. 29. As per API 581, Financial-Based Consequence of $ 200,000 is categorized as category ——- in consequence categories:

  • a A
  • b B
  • c C
  • d D

Q. 30. As per API 581, affected Area of 1600 sq. meters is categorized as category —-— in Area-Based Consequence.

  • a B
  • b C
  • c D
  • d E

Q.31. Logic models Event Tree and Fault tree are extensively used in :

  • a Qualitative Analysis
  • b Quantitative Analysis
  • c Used in both a and b
  • d Used in neither a or b

Q.32. “Fault Tree” represents a logical model showing

  • a Initiation of an event and its consequences
  • b Various ways which lead to the occurrence of event
  • c Faults in Design and Construction of equipment
  • d Faulty in operation and maintenance of the equipment

Q.33. Typical parameters used for assessing environmental damage are:

  • a Acres of land affected per year
  • b Miles of shoreline affected per year
  • c Number of human-use resources affected
  • d All of above

Q.34. Determining representative fluid and selecting a set of hole sizes is essential step in:

  • a Qualitative approach only
  • b Quantitative approach only
  • c Essential for both
  • d Essential for none

Q.35. In RBI consequence analysis all releases are modeled in two types, namely :

  • a Instantaneous release and continuous release
  • b Continuous release and intermittent release
  • c Intermittent release and Instantaneous release
  • d “Puff” release and Instantaneous release

Q.36. In RBI consequence analysis, if fluid inside the vessel is liquid but its boiling point is less than ambient temperature , the phase considered for consequence analysis will be taken as :

  • a Solid
  • b Liquid
  • c Gas
  • d Liquid – Gas mixture

Q. 37. Probability of leak of a flammable fluid is 0.002, probability that it will catch fire is 0.5. What is probability of fire ? ( There is no solation/detection system

  • a 50%
  • b 0.0001
  • c 0.001
  • d 2 %

Q.38. Which of the following would most unlikely result in Metallurgical deterioration

  • a HTHA
  • b Fatigue
  • c CUI
  • d Chloride SCC

Q.39. Since RBI is a proven and sound risk management principle; it does not matter if designs/installations are faulty

  • a True
  • b False
  • c Cannot say

Q. 40. Engineering judgement and experience of the analyst are most required for which type of RBI assessment

  • a Quantitative
  • b Qualitative
  • c Semi-quantitative
  • d All of above

Q.41 In POF calculations Generic Failure Frequency needs to be adjusted by using an adjustment factor which depends on the damage mechanisms that are active in a component and the type of inspection performed. This factor is called

  • a Inspection factor
  • b Component factor
  • c Safety factor
  • d Damage factor

Q.42. Identify Correct Statement

  • a Properly implemented and correctly monitored RBI generally will result in Zero Risk
  • b Properly implemented RBI will generally leave “Residual Risk “
  • c Properly implemented RBI will give guidance on inspection plan and inspection intervals.
  • d b and c above are correct statements

Q.43. Mass of fluid available for release in a pressure vessel consists of

  • a Mass of fluid in pressure vessel
  • b Mass of fluid in pressure vessel + additional mass added in 3 minutes as limited to a 203 mm [8 in.] release hole size.
  • c Inventory Group Mass
  • d Lower of b and c

Q.44. Consequence of toxic release area should take into account:

  • a Area for the personnel injury
  • b Area for component damage
  • c Total of Both a and b
  • d Lower of a and b

Q.45. Integrity operating window is:

  • a Window provided in the plant wall for operating Process valves
  • b Limits for process variables which if changed beyond limits, will affect integrity of equipment
  • c Imaginary boundary enclosing equipment that is subject to same damage mechanisms
  • d None of above

Q.46. Release hole size for rupture for consequence analysis for a 30” dia pressure vessel Is

  • a 4”,
  • b 30”,
  • c 16 “,
  • d 10”

Q.47. In RBI, Sonic and subsonic release is applicable for:

  • a Liquid Release only
  • b Vapor Release only
  • c For both type Releases
  • d For None of above releases

Q.48. In RBI API 581 Quantitative analysis, Consequences for which of the following re considered

  • a Flammable Consequences
  • b Toxic Consequences
  • c Non-Flammable Non-Toxic Consequences
  • d All of above

Q.49. The parameter Art and Severity index SVI determine the damage factors. Choose correct choice from following.

  • a Parameter Art is used for thinning and Severity index SVI for cracking
  • b parameter Art and Severity index SVI both are used for cracking
  • c parameter Art and Severity index SVI both are used for thinning
  • d Parameter Art is used for cracking and Severity index SVI for thinning

Q. 50. The lowest temperature at which a fluid mixture can ignite without a source of ignition is called

  • a Auto-Ignition Temperature
  • b Ignition Temperature
  • c Flash-point Temperature
  • d Dew-point Temperature

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ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers

Top 99 Latest ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers (Closed Book)

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists:

A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list:

A. Essential variables.
B. Qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.

A. 1962
B. Current
C. 1986
D. 1995

6. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.

A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.

A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _____________positions.

A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:

A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.

A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe:

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe:

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for the WPS.

A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable for the WPS.

A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’____________________________.

A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?

A. Yes
B. No

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.

A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the___________ variables specified.

A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing 1/2″ of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.

A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”

29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designate dusing:

A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process______________________ is an essential variable.

A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?

A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?

A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor.

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:

A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?

A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.

True
False

44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?

A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes.

Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonic?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are:

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production?

(Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?

A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?

A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will this test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable

54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?

A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?

A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?

A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above

60. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?

A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

61. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:

A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

62. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test.
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

63. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties.
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

64. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.

True
False

65. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:

A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

66. A non-essential variable may be changes without requalification because:

A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

67. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.

True
False

68. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :

A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

69. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.

True
False

70. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?

A. Pass
B. Fail

71. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.

True
False

72. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.

True
False

73. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

True
False

74. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.

True
False

75. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a_____________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

76. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an______________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

77. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.

True
False

78. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

79. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.

True
False

80. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.

True
False

81. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

True
False

82. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.

True
False

83. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.

True
False

84. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?

A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

85. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without requalification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:

A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

86. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when:

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

87. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?

A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

88. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that process?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

89. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

90. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:

A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

91. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:

A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

92. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:

A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

93. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses_______________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.

A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above

94. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

95. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR

True
False

96. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:

A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches

97. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?

A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above

98. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?

A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above

99. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?

A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

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Latest AWS CWI Part A Questions and Answers

Latest AWS CWI Part A Questions and Answers Mock Examination Practice Test

AWS CWI Part A Questions and Answers
Latest AWS CWI Part A Questions and Answers

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WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 1- Welding Inspection and Certification – Latest 22 Question and Answers

1. Why is there an increasing need for weld quality?

  • Safety
  • Economics
  • Less conservative design
  • Government regulations
  • All of the above

2. What AWS document describes the rules for the CWI certification program?

  • AWS 5.5
  • AWS D1.1
  • AWS QC1.
  • AWS 5.1
  • AWS 14.1

3. Weld quality control should begin after welding has been initiated.

  • True
  • False

4. What are the three welding inspector certifications covered in AWS QC1?

  • CAWI, CWI, BWI
  • CWI, CAWI, SCWI
  • SCWI, CWI, ACWI
  • Levels I, II, and III

5.What is generally considered to be the most important quality of a welding inspector?

  • Graduation from a welding vocational program
  • An engineering degree
  • An associates’ degree
  • Professional attitude

6. The vision requirements for a CWI are near vision acuity on:

  • Jaeger J1 at not less than 24 in
  • Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 in
  • Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 in, with or without corrective lenses.
  • 20/20 vision

7. The acronym KASH stands for:

  • Knowledge, attitude, skills, and habits.
  • Knowledge, application, skills, and habits
  • Knowledge, attitude, skills, and honesty
  • Knowledge, application, skills, and honesty

8. The welding inspector should have a basic understanding of:

  • Welding processes
  • Nondestructive testing methods
  • Codes and standards
  • All of the above

9. The term used to describe a delay in the production schedule to permit inspection is:

  • NDE
  • Hold point
  • Preinspection
  • Reference point

10. Inspection report corrections should be made by:

  • Rewriting the entire report
  • Reporting the correction to the welding foreman
  • Telling the welder what was done
  • Single-line out the error, correct the error, date, and initial

11. A definition of ethics is:

  • Using common sense and honesty
  • Living by the rules
  • Being fair and impartial
  • Basing decisions on facts
  • All of the above

12. For communications to be effective, it should form a “continuous loop.”

  • True
  • False

13. The welding inspector must often communicate with:

  • Welders
  • Supervisors
  • Welding engineers
  • Members of management
  • All of the above

14. NDE personnel (other than CWIs) are typically certified to what document?

  • AWS QC1
  • AWS D1.1
  • API 1104
  • ASNT SNT-TC-1A

15. You must have a high school diploma to become a CWI

  • True
  • False

16. The CWI exam has several parts; these are:

  • Fundamentals, practical, code
  • Fundamentals, basic, code
  • Basic, vision test, fundamental
  • Code, vision test, practical

17. The CWI exam requires that the AWS D1.1 Code be used for the open book code test.

  • True
  • False

18. The CWI exam contains three parts.

  • True
  • False

19. The title of the AWS standard A3.0 is:

  • Filler Metal Specifications
  • Standard Welding Terms and Definitions.
  • Guide to CWI Certification
  • Requirements for CWI Certification

20. API Standard 1104 covers the fabrication of cross-country bridges.

  • True
  • False

21. Some of the approved codes/standards for the open book portion of the CWI exam are AWS D1.1, API 1104, AWS D1.5, and AWS D15.1.

  • True
  • False

22. Prior to starting a job assignment, the welding inspector should determine:

  • What code, standard, or specification applies
  • What inspections should be conducted
  • When inspections should be conducted
  • Where records are maintained
  • All of the above

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 1

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 2– Safe Practices for Welding Inspectors- Latest 22 Question and Answers

1. The welding inspector is exposed to which of the following safety hazards:

  • Radiation
  • Falling objects
  • Electrical shock
  • Eye hazards
  • All of the above

2. A document which covers safety in welding and cutting is:

  • AWS D1.1
  • API 1104
  • ANSI Z49.1
  • ASME B31.3

3. The most important component of an effective safety and health program is:

  • Safety rules
  • Safety procedures
  • Protective equipment
  • Management support

4. Safety training is mandated under provisions of:

  • AWS “Safe Practices”
  • OSHA
  • ASME Code
  • Welding Handbook, Volume 2

5.The abbreviation ‘MSDS’ means:

  • Management Support and Daily Safety
  • Material Strength and Discontinuity Sheet
  • Material Safety Data Sheet
  • Material Strength and Data Sheet

6. The abbreviation ‘TLV’ means:

  • Total Linear volume
  • Threshold Limit Value
  • Tack Length Value
  • Threshold Limiting Valve

7. Employers must make all applicable MSDS data available to their employees.

  • True
  • False

8. Personnel must be trained to recognize safety hazards.

  • True
  • False

9. A ‘Hot Work Permit’ is required for:

  • All welding operations
  • All cutting operations
  • All preheating operations
  • Areas where a fire hazard may occur during a welding, cutting, or preheating operation

10. Eye hazards found in welding operations include:

  • Flying particles
  • Radiation
  • Smoke and fumes
  • All of the above

11. Protective equipment not suitable for eye protection from welding radiation includes:

  • Welding helmets with filter plates
  • Clear safety goggles
  • Safety goggles with filter plates
  • Protective screens

12. Suitable clothing materials for welding and cutting are:

  • 65% cotton, 35% polyester
  • Wool
  • Chemically treated cotton
  • None of the above

13. Before working on equipment where machinery guards have been removed, a ‘Lock, Tag, and Try’ procedure should be completed

  • True
  • False

14. In avoiding fumes during welding, the most important factor is:

  • The type of base metal
  • The type of filler metal
  • The type of welding process
  • The position of the welder’s head

15. It is not important to consider ventilation during welding and cutting operations.

  • True
  • False

16. When entering confined spaces, a ‘standby’ is not required.

  • True
  • False

17. Some of the toxic materials the welder may be exposed to are:

  • Cadmium
  • Chromium
  • Nickel
  • Lead
  • All of the above

18. Proper usage and handling of compressed gas cylinders include:

  • Not welding on cylinders
  • Not including the cylinders in the ground or electrical circuit
  • Securing them properly
  • Identifying the gas prior to use
  • All of the above

19. Acetylene becomes unstable above what pressure?

  • 5 psi
  • 10 psi
  • 15 psi
  • None of the above

20. Oxygen is a flammable gas.

  • True
  • False

21. Electric currents above approximately 6 milliamperes are considered:

  • Not harmful
  • Primary currents
  • Harmful
  • Secondary currents
  • Primary currents & Harmful

22. When operating gas cylinders, the primary valve should be opened:

  • All the way on an acetylene cylinder
  • One turn or less on an acetylene cylinder
  • B and D Above
  • All the way on an oxygen cylinder to backseat the valve

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 2

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 3– Metal Joining and Cutting Processes- Latest 32 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following is a function of the flux coating of a SMAW electrode?

  • Insulating
  • Alloying
  • Deoxidation
  • Shielding

2. In the AWS system of SMAW electrode designations, the next to the last digit refers to:

  • Impact strength
  • Electrode coating
  • Welding position
  • Strength

3. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about a SMAW electrode designated as E7024?

  • It is a low hydrogen type
  • The weld deposit has a minimum tensile strength of 70 000 psi
  • It is suitable for use in the flat and horizontal fillet positions only
  • It is an electrode for welding carbon steel

4. Of the following which is not an essential part of a typical SMAW system?

  • Constant current power supply
  • Wire feeder
  • Covered electrode
  • Electrode lead

5. Which of the following welding problems is the result of a distorted magnetic field that deflects the welding arc?

  • Cracks
  • Short circuiting
  • ARC Blow
  • Insufficient welding current

6. Which of the following is not considered a type of metal transfer for GMAW?

  • Short-circuiting
  • Spray
  • Globular
  • Droplet

7. In the electrode designation system for FCAW, the second digit (1) in an electrode marked (E71T-5) refers to:

  • Strength
  • Welding position
  • Chemical composition
  • Usability
  • None of the above

8. Which of the following is not always an essential element of an FCAW system?

  • Constant voltage power supply
  • Tubular electrode
  • Wire feeder
  • External shielding gas

9. What aspect of the GTAW and PAW processes makes them different from the other arc welding processes?

  • Non-consumable electrode.
  • Power supply
  • Shielding

10. Shielding for the GTAW and PAW processes is primarily accomplished through the use of:

  • Granular flux
  • Slag
  • Inert gas
  • Oxygen

11. A green stripe on a tungsten electrode designates:

  • Pure tungsten
  • 1% thoriated tungsten
  • 2% thoriated tungsten
  • Zirconiated tungsten

12. When welding aluminum with the GTAW process, what type of welding current is most commonly used?

  • DCEP
  • DCEN
  • AC

13. SAW and ESW processes are similar in that:

  • Both are an arc welding process
  • Both use shielding gases
  • Both use a granular flux, which becomes molten

14. The diagram below depicts what welding process?

  • SMAW
  • ESW
  • FCAW
  • SAW

15. Solidification cracking due to improper width-to-depth ratio of the weld bead is a serious problem primarily with which welding process?

  • SMAW
  • OFC
  • SAW
  • None of the above

16. Which one of the following processes is typically used in the flat position unless special apparatus is employed?

  • GMAW
  • SAW
  • FCAW
  • SMAW
  • GTAW

17. Which of the following are not common to both GTAW and PAW?

  • Nonconsumable tungsten electrode
  • Constricting orifice
  • Shielding gas nozzle
  • Externally applied filler metal

18. What technique is employed with PAW to produce full penetration welds without a bevel edge preparation?

  • Stringer beads
  • Weave beads
  • Keyhole
  • Back-step

19. What welding process produces welds in a single pass, with the progression uphill along the joint?

  • SAW
  • ESW
  • FCAW

20. Which of the following is not an advantage of the ESW process?

  • High deposition rate
  • Ease of setup
  • Capable of joining thick sections
  • No tendency for angular distortion

21. Which welding process is considered to be a chemical welding process?

  • SMAW
  • ESW
  • SAW
  • OAW

22. Which arc welding process provides a very efficient means of joining attachments to some planar surfaces?

  • GTAW
  • SW
  • GMAW
  • SMAW

23. Brazing differs from welding in that:

  • No filler metal is used
  • The base metal is not melted
  • An oxyfuel flame is used.
  • All of the above

24. For satisfactory results, a braze joint should have:

  • Clean joint surfaces
  • A small clearance between pieces to be joined
  • A large surface area for the joint area.
  • Heat source

25. Which of the following is an advantage of brazing?

  • Ease of joining thick sections
  • Ability to join dissimilar metals
  • Ability to join thin sections

26. Of the following metals, which cannot be efficiently cut using OFC?

  • High-carbon steel
  • Low-carbon steel
  • Medium-carbon steel
  • None of the above

27. Which of the following gases can be used to perform OFC?

  • Methylacetylene-propadiene (MPS)
  • Propane
  • Acetylene
  • Methane (natural gas)

28. Which of the following cutting processes can cut any metal?

  • OFC
  • CAC-A
  • PAC

29. The width of a cut is referred to as the:

  • Gap
  • Dross
  • Kerf
  • Drag

30. The SMAW power source can be:

  • DCEN
  • AC
  • DCEP
  • All of the above

31. Of the following, which is a noncontact welding process, requires no electrodes, and is not influenced by the presence of magnetic fields?

  • ESW
  • PAW
  • LBW

32. Which of the following uses a focused beam of electrons as a heat source for fusion welding?

  • EBW
  • ESW
  • EGW
  • None of the above

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 3

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 4– Weld Joint Geometry and Welding Symbols- Latest 44 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following is not considered a type of joint?

  • Butt
  • T
  • Fillet
  • Corner

2. The term for the type of joint formed when the two pieces to be joined lie in parallel planes and their edges overlap is:

  • Corner
  • Edge
  • Butt
  • Lap

3. The term for that portion of a single bevel butt joint where the two pieces to be joined come closest together is:

  • Radius
  • Joint root
  • Bevel angle
  • Groove angle

4. In a single V-groove weld, the term for the sloped surfaces against which the weld metal is applied is:

  • Root face
  • Root
  • Groove faces
  • Groove angle

5. The term for the type of weld produced by filling an elongated hole in an overlapping member attaching it to the member beneath is:

  • Plug weld
  • Spot weld
  • Seam weld
  • Slot weld

6. The term for the type of weld configuration formed when the length of a round bar is placed parallel against a flat surface is:

  • Double-flare-bevel-groove.
  • Single-flare-V groove
  • Edge flange
  • Corner flange

7. The term for the type of weld used to build up thinned surfaces, provide a layer of corrosion protection, or provide a layer of abrasion-resistant material, is:

  • Edge weld
  • Flare weld
  • Flange weld
  • Surfacing weld

8. The term for the type of weld applied to the opposite side of a joint before a single V-groove weld is completed on the near side of a joint is:

  • Melt-through weld
  • Backing weld.
  • Back weld
  • Root weld

9. In a completed groove weld, the term for the surface of the weld on the side from which the welding was done is:

  • Crown
  • Weld reinforcement
  • Weld face
  • Root

10. In a completed weld, the term for the junction between the weld face and the base metal is:

  • Root
  • Weld edge
  • Weld reinforcement
  • Toe

11. The term for the type of weld having a generally triangular cross-section and which is applied to either a T, corner, or lap joint is:

  • Flange weld
  • Flare weld
  • Fillet weld
  • Slot weld

12. The term for the height of the weld face above the base metal in a groove weld is:

  • Crown
  • Buildup
  • Face
  • Weld reinforcement

13. In a fillet weld, the leg and size are the same for what type of configuration?

  • Effective throat
  • Concave weld
  • Convex weld
  • Unequal leg fillet

14. When looking at the cross-section of a completed groove weld, the difference between the fusion face and the weld interface is called the:

  • Depth of fusion
  • Depth of penetration
  • Root penetration
  • Joint penetration

15. For a concave fillet weld, which throat dimensions are the same?

  • Theoretical and effective
  • Effective and actual
  • Theoretical and actual
  • All of the above

16. In a partial penetration single V-groove weld, the term for the dimension measured from the joint root to where the weld penetration stops is:

  • Joint penetration
  • Effective throat
  • Root penetration
  • Depth of fusion

17. The size of a spot weld is determined by its:

  • Depth of fusion
  • Diameter of weld at point of contact
  • Depth of penetration
  • Thickness

18. The primary element of any welding symbol is referred to as the:

  • Tail
  • Arrow
  • Reference line
  • Arrow side

19. Information appearing above the reference line refers to the:

  • Nearside
  • Arrow side
  • Farside
  • Other side

20. The graphic description of the type of weld is called the:

  • Tail
  • Welding symbol
  • Weld symbol
  • Arrow

21. Which of the symbols below describes the weld shown?

Which of the symbols below describes the weld shown?
A
B
C
D

22. When a weld symbol is centered on the reference line, this indicates:

  • That the welder can put the weld on either side
  • That there is no side significance
  • That the designer doesn’t know where the weld should go
  • That the welder should weld in whatever position the weld is in

23. The symbol below depicts what type of joint?

The symbol below depicts what type of joint?

  • Flare V-groove
  • Flare bevel groove
  • Edge flange
  • Corner flange

24. In the welding symbol below, the 1/8 dimension refers to what?

In the welding symbol below, the 1/8 dimension refers to what?

  • Depth of preparation
  • Groove angle
  • Root face
  • Root opening

25. In the welding symbol below, the 3/4 dimension refers to what?
In the welding symbol below, the 3/4 dimension refers to what?

  • Weld size
  • Effective throat
  • Depth of bevel
  • Root opening

26. If applied to a 1 in thick weld joint, the welding symbol below describes what type of weld?
If applied to a 1 in thick weld joint, the welding symbol below describes what type of weld?

  • Full penetration double bevel-groove weld
  • Full penetration double V-groove weld
  • Partial penetration double bevel-groove weld
  • Partial penetration double V-groove weld

27. A triangular-shaped weld symbol represents what type of weld?

  • Bevel groove
  • Flare groove
  • Flange groove
  • V-groove
  • Fillet weld

28. The symbol below describes what type of weld?

The symbol below describes what type of weld?

  • Staggered intermittent fillet weld
  • Chain intermittent fillet weld
  • Segmented fillet weld
  • Intermittent fillet weld

29. The first dimension appearing to the immediate right of the weld symbol generally refers to the:

  • Weld reinforcement
  • Root opening
  • Pitch distance
  • Weld length

30. In the case of a plug or slot weld, a dimension placed within the weld symbol would indicate?

  • Depth of filling
  • Slot weld width
  • Plug weld diameter
  • Angle of countersink

31. The required spot weld size parameter can be shown as:

  • A Dimension to the right of the symbol
  • A Dimension of the required nugget diameter
  • A Value for the required shear strength per spot
  • B or C Above

32. A number appearing to the right of the spot weld symbol refers to:

  • Spot weld size
  • Spot weld length
  • Number of spots required
  • Pitch distance between adjacent spots

33. What elements are required in a welding symbol?

  • Reference line
  • Weld symbol
  • Arrow
  • A and C Above

34. In the welding symbol below, the supplementary symbol shown on the other side location represents:

In the welding symbol below, the supplementary symbol shown on the other side location represents:

  • Back weld
  • Backing weld
  • Melt-through of the weld from arrow side
  • A and B above

35. The welding symbol below shows the use of what type of completed weld?

The welding symbol below shows the use of what type of completed weld?

  • Single bevel-groove weld with backing weld
  • Single bevel-groove weld with back weld
  • Single V-groove weld with backing weld
  • Single V-groove weld with back weld

36. The symbol below shows what type of joint configuration?

The symbol below shows what type of joint configuration?

  • Square groove
  • Skewed groove
  • Sloped groove
  • Scarf

37. The part of the welding symbol which can be used to convey any additional information that cannot be shown otherwise is referred to as:

  • The weld symbol
  • The arrow
  • The reference line
  • The tail

38. The welding symbol below shows what type of weld?
The welding symbol below shows what type of weld

  • Gas metal arc spot weld
  • Resistance spot weld
  • Gas metal arc seam weld
  • Resistance seam weld

39. A number in parentheses just above/below the weld symbol in a welding symbol for slot welds describes:

  • The length of weld
  • The type of welding
  • The number of welds required
  • The type of electrode to use

40. A number not in parenthesis to the left of the groove weld symbol in a welding symbol refers to the:

  • Depth of bevel
  • The length of the weld
  • The weld quality standard
  • The weld procedure to use

41. Which of the symbols above represents an intermittent fillet weld?
Consider the welding symbols below for questions Q4-41 through Q4-44.

Consider the welding symbols below for questions Q4-41 through Q4-44.

  • 1
  • 8
  • 6
  • 4
  • 5

42. Which of the symbols above represents a groove weld with melt-through?

Consider the welding symbols below for questions Q4-41 through Q4-44.

  • 2
  • 3
  • 6
  • 7
  • None of the above

43. Which of the symbols above represents a plug weld not completely filled?

Consider the welding symbols below for questions Q4-41 through Q4-44.

  • 1
  • 3
  • 5
  • 7

44. Which of the symbols above represents a groove weld with backing weld or back weld?

Consider the welding symbols below for questions Q4-41 through Q4-44.

  • 1
  • 2
  • 6
  • 7
  • 9

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 4

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 5– Documents Governing Welding Inspection and Qualification- Latest 34 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following do not contain job quality requirements?

  • Codes
  • Drawings
  • Specifications
  • Textbooks

2. Of the following, which may be considered mandatory?

  • Codes
  • Specifications
  • Standards
  • All of the above

3. The job documents that best describe the size and configuration of a weldment are:

  • Codes
  • Standards
  • Specifications
  • Drawings

4. The type of document that has legal status by definition is:

  • Code
  • Standard
  • Specification

5. The type of document that describes the requirements for a particular material or component is referred to as:

  • Code
  • Standard
  • Specification
  • B and C above

6. Something set up and established by authority as a rule to measure quantity, quality, value, or weight is a:

  • Specification
  • Standard
  • Code
  • Drawing

7. Of the following types of documents, which have general acceptance in the welding industry?

  • Contracts
  • Standards
  • Specifications
  • Drawings
  • All of the above

8. The code that covers the welding of steel structures is:

  • ASME Section IX
  • ASME B31.1
  • API 1104
  • AWS Dl.1

9. The code that covers the design of metallic unfired pressure vessels is:

  • ASME Section XI
  • ASME Section VIII
  • ASME Section X
  • API 1104
  • AWS Dl.1

10. The series of specifications covering the requirements for welding electrodes is designated:

  • AWS Dl.X
  • AWS D14.X
  • AWS A5.1–A5.31
  • ASTM A 53

11. Which of the following methods for controlling materials in a fabrication shop is most suitable for automation?

  • Color-coding
  • Alphanumeric coding
  • Heat number transfer
  • Barcoding

12. Which Section of the ASME Code covers the qualification of welders?

  • Section V
  • Section XI
  • Section III
  • Section IX

13. Tolerances are required on drawings to:

  • Guide the inspector on permissible size variations
  • Show the total amount of variation permitted from the design size
  • Both a and b above
  • None of the above

14. Tolerances can be expressed:

  • As a variation between limits
  • As plus or minus dimension
  • As a design size with either a plus or a minus
  • All of the above

15. Drawing notes can be classified as:

  • General
  • Local
  • Specifications
  • All of the above

16. Hold points refer to:

  • The points for lifting an object
  • A delay in fabrication to permit inspection
  • A shutdown at the end of the day
  • None of the above

17. The welding inspector is not responsible for checking to make sure all welding and testing personnel have adequate certifications.

  • True
  • False

18. The American Welding Society has developed how many welding codes?

  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Nine

19. When inspecting unfired pressure vessels to the ASME Code, the inspector will usually use several different Sections.

  • True
  • False

20. In what Section of the ASME Code are the filler materials found?

  • Section III
  • Section II, Part C
  • Section II, Part D
  • Section IX

21. Standards are never considered mandatory.

  • True
  • False

22. Base metals used in fabrication can be bought to conform to which of the following?

  • ASTM standards
  • ASME Code, Section II, Parts A and B
  • It is not required to specify base metals
  • A and B above

23. The AWS Specifications are designated as A5.XX refers to:

  • Filler metals
  • Rules for bridges
  • Cross country pipelines
  • Pressure vessel fabrication

24. An effective materials control system will:

  • Be as simple as possible
  • Contain checks and balances
  • Be based on “first in-first out”
  • A and B above

25. UNS refers to:

  • United Nondestructive Society
  • United National Standards
  • Unified National System
  • Unified Numbering System

26. Who is normally responsible for the qualification of welding procedures and welders?

  • Welder
  • Architect
  • Welder’s employer
  • Engineer

27. Which of the following processes is not considered prequalified in accordance with AWS D1.1?

  • Shielded metal arc
  • Submerged arc
  • Short-circuiting transfer gas metal arc
  • Spray transfer gas metal arc

28. Of the following types of test specimens, which is used by API and not ASME for procedure and welder qualification testing?

  • Face bend
  • Root bend
  • Side bend
  • Nick break

29. What is the pipe welding position where the pipe remains fixed with its axis horizontal, so the welder must weld around the joint?

  • 1G
  • 2G
  • 5G
  • 6G

30. What is the pipe welding position where the axis of the pipe lies fixed at a 45° angle?

  • 1G
  • 2G
  • 5G
  • 6G

31. What is the pipe position test for welders who are trying to qualify to weld T-, K-, and Y connections?

  • 1G
  • 2G
  • 5G
  • 6GR

32. If a welder qualifies to weld with an E6010 electrode, which is an F3 group electrode, in AWS D1.1 and ASME Section IX they are also qualified to weld with all of the following except:

  • E6011
  • E6012
  • E7018
  • E7024

33. With relation to procedure and welder qualification, which of the following can be an important task for the welding inspector?

  • Watching the welding qualification test
  • Identifying samples
  • Cutting and testing specimens
  • Monitoring production welding to ensure the correct variables are used.
  • All of the above

34. For most codes, if a welder continues to use a particular process and procedure, how long does the welder’s qualification remain in effect?

  • Indefinitely
  • 6 months
  • 1-year
  • 3 years

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 5

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 6– Metal Properties and Destructive Testing- Latest 41 Question and Answers

1.The property of metals that describes their resistance to indentation is called:

Note: For conversion Factors, refer to “Welding Usage Conversion Chart” on pages 10-9 of the
workbook and for Formulae refer to pages 10-8.

  • Strength
  • Toughness
  • Hardness
  • Ductility

2. The property of metals that describes their ability to carry a load is:

  • Strength
  • Toughness
  • Hardness
  • Ductility

3. Generally, as strength increases for carbon steels, the ductility:

  • Increases
  • Stays the same
  • Decreases
  • Is not related to strength

4. The property that describes the ability of a metal to deform when stressed is:

  • Strength
  • Toughness
  • Hardness
  • Ductility

5. The type of strength related to a metal’s behavior when the load is applied in a cyclic manner is:

  • Tensile
  • Compressive
  • Torsional
  • Fatigue

6. The yield strength of a material is determined by:

  • Impact testing
  • Tensile testing
  • Hardness testing
  • The offset method
  • B and D above

7. Which metal properties are directly related?

  • Conductivity and strength
  • Strength and ductility
  • Strength and hardness
  • Ductility and toughness
  • C and D above

8. The ability of a metal to absorb energy is called:

  • Strength
  • Ductility
  • Hardness
  • Toughness

9. The metal property affected by the surface condition of the sample is:

  • Tensile strength
  • UTS
  • Hardness
  • Fatigue strength
  • All of the above

10. Which alloying element is generally considered to have the most pronounced effect on the properties and performance of carbon steel?

  • Aluminum
  • Carbon
  • Manganese
  • Chromium

11. Which alloying element is commonly added to steel to improve its corrosion resistance?

  • Carbon
  • Aluminum
  • Silicon
  • Chromium

12. Hydrogen in the molten weld metal can cause:

  • Undercut
  • Overlap
  • Cracking
  • Porosity
  • C and D above

13. Which property cannot be determined from a tensile test?

  • Ultimate tensile strength
  • Percent elongation
  • Percent reduction of area
  • Impact strength
  • Yield strength

14. A metal’s ductility can be expressed as:

  • Percent elongation
  • Percent reduction of area
  • Proportional limit
  • A and B above

15. A tensile specimen having a cross-sectional area of 0.25 sq in breaks at a load of 15 250 lbs.
What is its tensile strength? (Tensile Strength = Load/Area)

  • 3813 psi
  • 61 000 psi.
  • 6100 psi
  • 58 500 psi

16. The point at which a metal’s behavior changes from elastic to plastic (onset of permanent deformation) is referred to as:

  • Yield strength
  • Ultimate tensile strength
  • Modulus of elasticity
  • Young’s modulus

17. What is the percent elongation of a specimen whose original gage length was 2 in and final gage length was 2.5 in?

  • 30%
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 40%

18. The family of hardness tests that uses both a minor and major load is called:

  • Brinell
  • Vickers
  • Rockwell
  • Knoop

19. Which of the following tests are referred to as microhardness tests?

  • Rockwell
  • Vickers
  • Knoop
  • B and C above

20. What type of test uses a weighted pendulum which strikes a notched test specimen?

  • Brinell test
  • Fatigue test
  • Tensile test
  • Charpy impact test

21. Endurance limit is an expression used for what type of testing?

  • Fatigue
  • Hardness
  • Soundness
  • Tension

22. The metal property that relates to a metals deforming without failing is called:

  • Tensile strength
  • Ductility
  • Hardness
  • Toughness

23. Which test is not considered a soundness test?

  • Hardness
  • Face bend
  • Fillet break
  • Root bend

24. The type of testing used to evaluate the type of microstructure present in a metal is called:

  • Tensile
  • Hardness
  • Toughness
  • Metallographic

25. Which of the following tests can be used to judge the soundness of a weld?

  • Nick break
  • Side bend
  • Face bend
  • Fillet break
  • All of the above

26. Which of the following tests will generally be used to determine the behavior of a metal at a specific temperature?

  • Guided-bend test
  • Root-bend test
  • Charpy impact test
  • Transverse fillet weld shear test

27. With respect to the rolling direction of steel plate manufacture, which statement is true?

  • The strength is highest in the ‘Z’ direction
  • The strength is lowest in the ‘X’ direction
  • The strength is highest in the ‘X’ direction
  • The strength is highest in the ‘Y’ direction

28. The fillet weld break test is used to evaluate the:

  • Quality of the fractured weld
  • Ductility of the weld metal
  • Impact strength of the weld
  • Tensile strength of the base metal

29. The welding inspector is not concerned with the mechanical and chemical properties of metals.

  • True
  • False

30. For plain carbon steels, their approximate tensile strength can be estimated by multiplying their BHN by:

  • 400
  • 300
  • 100
  • 500

31. Notch toughness and impact strength are not synonymous.

  • True
  • False

32. Phosphorus and sulfur are added to carbon steel to improve:

  • Ductility
  • Toughness
  • Weldability
  • None of the above

33. To improve the low-temperature properties of carbon steels, the most likely alloy addition would be:

  • Manganese
  • Carbon
  • Nickel
  • Chromium

34. Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen can all cause embrittlement in carbon steel.

  • True
  • False

35. Gage marks on a tensile specimen are:

  • Scratches caused by improper handling
  • C and D above
  • Spaced a set distance apart
  • Used for calculating percent elongation

36. The ‘offset method’ is used for determining which property?

  • Yield strength
  • Tensile strength
  • Hardness
  • Fatigue strength

37. Surface preparation is not an important step in destructive testing.

  • True
  • False

38. The Brinell hardness test is always a destructive test.

  • True
  • False

39. In Charpy testing, the test temperature is:

  • Not important
  • Very important
  • Not considered
  • Never reported

40. In Charpy testing, the test data can be reported as:

  • Foot-pounds energy absorbed
  • Lateral expansion
  • Percent shear
  • All of the above

41. The objective of the guided bend test is to break the sample.

  • True
  • False

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 6

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 7– Metric Practice for Welding Inspection- Latest 6 Question and Answers

1. A 50.0 lb can of welding electrodes weighs how many kg?

Note: For conversion Factors, refer to “Welding Usage Conversion Chart” on pages 10-9 of the
workbook, and for Formulae refer to pages 10-8.

  • 227 kg
  • 25 kg
  • 22.7 kg
  • 23 000 kg

2. A weld joint is measured and found to be 345 mm long. How long is that joint in terms of in?

  • 135 in
  • 13.58 in
  • 8760 in
  • 876 in

3. What is the wire feed speed that is measured to be 175 in/min?

  • 0.070 m/s
  • 74.0 mm/s
  • 7.4 mm/s
  • 70 mm/s

4. Which of the following are the proper base unit(s) for linear measurement in the U.S. system?

  • Yard
  • Inch
  • Foot
  • Mile
  • All of the above

5. What is the base unit (according to AWS) for measuring mass in the SI system?

  • Meter
  • Kilogram
  • Megapascal
  • Liter

6. A gas flow rate of 30 cfh is what in l/min?

  • 1.4 l/min
  • 14 l/min
  • 140 l/min
  • 64 l/min

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 7

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 8– Welding Metallurgy for the Welding Inspector- Latest 30 Question and Answers

1. As a metal is heated:

  • Energy is added to the structure
  • The atoms move further apart
  • The atoms vibrate more vigorously
  • The metal expands
  • All of the above

2. The state of matter which exhibits the least amount of energy is:

  • Solid
  • Liquid
  • Gas
  • Quasi-liquid

3. A problem occurring in weldments caused by the non-uniform heating produced by the welding operation is:

  • Porosity
  • Incomplete fusion
  • Distortion
  • Slag inclusions

4. Which of the following is not a method used to eliminate or reduce residual stresses?

  • Vibratory stress relief
  • External restraint
  • Thermal stress relief
  • Peening

5. The type of alloying in which the alloy atoms are located in the spaces between the atoms of the parent metal is referred to as:

  • Atomic alloying
  • Substitutional alloying
  • Space alloying
  • Interstitial alloying

6. Rapid quenching of steel from the austenitic range results in a hard, brittle structure known as:

  • Pearlite
  • Carbide
  • Cementite
  • Ironite
  • Martensite

7. Very slow cooling of steel may result in the production of a soft, ductile microstructure which has a lamellar appearance when viewed under high magnification. This structure is referred to as:

  • Martensite
  • Pearlite
  • Bainite
  • Ferrite

8. When rapid cooling produces a martensitic structure, what sub-critical heat treatment may be applied to improve the ductility of the steel?

  • Quenching
  • Tempering
  • Annealing
  • Normalizing

9. It is determined that a welding procedure is creating an excessive heat input. Which of the changes listed below would result in a reduction of the heat input?

  • Decrease current
  • Decrease voltage
  • Increase travel speed
  • Change from weave to stringer bead technique
  • All of the above

10. The use of preheat will tend to:

  • Result in a wider heat-affected zone
  • Produce lower heat-affected zone hardness
  • Slow down the cooling rate
  • Reduce the tendency to produce martensite in the heat-affected zone
  • All of the above

11. Which of the following changes will warrant an addition or increase in the required preheat?

  • Decreased carbon equivalent
  • Increased carbon equivalent
  • Increased base metal thickness
  • A and C above
  • B and C above

12. What heat treatment is characterized by holding the part at the austenitizing temperature for some time and then slow cooling in the furnace?

  • Normalizing
  • Quenching
  • Annealing
  • Tempering

13. What heat treatment is characterized by holding the part at the austenitizing temperature for some time and then cooling in still air?

  • Normalizing
  • Quenching
  • Annealing
  • Tempering

14. Steel heated above the lower transformation temperature (A1) will change the metallurgical structure. This temperature is:

  • 1333°F
  • 933°F
  • 1560°F
  • 3600°C

15. Atoms in the solid (frozen) state:

  • Have a specific “home” position
  • Have no distinct structure
  • Are essentially fixed in a definite structured position
  • A and C above

16. What is the heat input for a molten weld pool at 5 ipm travel speed, 25 volts, and 100 amperes?

(Refer to page 10-8 for Formula)

  • 300 J/in
  • 300 000 J/in
  • 30 000 J/in
  • 3.633 J/in

17. One way that atoms are added to a pure metal to form an alloy is:

  • Peening
  • Substitutionally
  • Automatically
  • Solidification

18. The process where carbon is added to the surface of a steel to harden it is:

  • Decarburization
  • Pack carburizing
  • Precipitation hardening
  • Quenching

19. Steel exists in which of the following crystal structures?

  • HCP
  • FCC
  • BCC
  • All of the above

20. Which of the following usually follows quenching?

  • Tempering
  • Stress relieving
  • Normalizing
  • Annealing

21. Which of the following can be accomplished using either thermal or mechanical techniques?

  • Annealing
  • Tempering
  • Quenching
  • Stress-relieving

22. Which of the following results in the softest condition for carbon steel?

  • Annealing
  • Quenching
  • Stress-relieving
  • Tempering

23. For steel having a chemical composition of: 0.16% carbon, 0.84% manganese, 0.09% nickel,
0.25% chromium, 0.052% copper, and 0.40% molybdenum, what is its Carbon Equivalent?

  • 0.23
  • 0.34
  • 0.37
  • 0.41
  • 0.46

24. Stainless steels are defined as having at least what percent chromium?

  • 7%
  • 12%
  • 15%
  • 20%

25. Sensitization, or carbide precipitation, of austenitic stainless steels, can be reduced by which of the following methods?

  • Solution annealing, water quenching
  • Using stabilized grades containing titanium or niobium (columbium)
  • Using the low carbon grades of stainless steels
  • All of the above

26. Metals must be molten for diffusion to occur.

  • True
  • False

27. Hydrogen can diffuse into a solid metal at room temperature.

  • True
  • False

28. Metals can diffuse into each other when both are in solid form.

  • True
  • False

29. The process whereby nitrogen diffuses into the surface of carbon steel is:

  • Sensitization
  • Nitrogen removal
  • Carburizing
  • Nitriding

30. Welding metallurgy is concerned with the changes in the metals during welding.

  • True
  • False

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 8

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 9– Weld and Base Metal Discontinuities- Latest 19 Question and Answers

1. A discontinuity is:

  • Always a defect
  • Always a reject
  • Always acceptable
  • Rejectable if it exceeds code limits

2. Whether a particular weld discontinuity is critical can be judged on the basis of:

  • Whether it is surface or subsurface
  • Whether it is linear or nonlinear
  • Whether it has a sharp end condition
  • All of the above

3. What discontinuity is generally considered to be the most severe?

  • Porosity
  • Incomplete fusion
  • Slag inclusion
  • Crack

4. Which of the following discontinuities is less likely to be found visually?

  • Toe crack
  • Undercut
  • Lamellar tear
  • Overlap

5. Underbead cracks can result from which of the following welding practices?

  • Use of wet electrodes
  • Welding on contaminated steels
  • Welding over paint
  • All of the above

6. The weld discontinuity that results from improper termination of the welding arc is referred to as:

  • Undercut
  • Overlap
  • Crater crack
  • Incomplete fusion

7. Of the following processes, which is unlikely to have slag inclusions in a completed weld?

  • SMAW
  • PAW
  • FCAW
  • SAW

8. The discontinuity that results from the entrapment of gas within the weld cross-section is referred to as:

  • Crack
  • Slag inclusion
  • Incomplete fusion
  • Porosity

9. What weld discontinuity results when the welder travels too slowly, causing excess weld metal to flow out of the joint and lay on the base metal surface without fusing?

  • Undercut
  • Underfill
  • Overlap
  • Incomplete fusion

10. What weld metal discontinuity results when the welder fails to completely fill the weld groove?

  • Underfill
  • Undercut
  • Overlap
  • Incomplete fusion

11. Excessive weld metal buildup on a groove weld is referred to as:

  • Excess convexity
  • Excess weld reinforcement
  • Overfill
  • All of the above

12. The weld discontinuity that results from the initiation of the welding arc outside the weld joint is referred to as:

  • Incomplete fusion
  • Undercut
  • Overlap
  • Arc strike

13. What weld discontinuity shows up as a light region on a radiograph?

  • Porosity
  • Tungsten inclusion
  • Slag inclusion
  • A and B above

14. Which of the following is a base metal discontinuity that is associated with the stresses induced from welding?

  • Lamination
  • Lamellar tear
  • Seam
  • Pipe shrinkage

15. What discontinuity is shown by #12b?
Questions Q9-15 through Q9-19 refer to the figure shown below:

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

  • Longitudinal crack
  • Transverse crack
  • Underbead crack
  • Toe crack

16. What step-like discontinuity is shown by #11?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

  • Lamination
  • Porosity
  • Lamellar tear
  • Seam

17. What discontinuity is shown by #12g?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

  • Toe crack
  • Incomplete fusion
  • Root crack
  • Lamellar tear
  • Underbead crack

18. What discontinuity is shown by #5?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

  • Undercut
  • Underfill
  • Overlap
  • Incomplete fusion
  • Toe crack

19. What discontinuity is shown by #10?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

  • Lamination Seam
  • Delamination
  • Base metal crack
  • Incomplete fusion

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 9

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 10– Visual Inspection and Other NDE Methods and Symbols- Latest 31 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following non-destructive testing methods are limited to the detection of surface discontinuities?

  • Visual
  • Penetrant
  • Radiographic
  • A and B above

2. To be most effective, a visual inspection should be performed:

  • Before welding
  • During welding
  • After welding
  • All of the above

3. The time period during which the penetrant remains on the surface of the part allowing it to be drawn into any surface discontinuities is called:

  • Waiting time
  • Penetrating time
  • Soak time
  • Dwell time

4. Which type of magnetizing current provides the best iron particle mobility?

  • AC
  • DC
  • DCEP
  • B and C above

5. What MT technique could be used for the discovery of longitudinal flaws?

  • Headshot (circular magnetism)
  • Side shot
  • Coil shot (longitudinal magnetization)
  • D. A and B above

6. Which of the following magnetizing methods produce a circular magnetic field in the test piece?

  • Headshot
  • Passing an electrical current through the part
  • Prod
  • All of the above

7. Which of the following magnetizing methods can produce a longitudinal magnetic field in the test piece?

  • Head shot
  • Coil shot
  • Yoke
  • B and C above

8. What NDT method is best for evaluating subsurface porosity?

  • PT
  • MT
  • RT
  • VT

9. Which of the following statements is correct for radiographic testing?

  • A reduction in thickness will produce a lighter image on the film
  • A low-density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film
  • A high-density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film.
  • A and B above

10. Radiographic testing (RT) can be performed using which of the following?

  • X-ray machine
  • Cesium 137
  • Lridium 192
  • Cobalt 60
  • All of the above

11. MT can be used most effectively to inspect which of the following?

  • Austenitic stainless steel welds on carbon steel
  • Austenitic stainless steel welds on stainless steel
  • Carbon steel welds on carbon steel
  • A and B above

12. Which of the following discontinuities will not usually be revealed using RT?

  • Crack
  • Incomplete joint penetration
  • Porosity
  • Lamination

13. What device is used during radiography to indicate the resolution sensitivity of a radiograph?

  • IQI
  • Dosimeter
  • Lead screen
  • All of the above

14. Which nondestructive test method uses sound energy as a probing medium?

  • MT
  • RT
  • UT
  • PT

15. The process whereby ultrasonic indications are related to dimensions in a test standard is referred to as:

  • Setup
  • Calibration
  • Standardization
  • Synchronization

16. As-welded groove welds are usually inspected ultrasonically using what technique?

  • Straight beam
  • Shear wave
  • Angle beam
  • B and C above

17. Capillary action plays a role in which NDT method?

  • ET
  • UT
  • RT
  • PT

18. Which NDT method is considered to be a true volumetric test?

  • RT
  • UT
  • PT
  • MT

19. Which NDT method uses an alternating current coil?

  • MT
  • UT
  • ET
  • A and C above

20. Changes in heat treatment can be measured using which NDT method?

  • ET
  • RT
  • MT
  • UT

21. Which of the following NDT methods can detect surface cracks?

  • RT
  • VT
  • ET
  • PT
  • All of the above

22. Which NDT method is most likely to reveal subsurface laminations in a rolled plate?

  • RT
  • UT
  • ET
  • MT

23. Piezoelectricity is a property used by which NDE method?

  • ET
  • UT
  • RT
  • A and B above

24. Which is the best technique for orienting magnetic lines of force when conducting MT testing?

  • Two directions
  • Single direction
  • Residual magnetism
  • All of the above

25. What resolution sensitivity is normally required for RT?

  • 2%.
  • 4%
  • 5%
  • 7%

26. What is the basic element of evaluation in any quality control program?

  • Radiographic testing
  • Penetrant testing
  • Visual inspection
  • All of the above

27. When should the applicable job documents be reviewed?

  • After the job is completed
  • Before welding begins
  • At any time when information is necessary
  • B and C above

28. What is the role of the AWS CWI in NDE?

  • See that inspections are done
  • Verify personnel qualifications for NDE inspection
  • Prepare proper records
  • See that proper records are maintained
  • All of the above

29. A number in parentheses just above or below a test symbol describes:

  • The length of weld to be tested
  • The extent of testing
  • The number of tests to perform
  • The type of test to perform

30. A number to the right of a nondestructive testing symbol refers to the:

  • Number of tests to perform
  • The length of weld to be tested
  • The applicable quality standard
  • The test procedure to use

31. Test information above the reference line refers to the arrow side.

  • True
  • False

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 10

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AWS CWI Part A -WIT-T 2008 Practice Test

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  1. WIT Chapter 1 Welding Inspection And Certification Practice Test Quiz
  2. WIT Chapter 2 Safe Practices for Welding Inspectors Test Quiz
  3. WIT Chapter 3 Metal Joining and Cutting Processes Test Quiz
  4. WIT Chapter 4 Weld Joint Geometry and Welding Symbols Test Quiz
  5. WIT Chapter 5 Documents Governing Welding Inspection and QualificationTest Quiz
  6. WIT Chapter 6 Metal Properties and Destructive Testing Test Quiz
  7. WIT Chapter 7 Metric Practice for Welding Inspection Test Quiz
  8. WIT Chapter 8 Welding Metallurgy for the Welding Inspector Test Quiz
  9. WIT Chapter 9 Weld and Base Metal Discontinuities Test Quiz
  10. WIT Chapter 10 Visual Inspection and Other NDE Methods and Symbols Test Quiz

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How do I prepare for AWS CWI Part A?

If you want to prepare for CWI Part A Exam, Study At Home, read WIT Welding Inspection Technology Workbook, B5.1 Specification for the Qualification of Welding Inspectors, and the QC1 Standard for AWS Certification of Welding Inspectors, CWI Part A covers welding fundamentals. Although you may go into the exam with a lot of welding industry experience, there are many topics covered within CWI Part A that may be unfamiliar. Topics from QC1, B5.1, and the Welding Inspection Workbook will be on the Certified Welding Inspector Exam.

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How many questions are on the CWI exam?
According to the QC1 the AWS CWI Part A exam contains a minimum of 150 questions that must be answered within a two hour period. In an exam consisting of 150 questions, candidates will have a maximum of 45 seconds to answer Each question.

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AWS CWI Part A – WIT Chapter 10

AWS CWI Part A – WIT Welding Inspection Technology Chapter 10 – Visual Inspection and Other NDE Methods and Symbols- Latest 31 Question and Answers

1.

Which of the following non-destructive testing methods are limited to the detection of surface discontinuities?

 
 
 
 

2.

To be most effective, a visual inspection should be performed:

 
 
 
 

3.

The time period during which the penetrant remains on the surface of the part allowing it to be drawn into any surface discontinuities is called:

 
 
 
 

4.

Which type of magnetizing current provides the best iron particle mobility?

 
 
 
 

5.

What MT technique could be used for the discovery of longitudinal flaws?

 
 
 
 

6.

Which of the following magnetizing methods produce a circular magnetic field in the test piece?

 
 
 
 

7.

Which of the following magnetizing methods can produce a longitudinal magnetic field in the test piece?

 
 
 
 

8.

What NDT method is best for evaluating subsurface porosity?

 
 
 
 

9.

Which of the following statements is correct for radiographic testing?

 
 
 
 

10.

Radiographic testing (RT) can be performed using which of the following?

 
 
 
 
 

11.

MT can be used most effectively to inspect which of the following?

 
 
 
 

12.

Which of the following discontinuities will not usually be revealed using RT?

 
 
 
 

13.

What device is used during radiography to indicate the resolution sensitivity of a radiograph?

 
 
 
 

14.

Which nondestructive test method uses sound energy as a probing medium?

 
 
 
 

15.

The process whereby ultrasonic indications are related to dimensions in a test standard is referred to as:

 
 
 
 

16.

As-welded groove welds are usually inspected ultrasonically using what technique?

 
 
 
 

17.

Capillary action plays a role in which NDT method?

 
 
 
 

18.

Which NDT method is considered to be a true volumetric test?

 
 
 
 

19.

Which NDT method uses an alternating current coil?

 
 
 
 

20.

Changes in heat treatment can be measured using which NDT method?

 
 
 
 

21.

Which of the following NDT methods can detect surface cracks?

 
 
 
 
 

22.

Which NDT method is most likely to reveal subsurface laminations in a rolled plate?

 
 
 
 

23.

Piezoelectricity is a property used by which NDE method?

 
 
 
 

24.

Which is the best technique for orienting magnetic lines of force when conducting MT testing?

 
 
 
 

25.

What resolution sensitivity is normally required for RT?

 
 
 
 

26.

What is the basic element of evaluation in any quality control program?

 
 
 
 

27.

When should the applicable job documents be reviewed?

 
 
 
 

28.

What is the role of the AWS CWI in NDE?

 
 
 
 
 

29.

A number in parentheses just above or below a test symbol describes:

 
 
 
 

30.

A number to the right of a nondestructive testing symbol refers to the:

 
 
 
 

31.

Test information above the reference line refers to the arrow side.

 
 


 

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AWS CWI Part A – WIT Welding Inspection Technology Chapter 10 – Visual Inspection and Other NDE Methods and Symbols- Latest 31 Question and Answers

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what weld metal discontinuity results when the welder fails to completely fill the weld groove?
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what weld metal discontinuity results when the welder fails to completely fill the weld groove?
excessive weld metal buildup on a groove weld is referred to as
underbead cracks can result from which of the following welding practices?
base metal discontinuity associated with the stresses induced from welding is
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AWS CWI Part A,
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