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WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 1- Welding Inspection and Certification – Latest 22 Question and Answers

1. Why is there an increasing need for weld quality?

• Safety
• Economics
• Less conservative design
• Government regulations
• All of the above

2. What AWS document describes the rules for the CWI certification program?

• AWS 5.5
• AWS D1.1
• AWS QC1.
• AWS 5.1
• AWS 14.1

3. Weld quality control should begin after welding has been initiated.

• True
• False

4. What are the three welding inspector certifications covered in AWS QC1?

• CAWI, CWI, BWI
• CWI, CAWI, SCWI
• SCWI, CWI, ACWI
• Levels I, II, and III

5.What is generally considered to be the most important quality of a welding inspector?

• Graduation from a welding vocational program
• An engineering degree
• An associates’ degree
• Professional attitude

6. The vision requirements for a CWI are near vision acuity on:

• Jaeger J1 at not less than 24 in
• Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 in
• Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 in, with or without corrective lenses.
• 20/20 vision

7. The acronym KASH stands for:

• Knowledge, attitude, skills, and habits.
• Knowledge, application, skills, and habits
• Knowledge, attitude, skills, and honesty
• Knowledge, application, skills, and honesty

8. The welding inspector should have a basic understanding of:

• Welding processes
• Nondestructive testing methods
• Codes and standards
• All of the above

9. The term used to describe a delay in the production schedule to permit inspection is:

• NDE
• Hold point
• Preinspection
• Reference point

10. Inspection report corrections should be made by:

• Rewriting the entire report
• Reporting the correction to the welding foreman
• Telling the welder what was done
• Single-line out the error, correct the error, date, and initial

11. A definition of ethics is:

• Using common sense and honesty
• Living by the rules
• Being fair and impartial
• Basing decisions on facts
• All of the above

12. For communications to be effective, it should form a “continuous loop.”

• True
• False

13. The welding inspector must often communicate with:

• Welders
• Supervisors
• Welding engineers
• Members of management
• All of the above

14. NDE personnel (other than CWIs) are typically certified to what document?

• AWS QC1
• AWS D1.1
• API 1104
• ASNT SNT-TC-1A

15. You must have a high school diploma to become a CWI

• True
• False

16. The CWI exam has several parts; these are:

• Fundamentals, practical, code
• Fundamentals, basic, code
• Basic, vision test, fundamental
• Code, vision test, practical

17. The CWI exam requires that the AWS D1.1 Code be used for the open book code test.

• True
• False

18. The CWI exam contains three parts.

• True
• False

19. The title of the AWS standard A3.0 is:

• Filler Metal Specifications
• Standard Welding Terms and Definitions.
• Guide to CWI Certification
• Requirements for CWI Certification

20. API Standard 1104 covers the fabrication of cross-country bridges.

• True
• False

21. Some of the approved codes/standards for the open book portion of the CWI exam are AWS D1.1, API 1104, AWS D1.5, and AWS D15.1.

• True
• False

22. Prior to starting a job assignment, the welding inspector should determine:

• What code, standard, or specification applies
• What inspections should be conducted
• When inspections should be conducted
• Where records are maintained
• All of the above

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 1

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 2– Safe Practices for Welding Inspectors- Latest 22 Question and Answers

1. The welding inspector is exposed to which of the following safety hazards:

• Radiation
• Falling objects
• Electrical shock
• Eye hazards
• All of the above

2. A document which covers safety in welding and cutting is:

• AWS D1.1
• API 1104
• ANSI Z49.1
• ASME B31.3

3. The most important component of an effective safety and health program is:

• Safety rules
• Safety procedures
• Protective equipment
• Management support

4. Safety training is mandated under provisions of:

• AWS “Safe Practices”
• OSHA
• ASME Code
• Welding Handbook, Volume 2

5.The abbreviation ‘MSDS’ means:

• Management Support and Daily Safety
• Material Strength and Discontinuity Sheet
• Material Safety Data Sheet
• Material Strength and Data Sheet

6. The abbreviation ‘TLV’ means:

• Total Linear volume
• Threshold Limit Value
• Tack Length Value
• Threshold Limiting Valve

7. Employers must make all applicable MSDS data available to their employees.

• True
• False

8. Personnel must be trained to recognize safety hazards.

• True
• False

9. A ‘Hot Work Permit’ is required for:

• All welding operations
• All cutting operations
• All preheating operations
• Areas where a fire hazard may occur during a welding, cutting, or preheating operation

10. Eye hazards found in welding operations include:

• Flying particles
• Radiation
• Smoke and fumes
• All of the above

11. Protective equipment not suitable for eye protection from welding radiation includes:

• Welding helmets with filter plates
• Clear safety goggles
• Safety goggles with filter plates
• Protective screens

12. Suitable clothing materials for welding and cutting are:

• 65% cotton, 35% polyester
• Wool
• Chemically treated cotton
• None of the above

13. Before working on equipment where machinery guards have been removed, a ‘Lock, Tag, and Try’ procedure should be completed

• True
• False

14. In avoiding fumes during welding, the most important factor is:

• The type of base metal
• The type of filler metal
• The type of welding process
• The position of the welder’s head

15. It is not important to consider ventilation during welding and cutting operations.

• True
• False

16. When entering confined spaces, a ‘standby’ is not required.

• True
• False

17. Some of the toxic materials the welder may be exposed to are:

• Cadmium
• Chromium
• Nickel
• Lead
• All of the above

18. Proper usage and handling of compressed gas cylinders include:

• Not welding on cylinders
• Not including the cylinders in the ground or electrical circuit
• Securing them properly
• Identifying the gas prior to use
• All of the above

19. Acetylene becomes unstable above what pressure?

• 5 psi
• 10 psi
• 15 psi
• None of the above

20. Oxygen is a flammable gas.

• True
• False

21. Electric currents above approximately 6 milliamperes are considered:

• Not harmful
• Primary currents
• Harmful
• Secondary currents
• Primary currents & Harmful

22. When operating gas cylinders, the primary valve should be opened:

• All the way on an acetylene cylinder
• One turn or less on an acetylene cylinder
• B and D Above
• All the way on an oxygen cylinder to backseat the valve

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 2

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 3– Metal Joining and Cutting Processes- Latest 32 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following is a function of the flux coating of a SMAW electrode?

• Insulating
• Alloying
• Deoxidation
• Shielding

2. In the AWS system of SMAW electrode designations, the next to the last digit refers to:

• Impact strength
• Electrode coating
• Welding position
• Strength

3. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about a SMAW electrode designated as E7024?

• It is a low hydrogen type
• The weld deposit has a minimum tensile strength of 70 000 psi
• It is suitable for use in the flat and horizontal fillet positions only
• It is an electrode for welding carbon steel

4. Of the following which is not an essential part of a typical SMAW system?

• Constant current power supply
• Wire feeder
• Covered electrode
• Electrode lead

5. Which of the following welding problems is the result of a distorted magnetic field that deflects the welding arc?

• Cracks
• Short circuiting
• ARC Blow
• Insufficient welding current

6. Which of the following is not considered a type of metal transfer for GMAW?

• Short-circuiting
• Spray
• Globular
• Droplet

7. In the electrode designation system for FCAW, the second digit (1) in an electrode marked (E71T-5) refers to:

• Strength
• Welding position
• Chemical composition
• Usability
• None of the above

8. Which of the following is not always an essential element of an FCAW system?

• Constant voltage power supply
• Tubular electrode
• Wire feeder
• External shielding gas

9. What aspect of the GTAW and PAW processes makes them different from the other arc welding processes?

• Non-consumable electrode.
• Power supply
• Shielding

10. Shielding for the GTAW and PAW processes is primarily accomplished through the use of:

• Granular flux
• Slag
• Inert gas
• Oxygen

11. A green stripe on a tungsten electrode designates:

• Pure tungsten
• 1% thoriated tungsten
• 2% thoriated tungsten
• Zirconiated tungsten

12. When welding aluminum with the GTAW process, what type of welding current is most commonly used?

• DCEP
• DCEN
• AC

13. SAW and ESW processes are similar in that:

• Both are an arc welding process
• Both use shielding gases
• Both use a granular flux, which becomes molten

14. The diagram below depicts what welding process?

• SMAW
• ESW
• FCAW
• SAW

15. Solidification cracking due to improper width-to-depth ratio of the weld bead is a serious problem primarily with which welding process?

• SMAW
• OFC
• SAW
• None of the above

16. Which one of the following processes is typically used in the flat position unless special apparatus is employed?

• GMAW
• SAW
• FCAW
• SMAW
• GTAW

17. Which of the following are not common to both GTAW and PAW?

• Nonconsumable tungsten electrode
• Constricting orifice
• Shielding gas nozzle
• Externally applied filler metal

18. What technique is employed with PAW to produce full penetration welds without a bevel edge preparation?

• Stringer beads
• Weave beads
• Keyhole
• Back-step

19. What welding process produces welds in a single pass, with the progression uphill along the joint?

• SAW
• ESW
• FCAW

20. Which of the following is not an advantage of the ESW process?

• High deposition rate
• Ease of setup
• Capable of joining thick sections
• No tendency for angular distortion

21. Which welding process is considered to be a chemical welding process?

• SMAW
• ESW
• SAW
• OAW

22. Which arc welding process provides a very efficient means of joining attachments to some planar surfaces?

• GTAW
• SW
• GMAW
• SMAW

23. Brazing differs from welding in that:

• No filler metal is used
• The base metal is not melted
• An oxyfuel flame is used.
• All of the above

24. For satisfactory results, a braze joint should have:

• Clean joint surfaces
• A small clearance between pieces to be joined
• A large surface area for the joint area.
• Heat source

25. Which of the following is an advantage of brazing?

• Ease of joining thick sections
• Ability to join dissimilar metals
• Ability to join thin sections

26. Of the following metals, which cannot be efficiently cut using OFC?

• High-carbon steel
• Low-carbon steel
• Medium-carbon steel
• None of the above

27. Which of the following gases can be used to perform OFC?

• Methylacetylene-propadiene (MPS)
• Propane
• Acetylene
• Methane (natural gas)

28. Which of the following cutting processes can cut any metal?

• OFC
• CAC-A
• PAC

29. The width of a cut is referred to as the:

• Gap
• Dross
• Kerf
• Drag

30. The SMAW power source can be:

• DCEN
• AC
• DCEP
• All of the above

31. Of the following, which is a noncontact welding process, requires no electrodes, and is not influenced by the presence of magnetic fields?

• ESW
• PAW
• LBW

32. Which of the following uses a focused beam of electrons as a heat source for fusion welding?

• EBW
• ESW
• EGW
• None of the above

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 3

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 4– Weld Joint Geometry and Welding Symbols- Latest 44 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following is not considered a type of joint?

• Butt
• T
• Fillet
• Corner

2. The term for the type of joint formed when the two pieces to be joined lie in parallel planes and their edges overlap is:

• Corner
• Edge
• Butt
• Lap

3. The term for that portion of a single bevel butt joint where the two pieces to be joined come closest together is:

• Radius
• Joint root
• Bevel angle
• Groove angle

4. In a single V-groove weld, the term for the sloped surfaces against which the weld metal is applied is:

• Root face
• Root
• Groove faces
• Groove angle

5. The term for the type of weld produced by filling an elongated hole in an overlapping member attaching it to the member beneath is:

• Plug weld
• Spot weld
• Seam weld
• Slot weld

6. The term for the type of weld configuration formed when the length of a round bar is placed parallel against a flat surface is:

• Double-flare-bevel-groove.
• Single-flare-V groove
• Edge flange
• Corner flange

7. The term for the type of weld used to build up thinned surfaces, provide a layer of corrosion protection, or provide a layer of abrasion-resistant material, is:

• Edge weld
• Flare weld
• Flange weld
• Surfacing weld

8. The term for the type of weld applied to the opposite side of a joint before a single V-groove weld is completed on the near side of a joint is:

• Melt-through weld
• Backing weld.
• Back weld
• Root weld

9. In a completed groove weld, the term for the surface of the weld on the side from which the welding was done is:

• Crown
• Weld reinforcement
• Weld face
• Root

10. In a completed weld, the term for the junction between the weld face and the base metal is:

• Root
• Weld edge
• Weld reinforcement
• Toe

11. The term for the type of weld having a generally triangular cross-section and which is applied to either a T, corner, or lap joint is:

• Flange weld
• Flare weld
• Fillet weld
• Slot weld

12. The term for the height of the weld face above the base metal in a groove weld is:

• Crown
• Buildup
• Face
• Weld reinforcement

13. In a fillet weld, the leg and size are the same for what type of configuration?

• Effective throat
• Concave weld
• Convex weld
• Unequal leg fillet

14. When looking at the cross-section of a completed groove weld, the difference between the fusion face and the weld interface is called the:

• Depth of fusion
• Depth of penetration
• Root penetration
• Joint penetration

15. For a concave fillet weld, which throat dimensions are the same?

• Theoretical and effective
• Effective and actual
• Theoretical and actual
• All of the above

16. In a partial penetration single V-groove weld, the term for the dimension measured from the joint root to where the weld penetration stops is:

• Joint penetration
• Effective throat
• Root penetration
• Depth of fusion

17. The size of a spot weld is determined by its:

• Depth of fusion
• Diameter of weld at point of contact
• Depth of penetration
• Thickness

18. The primary element of any welding symbol is referred to as the:

• Tail
• Arrow
• Reference line
• Arrow side

19. Information appearing above the reference line refers to the:

• Nearside
• Arrow side
• Farside
• Other side

20. The graphic description of the type of weld is called the:

• Tail
• Welding symbol
• Weld symbol
• Arrow

21. Which of the symbols below describes the weld shown?

A
B
C
D

22. When a weld symbol is centered on the reference line, this indicates:

• That the welder can put the weld on either side
• That there is no side significance
• That the designer doesn’t know where the weld should go
• That the welder should weld in whatever position the weld is in

23. The symbol below depicts what type of joint?

• Flare V-groove
• Flare bevel groove
• Edge flange
• Corner flange

24. In the welding symbol below, the 1/8 dimension refers to what?

• Depth of preparation
• Groove angle
• Root face
• Root opening

25. In the welding symbol below, the 3/4 dimension refers to what?

• Weld size
• Effective throat
• Depth of bevel
• Root opening

26. If applied to a 1 in thick weld joint, the welding symbol below describes what type of weld?

• Full penetration double bevel-groove weld
• Full penetration double V-groove weld
• Partial penetration double bevel-groove weld
• Partial penetration double V-groove weld

27. A triangular-shaped weld symbol represents what type of weld?

• Bevel groove
• Flare groove
• Flange groove
• V-groove
• Fillet weld

28. The symbol below describes what type of weld?

• Staggered intermittent fillet weld
• Chain intermittent fillet weld
• Segmented fillet weld
• Intermittent fillet weld

29. The first dimension appearing to the immediate right of the weld symbol generally refers to the:

• Weld reinforcement
• Root opening
• Pitch distance
• Weld length

30. In the case of a plug or slot weld, a dimension placed within the weld symbol would indicate?

• Depth of filling
• Slot weld width
• Plug weld diameter
• Angle of countersink

31. The required spot weld size parameter can be shown as:

• A Dimension to the right of the symbol
• A Dimension of the required nugget diameter
• A Value for the required shear strength per spot
• B or C Above

32. A number appearing to the right of the spot weld symbol refers to:

• Spot weld size
• Spot weld length
• Number of spots required
• Pitch distance between adjacent spots

33. What elements are required in a welding symbol?

• Reference line
• Weld symbol
• Arrow
• A and C Above

34. In the welding symbol below, the supplementary symbol shown on the other side location represents:

• Back weld
• Backing weld
• Melt-through of the weld from arrow side
• A and B above

35. The welding symbol below shows the use of what type of completed weld?

• Single bevel-groove weld with backing weld
• Single bevel-groove weld with back weld
• Single V-groove weld with backing weld
• Single V-groove weld with back weld

36. The symbol below shows what type of joint configuration?

• Square groove
• Skewed groove
• Sloped groove
• Scarf

37. The part of the welding symbol which can be used to convey any additional information that cannot be shown otherwise is referred to as:

• The weld symbol
• The arrow
• The reference line
• The tail

38. The welding symbol below shows what type of weld?

• Gas metal arc spot weld
• Resistance spot weld
• Gas metal arc seam weld
• Resistance seam weld

39. A number in parentheses just above/below the weld symbol in a welding symbol for slot welds describes:

• The length of weld
• The type of welding
• The number of welds required
• The type of electrode to use

40. A number not in parenthesis to the left of the groove weld symbol in a welding symbol refers to the:

• Depth of bevel
• The length of the weld
• The weld quality standard
• The weld procedure to use

41. Which of the symbols above represents an intermittent fillet weld?
Consider the welding symbols below for questions Q4-41 through Q4-44.

• 1
• 8
• 6
• 4
• 5

42. Which of the symbols above represents a groove weld with melt-through?

• 2
• 3
• 6
• 7
• None of the above

43. Which of the symbols above represents a plug weld not completely filled?

• 1
• 3
• 5
• 7

44. Which of the symbols above represents a groove weld with backing weld or back weld?

• 1
• 2
• 6
• 7
• 9

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 4

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 5– Documents Governing Welding Inspection and Qualification- Latest 34 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following do not contain job quality requirements?

• Codes
• Drawings
• Specifications
• Textbooks

2. Of the following, which may be considered mandatory?

• Codes
• Specifications
• Standards
• All of the above

3. The job documents that best describe the size and configuration of a weldment are:

• Codes
• Standards
• Specifications
• Drawings

4. The type of document that has legal status by definition is:

• Code
• Standard
• Specification

5. The type of document that describes the requirements for a particular material or component is referred to as:

• Code
• Standard
• Specification
• B and C above

6. Something set up and established by authority as a rule to measure quantity, quality, value, or weight is a:

• Specification
• Standard
• Code
• Drawing

7. Of the following types of documents, which have general acceptance in the welding industry?

• Contracts
• Standards
• Specifications
• Drawings
• All of the above

8. The code that covers the welding of steel structures is:

• ASME Section IX
• ASME B31.1
• API 1104
• AWS Dl.1

9. The code that covers the design of metallic unfired pressure vessels is:

• ASME Section XI
• ASME Section VIII
• ASME Section X
• API 1104
• AWS Dl.1

10. The series of specifications covering the requirements for welding electrodes is designated:

• AWS Dl.X
• AWS D14.X
• AWS A5.1–A5.31
• ASTM A 53

11. Which of the following methods for controlling materials in a fabrication shop is most suitable for automation?

• Color-coding
• Alphanumeric coding
• Heat number transfer
• Barcoding

12. Which Section of the ASME Code covers the qualification of welders?

• Section V
• Section XI
• Section III
• Section IX

13. Tolerances are required on drawings to:

• Guide the inspector on permissible size variations
• Show the total amount of variation permitted from the design size
• Both a and b above
• None of the above

14. Tolerances can be expressed:

• As a variation between limits
• As plus or minus dimension
• As a design size with either a plus or a minus
• All of the above

15. Drawing notes can be classified as:

• General
• Local
• Specifications
• All of the above

16. Hold points refer to:

• The points for lifting an object
• A delay in fabrication to permit inspection
• A shutdown at the end of the day
• None of the above

17. The welding inspector is not responsible for checking to make sure all welding and testing personnel have adequate certifications.

• True
• False

18. The American Welding Society has developed how many welding codes?

• One
• Two
• Three
• Nine

19. When inspecting unfired pressure vessels to the ASME Code, the inspector will usually use several different Sections.

• True
• False

20. In what Section of the ASME Code are the filler materials found?

• Section III
• Section II, Part C
• Section II, Part D
• Section IX

21. Standards are never considered mandatory.

• True
• False

22. Base metals used in fabrication can be bought to conform to which of the following?

• ASTM standards
• ASME Code, Section II, Parts A and B
• It is not required to specify base metals
• A and B above

23. The AWS Specifications are designated as A5.XX refers to:

• Filler metals
• Rules for bridges
• Cross country pipelines
• Pressure vessel fabrication

24. An effective materials control system will:

• Be as simple as possible
• Contain checks and balances
• Be based on “first in-first out”
• A and B above

25. UNS refers to:

• United Nondestructive Society
• United National Standards
• Unified National System
• Unified Numbering System

26. Who is normally responsible for the qualification of welding procedures and welders?

• Welder
• Architect
• Welder’s employer
• Engineer

27. Which of the following processes is not considered prequalified in accordance with AWS D1.1?

• Shielded metal arc
• Submerged arc
• Short-circuiting transfer gas metal arc
• Spray transfer gas metal arc

28. Of the following types of test specimens, which is used by API and not ASME for procedure and welder qualification testing?

• Face bend
• Root bend
• Side bend
• Nick break

29. What is the pipe welding position where the pipe remains fixed with its axis horizontal, so the welder must weld around the joint?

• 1G
• 2G
• 5G
• 6G

30. What is the pipe welding position where the axis of the pipe lies fixed at a 45° angle?

• 1G
• 2G
• 5G
• 6G

31. What is the pipe position test for welders who are trying to qualify to weld T-, K-, and Y connections?

• 1G
• 2G
• 5G
• 6GR

32. If a welder qualifies to weld with an E6010 electrode, which is an F3 group electrode, in AWS D1.1 and ASME Section IX they are also qualified to weld with all of the following except:

• E6011
• E6012
• E7018
• E7024

33. With relation to procedure and welder qualification, which of the following can be an important task for the welding inspector?

• Watching the welding qualification test
• Identifying samples
• Cutting and testing specimens
• Monitoring production welding to ensure the correct variables are used.
• All of the above

34. For most codes, if a welder continues to use a particular process and procedure, how long does the welder’s qualification remain in effect?

• Indefinitely
• 6 months
• 1-year
• 3 years

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 5

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 6– Metal Properties and Destructive Testing- Latest 41 Question and Answers

1.The property of metals that describes their resistance to indentation is called:

Note: For conversion Factors, refer to “Welding Usage Conversion Chart” on pages 10-9 of the
workbook and for Formulae refer to pages 10-8.

• Strength
• Toughness
• Hardness
• Ductility

2. The property of metals that describes their ability to carry a load is:

• Strength
• Toughness
• Hardness
• Ductility

3. Generally, as strength increases for carbon steels, the ductility:

• Increases
• Stays the same
• Decreases
• Is not related to strength

4. The property that describes the ability of a metal to deform when stressed is:

• Strength
• Toughness
• Hardness
• Ductility

5. The type of strength related to a metal’s behavior when the load is applied in a cyclic manner is:

• Tensile
• Compressive
• Torsional
• Fatigue

6. The yield strength of a material is determined by:

• Impact testing
• Tensile testing
• Hardness testing
• The offset method
• B and D above

7. Which metal properties are directly related?

• Conductivity and strength
• Strength and ductility
• Strength and hardness
• Ductility and toughness
• C and D above

8. The ability of a metal to absorb energy is called:

• Strength
• Ductility
• Hardness
• Toughness

9. The metal property affected by the surface condition of the sample is:

• Tensile strength
• UTS
• Hardness
• Fatigue strength
• All of the above

10. Which alloying element is generally considered to have the most pronounced effect on the properties and performance of carbon steel?

• Aluminum
• Carbon
• Manganese
• Chromium

11. Which alloying element is commonly added to steel to improve its corrosion resistance?

• Carbon
• Aluminum
• Silicon
• Chromium

12. Hydrogen in the molten weld metal can cause:

• Undercut
• Overlap
• Cracking
• Porosity
• C and D above

13. Which property cannot be determined from a tensile test?

• Ultimate tensile strength
• Percent elongation
• Percent reduction of area
• Impact strength
• Yield strength

14. A metal’s ductility can be expressed as:

• Percent elongation
• Percent reduction of area
• Proportional limit
• A and B above

15. A tensile specimen having a cross-sectional area of 0.25 sq in breaks at a load of 15 250 lbs.
What is its tensile strength? (Tensile Strength = Load/Area)

• 3813 psi
• 61 000 psi.
• 6100 psi
• 58 500 psi

16. The point at which a metal’s behavior changes from elastic to plastic (onset of permanent deformation) is referred to as:

• Yield strength
• Ultimate tensile strength
• Modulus of elasticity
• Young’s modulus

17. What is the percent elongation of a specimen whose original gage length was 2 in and final gage length was 2.5 in?

• 30%
• 25%
• 50%
• 40%

18. The family of hardness tests that uses both a minor and major load is called:

• Brinell
• Vickers
• Rockwell
• Knoop

19. Which of the following tests are referred to as microhardness tests?

• Rockwell
• Vickers
• Knoop
• B and C above

20. What type of test uses a weighted pendulum which strikes a notched test specimen?

• Brinell test
• Fatigue test
• Tensile test
• Charpy impact test

21. Endurance limit is an expression used for what type of testing?

• Fatigue
• Hardness
• Soundness
• Tension

22. The metal property that relates to a metals deforming without failing is called:

• Tensile strength
• Ductility
• Hardness
• Toughness

23. Which test is not considered a soundness test?

• Hardness
• Face bend
• Fillet break
• Root bend

24. The type of testing used to evaluate the type of microstructure present in a metal is called:

• Tensile
• Hardness
• Toughness
• Metallographic

25. Which of the following tests can be used to judge the soundness of a weld?

• Nick break
• Side bend
• Face bend
• Fillet break
• All of the above

26. Which of the following tests will generally be used to determine the behavior of a metal at a specific temperature?

• Guided-bend test
• Root-bend test
• Charpy impact test
• Transverse fillet weld shear test

27. With respect to the rolling direction of steel plate manufacture, which statement is true?

• The strength is highest in the ‘Z’ direction
• The strength is lowest in the ‘X’ direction
• The strength is highest in the ‘X’ direction
• The strength is highest in the ‘Y’ direction

28. The fillet weld break test is used to evaluate the:

• Quality of the fractured weld
• Ductility of the weld metal
• Impact strength of the weld
• Tensile strength of the base metal

29. The welding inspector is not concerned with the mechanical and chemical properties of metals.

• True
• False

30. For plain carbon steels, their approximate tensile strength can be estimated by multiplying their BHN by:

• 400
• 300
• 100
• 500

31. Notch toughness and impact strength are not synonymous.

• True
• False

32. Phosphorus and sulfur are added to carbon steel to improve:

• Ductility
• Toughness
• Weldability
• None of the above

33. To improve the low-temperature properties of carbon steels, the most likely alloy addition would be:

• Manganese
• Carbon
• Nickel
• Chromium

34. Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen can all cause embrittlement in carbon steel.

• True
• False

35. Gage marks on a tensile specimen are:

• Scratches caused by improper handling
• C and D above
• Spaced a set distance apart
• Used for calculating percent elongation

36. The ‘offset method’ is used for determining which property?

• Yield strength
• Tensile strength
• Hardness
• Fatigue strength

37. Surface preparation is not an important step in destructive testing.

• True
• False

38. The Brinell hardness test is always a destructive test.

• True
• False

39. In Charpy testing, the test temperature is:

• Not important
• Very important
• Not considered
• Never reported

40. In Charpy testing, the test data can be reported as:

• Foot-pounds energy absorbed
• Lateral expansion
• Percent shear
• All of the above

41. The objective of the guided bend test is to break the sample.

• True
• False

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 6

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 7– Metric Practice for Welding Inspection- Latest 6 Question and Answers

1. A 50.0 lb can of welding electrodes weighs how many kg?

Note: For conversion Factors, refer to “Welding Usage Conversion Chart” on pages 10-9 of the
workbook, and for Formulae refer to pages 10-8.

• 227 kg
• 25 kg
• 22.7 kg
• 23 000 kg

2. A weld joint is measured and found to be 345 mm long. How long is that joint in terms of in?

• 135 in
• 13.58 in
• 8760 in
• 876 in

3. What is the wire feed speed that is measured to be 175 in/min?

• 0.070 m/s
• 74.0 mm/s
• 7.4 mm/s
• 70 mm/s

4. Which of the following are the proper base unit(s) for linear measurement in the U.S. system?

• Yard
• Inch
• Foot
• Mile
• All of the above

5. What is the base unit (according to AWS) for measuring mass in the SI system?

• Meter
• Kilogram
• Megapascal
• Liter

6. A gas flow rate of 30 cfh is what in l/min?

• 1.4 l/min
• 14 l/min
• 140 l/min
• 64 l/min

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 7

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 8– Welding Metallurgy for the Welding Inspector- Latest 30 Question and Answers

1. As a metal is heated:

• Energy is added to the structure
• The atoms move further apart
• The atoms vibrate more vigorously
• The metal expands
• All of the above

2. The state of matter which exhibits the least amount of energy is:

• Solid
• Liquid
• Gas
• Quasi-liquid

3. A problem occurring in weldments caused by the non-uniform heating produced by the welding operation is:

• Porosity
• Incomplete fusion
• Distortion
• Slag inclusions

4. Which of the following is not a method used to eliminate or reduce residual stresses?

• Vibratory stress relief
• External restraint
• Thermal stress relief
• Peening

5. The type of alloying in which the alloy atoms are located in the spaces between the atoms of the parent metal is referred to as:

• Atomic alloying
• Substitutional alloying
• Space alloying
• Interstitial alloying

6. Rapid quenching of steel from the austenitic range results in a hard, brittle structure known as:

• Pearlite
• Carbide
• Cementite
• Ironite
• Martensite

7. Very slow cooling of steel may result in the production of a soft, ductile microstructure which has a lamellar appearance when viewed under high magnification. This structure is referred to as:

• Martensite
• Pearlite
• Bainite
• Ferrite

8. When rapid cooling produces a martensitic structure, what sub-critical heat treatment may be applied to improve the ductility of the steel?

• Quenching
• Tempering
• Annealing
• Normalizing

9. It is determined that a welding procedure is creating an excessive heat input. Which of the changes listed below would result in a reduction of the heat input?

• Decrease current
• Decrease voltage
• Increase travel speed
• Change from weave to stringer bead technique
• All of the above

10. The use of preheat will tend to:

• Result in a wider heat-affected zone
• Produce lower heat-affected zone hardness
• Slow down the cooling rate
• Reduce the tendency to produce martensite in the heat-affected zone
• All of the above

11. Which of the following changes will warrant an addition or increase in the required preheat?

• Decreased carbon equivalent
• Increased carbon equivalent
• Increased base metal thickness
• A and C above
• B and C above

12. What heat treatment is characterized by holding the part at the austenitizing temperature for some time and then slow cooling in the furnace?

• Normalizing
• Quenching
• Annealing
• Tempering

13. What heat treatment is characterized by holding the part at the austenitizing temperature for some time and then cooling in still air?

• Normalizing
• Quenching
• Annealing
• Tempering

14. Steel heated above the lower transformation temperature (A1) will change the metallurgical structure. This temperature is:

• 1333°F
• 933°F
• 1560°F
• 3600°C

15. Atoms in the solid (frozen) state:

• Have a specific “home” position
• Have no distinct structure
• Are essentially fixed in a definite structured position
• A and C above

16. What is the heat input for a molten weld pool at 5 ipm travel speed, 25 volts, and 100 amperes?

(Refer to page 10-8 for Formula)

• 300 J/in
• 300 000 J/in
• 30 000 J/in
• 3.633 J/in

17. One way that atoms are added to a pure metal to form an alloy is:

• Peening
• Substitutionally
• Automatically
• Solidification

18. The process where carbon is added to the surface of a steel to harden it is:

• Decarburization
• Pack carburizing
• Precipitation hardening
• Quenching

19. Steel exists in which of the following crystal structures?

• HCP
• FCC
• BCC
• All of the above

20. Which of the following usually follows quenching?

• Tempering
• Stress relieving
• Normalizing
• Annealing

21. Which of the following can be accomplished using either thermal or mechanical techniques?

• Annealing
• Tempering
• Quenching
• Stress-relieving

22. Which of the following results in the softest condition for carbon steel?

• Annealing
• Quenching
• Stress-relieving
• Tempering

23. For steel having a chemical composition of: 0.16% carbon, 0.84% manganese, 0.09% nickel,
0.25% chromium, 0.052% copper, and 0.40% molybdenum, what is its Carbon Equivalent?

• 0.23
• 0.34
• 0.37
• 0.41
• 0.46

24. Stainless steels are defined as having at least what percent chromium?

• 7%
• 12%
• 15%
• 20%

25. Sensitization, or carbide precipitation, of austenitic stainless steels, can be reduced by which of the following methods?

• Solution annealing, water quenching
• Using stabilized grades containing titanium or niobium (columbium)
• Using the low carbon grades of stainless steels
• All of the above

26. Metals must be molten for diffusion to occur.

• True
• False

27. Hydrogen can diffuse into a solid metal at room temperature.

• True
• False

28. Metals can diffuse into each other when both are in solid form.

• True
• False

29. The process whereby nitrogen diffuses into the surface of carbon steel is:

• Sensitization
• Nitrogen removal
• Carburizing
• Nitriding

30. Welding metallurgy is concerned with the changes in the metals during welding.

• True
• False

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 8

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 9– Weld and Base Metal Discontinuities- Latest 19 Question and Answers

1. A discontinuity is:

• Always a defect
• Always a reject
• Always acceptable
• Rejectable if it exceeds code limits

2. Whether a particular weld discontinuity is critical can be judged on the basis of:

• Whether it is surface or subsurface
• Whether it is linear or nonlinear
• Whether it has a sharp end condition
• All of the above

3. What discontinuity is generally considered to be the most severe?

• Porosity
• Incomplete fusion
• Slag inclusion
• Crack

4. Which of the following discontinuities is less likely to be found visually?

• Toe crack
• Undercut
• Lamellar tear
• Overlap

5. Underbead cracks can result from which of the following welding practices?

• Use of wet electrodes
• Welding on contaminated steels
• Welding over paint
• All of the above

6. The weld discontinuity that results from improper termination of the welding arc is referred to as:

• Undercut
• Overlap
• Crater crack
• Incomplete fusion

7. Of the following processes, which is unlikely to have slag inclusions in a completed weld?

• SMAW
• PAW
• FCAW
• SAW

8. The discontinuity that results from the entrapment of gas within the weld cross-section is referred to as:

• Crack
• Slag inclusion
• Incomplete fusion
• Porosity

9. What weld discontinuity results when the welder travels too slowly, causing excess weld metal to flow out of the joint and lay on the base metal surface without fusing?

• Undercut
• Underfill
• Overlap
• Incomplete fusion

10. What weld metal discontinuity results when the welder fails to completely fill the weld groove?

• Underfill
• Undercut
• Overlap
• Incomplete fusion

11. Excessive weld metal buildup on a groove weld is referred to as:

• Excess convexity
• Excess weld reinforcement
• Overfill
• All of the above

12. The weld discontinuity that results from the initiation of the welding arc outside the weld joint is referred to as:

• Incomplete fusion
• Undercut
• Overlap
• Arc strike

13. What weld discontinuity shows up as a light region on a radiograph?

• Porosity
• Tungsten inclusion
• Slag inclusion
• A and B above

14. Which of the following is a base metal discontinuity that is associated with the stresses induced from welding?

• Lamination
• Lamellar tear
• Seam
• Pipe shrinkage

15. What discontinuity is shown by #12b?
Questions Q9-15 through Q9-19 refer to the figure shown below:

• Longitudinal crack
• Transverse crack
• Underbead crack
• Toe crack

16. What step-like discontinuity is shown by #11?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

• Lamination
• Porosity
• Lamellar tear
• Seam

17. What discontinuity is shown by #12g?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

• Toe crack
• Incomplete fusion
• Root crack
• Lamellar tear
• Underbead crack

18. What discontinuity is shown by #5?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

• Undercut
• Underfill
• Overlap
• Incomplete fusion
• Toe crack

19. What discontinuity is shown by #10?

Questions-Q9-15-through-Q9-19-refer-to-the-figure-shown-below

• Lamination Seam
• Delamination
• Base metal crack
• Incomplete fusion

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 9

WIT-W:2008 Welding Inspection Technology Workbook Chapter 10– Visual Inspection and Other NDE Methods and Symbols- Latest 31 Question and Answers

1. Which of the following non-destructive testing methods are limited to the detection of surface discontinuities?

• Visual
• Penetrant
• Radiographic
• A and B above

2. To be most effective, a visual inspection should be performed:

• Before welding
• During welding
• After welding
• All of the above

3. The time period during which the penetrant remains on the surface of the part allowing it to be drawn into any surface discontinuities is called:

• Waiting time
• Penetrating time
• Soak time
• Dwell time

4. Which type of magnetizing current provides the best iron particle mobility?

• AC
• DC
• DCEP
• B and C above

5. What MT technique could be used for the discovery of longitudinal flaws?

• Headshot (circular magnetism)
• Side shot
• Coil shot (longitudinal magnetization)
• D. A and B above

6. Which of the following magnetizing methods produce a circular magnetic field in the test piece?

• Headshot
• Passing an electrical current through the part
• Prod
• All of the above

7. Which of the following magnetizing methods can produce a longitudinal magnetic field in the test piece?

• Head shot
• Coil shot
• Yoke
• B and C above

8. What NDT method is best for evaluating subsurface porosity?

• PT
• MT
• RT
• VT

9. Which of the following statements is correct for radiographic testing?

• A reduction in thickness will produce a lighter image on the film
• A low-density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film
• A high-density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film.
• A and B above

10. Radiographic testing (RT) can be performed using which of the following?

• X-ray machine
• Cesium 137
• Lridium 192
• Cobalt 60
• All of the above

11. MT can be used most effectively to inspect which of the following?

• Austenitic stainless steel welds on carbon steel
• Austenitic stainless steel welds on stainless steel
• Carbon steel welds on carbon steel
• A and B above

12. Which of the following discontinuities will not usually be revealed using RT?

• Crack
• Incomplete joint penetration
• Porosity
• Lamination

13. What device is used during radiography to indicate the resolution sensitivity of a radiograph?

• IQI
• Dosimeter
• Lead screen
• All of the above

14. Which nondestructive test method uses sound energy as a probing medium?

• MT
• RT
• UT
• PT

15. The process whereby ultrasonic indications are related to dimensions in a test standard is referred to as:

• Setup
• Calibration
• Standardization
• Synchronization

16. As-welded groove welds are usually inspected ultrasonically using what technique?

• Straight beam
• Shear wave
• Angle beam
• B and C above

17. Capillary action plays a role in which NDT method?

• ET
• UT
• RT
• PT

18. Which NDT method is considered to be a true volumetric test?

• RT
• UT
• PT
• MT

19. Which NDT method uses an alternating current coil?

• MT
• UT
• ET
• A and C above

20. Changes in heat treatment can be measured using which NDT method?

• ET
• RT
• MT
• UT

21. Which of the following NDT methods can detect surface cracks?

• RT
• VT
• ET
• PT
• All of the above

22. Which NDT method is most likely to reveal subsurface laminations in a rolled plate?

• RT
• UT
• ET
• MT

23. Piezoelectricity is a property used by which NDE method?

• ET
• UT
• RT
• A and B above

24. Which is the best technique for orienting magnetic lines of force when conducting MT testing?

• Two directions
• Single direction
• Residual magnetism
• All of the above

25. What resolution sensitivity is normally required for RT?

• 2%.
• 4%
• 5%
• 7%

26. What is the basic element of evaluation in any quality control program?

• Radiographic testing
• Penetrant testing
• Visual inspection
• All of the above

27. When should the applicable job documents be reviewed?

• After the job is completed
• Before welding begins
• At any time when information is necessary
• B and C above

28. What is the role of the AWS CWI in NDE?

• See that inspections are done
• Verify personnel qualifications for NDE inspection
• Prepare proper records
• See that proper records are maintained
• All of the above

29. A number in parentheses just above or below a test symbol describes:

• The length of weld to be tested
• The extent of testing
• The number of tests to perform
• The type of test to perform

30. A number to the right of a nondestructive testing symbol refers to the:

• Number of tests to perform
• The length of weld to be tested
• The applicable quality standard
• The test procedure to use

31. Test information above the reference line refers to the arrow side.

• True
• False

Click Here To See The Answer Keys of WIT Chapter 10

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