Take A Free ASNT SNT-TC-1A Level 3 Exam Practice Test – Quiz Course

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1.

SNT-Te-lA, Sections 1, 2 and 3
ASNT intended that the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A be applied: 

 a. with flexibility and reason

 b. precisely as written

 c. as minimum requirements

 d. as maximum requirements

2.

To which of the following NOT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable?

 a. Visual Testing

 b. Thermal infrared Testing

 c. Acoustic Emission Testing

 d. Holographic Testing

3.

Who should be responsible to assess whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified who does perform NOT, but monitors and evaluates NOT?

 a. ASNT

 b. The individual’s employer

 c. A government regulatory agency

 d. The customer’s auditor

4.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

 a. Certification is written testimony of qualification

 b. Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job

 c. The employer is the corporate or private entity that employs personnel for wages or salary

 d. A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NOT personnel

5.

The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A, “It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers; circumstances, and/or applications.” What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate?

 a. The employer must change its operations to conform to the guidelines

 b. The employer must seek relief from ASNT for inappropriate applications

 c. The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs

 d. The employer shaH submit an inquiry in writing directed to the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel

6.

Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the following questions relating to SNT-TC-1A and the administration of a qualification and certification program in NDT.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-1A?

 a. SNT-TC -1A is intended for use by a limited set of industrial segments

 b. SNT-TC-1A was generated to satisfy the specification requirements of ASME

 c. SNT-TC-1A was last revised in 1988

 d. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification

7.

The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to inquiries about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry must be:

 a. written and stated in general terms

 b. written including specific details of the case, e.g., names, places, dates, and other pertinent facts

 c. considered by the ASNT Board of Directors if it involves decisions that would place ASNT in a position between buyer and seller

 d. ruled upon by the Technical and Education Council of ASNT before the SNT-TC -1A Interpretation Panel prepares a response

8.

Which of the following statements is true?

 a. ASNT has been providing certification examinations for Level III personnel since the late 1960s

 b. SNT-TC -1A was first published in the late 1960s

 c. SNT-TC-1A requires that Level III personnel be qualified and certified by ASNT

 d. SNT-TC-1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnel qualification and certification set forth in parts of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code

9.

With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer:

 a. must conduct all of the training on the premises

 b. may engage an outside service who must conduct the training on the employer’s premises

 c. should not conduct the training, being too close to company’s problems

 d. may engage an outside service but is, nevertheless, responsible for the certification of the company’s NDT personnel

10.

SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers:

 a. to establish their own written practice that must be used as a strict specification

 b. to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NOT personnel

 c. to define training course requirements for contractors performing outside training services

 d. who are corporate members of ASNT

11.

General Applications of Various NDT Methods
Acoustic Emission Testing (AE)
Background noise can be reduced by:

 a. electronic filtering

 b. using flat response amplifiers

 c. using in-line amplifiers

 d. using heavier gage coaxial cable

12.

Threshold settings are determined by:

 a. the graininess of the material

 b. the attelluation of the material

 c. the test duration

 d. the background noise level

13.

The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to:

 a. the preset threshold

 b. the intensity of the source

 c. the bandpass filters

 d. background noises

14.

The term “counts” refers to:

 a. the number of times a signal crosses a preset threshold

 b. the number of events from a source

 c. the number of transducers required to perform a test

 d. none of the above

15.

The Kaiser effect is useful in distinguishing:

 a. electrical noise from mechanical noise

 b. electrical noise from growing discontinuities

 c. mechanical noise from growing discontinuities

 d. electrical noise from continuous emissions

16.

The most common range of acoustic emission testing is:

 a. 10-15 kHz

 b. 100-300 kHz

 c. 500-750 kHz

 d. 1-5 MHz

17.

Discontinuities that are readily detectable by acoustic emission testing are:

 a. leaks

 b. plastic deformation

 c. growing cracks

 d. all of the above

18.

The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called:

 a. scatter

 b. dispersion

 c. diffraction

 d. attenuation

19.

The Kaiser effect refers to:

 a. velocity changes due to temperature changes

 b. low amplitude emissions from aluminum structures

 c. the behavior where emission from a source will not occur until the previous load is exceeded

 d. none of the above

20.

The felicity effect is useful in evaluating:

 a. fiber-reinforced plastic components

 b. high alloy castings

 c. large structural steel members

 d. ceramics

21.

Electromagnetic Testing (ET)
At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest?

 a. Aluminum (35% lACS conductivity)

 b. Brass (15% lACS conductivity)

 c. Copper (95% lACS conductivity)

 d. Lead (7% lACS conductivity)

22.

The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive material is decreased when the:

 a. test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is decreased

 b. test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the specimen is increased

 c. test frequency, the conductivity of the specimen, or the permeability of the specimen is increased

 d. permeability of the specimen is decreased

23.

In eddy current testing, the specimen is coupled to the test coil by:

 a. core coupling

 b. magnetic saturation

 c. the coil’s electromagnetic fields

 d. magnetic domains

24.

In eddy’s current testing, lACS is a recognized abbreviation for:

 a. Induced Alternating Current System

 b. Inductively Activated Comparison System

 c. Internal Applied Current System

 d. International Annealed Copper Standard

25.

The magnetic field generated by eddy currents induced in a test specimen:

 a. opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents

 b. reinforces the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents

 c. cancels the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents

 d. has no effect on the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents

26.

Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents induced in conductive materials by:

 a. continuous direct current

 b. gamma rays

 c. an alternating magnetic field

 d. a piezoelectric force

27.

The method used to generate eddy currents in a test specimen by means of a coil can most closely be compared with the action of a:

 a. transformer

 b. capacitor

 c. storage battery

 d. generator

28.

Eddy’s current testing relies on the principle of:

 a. magnetostriction

 b. electromagnetic induction

 c. piezoelectric energy conversion

 d. magnetomotive force

29.

When the electrical current in an eddy current coil reverses direction, the:

 a. direction of the eddy currents in a part remains the same

 b. eddy currents in the test part will change phase by 45 degrees

 c. direction of the eddy currents in the part also reverses

 d. eddy currents in the part remain the same

30.

In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the specimen must be:

 a. an electrical conductor

 b. an electrical insulator

 c. either a conductor or an insulator

 d. a ferromagnetic material

31.

Leak Testing (LT)
In an evacuated system, the sensitivity of a pressure change leak test is dependent not only on the pressure change observed but also on the degree of outgassing. Outgassing is best defined as:

 a. the viscosity of the pressurizing gas

 b. being directly proportional to the temperature of the gas

 c. the release of gas from materials in a vacuum

 d. the drop in test pressure due to leakage from the vacuum manifold

32.

All leak detection methods are dependent upon:

 a. barometric pressure

 b. gas or fluid flow

 c. mass spectrometer analysis

 d. mean free paths of helium flow

33.

If the sensitivity of the halogen leak detector is constant throughout a test, which of the following is true upon completion of the test?

 a. No leaks of a certain size or larger have gone undetected

 b. The total leak rate of the test object is less than a certain amount

 c. The instrument and test procedure were capable of detecting leakage of a certain size during the test

 d. All of the above

34.

Assuming no significant leakage, if the temperature increased during a pressure drop leak test, the pressure in the system under test would:

 a. increase

 b. remain the same

 c. decrease

 d. first increase, then decrease to its former level

35.

Which of the following best describes the type of leak test used when the interior of the test object is evacuated and a tracer gas is applied to the exterior, while the leak detector is connected to the evacuating system?

 a. Static leak test

 b. Helium leak test

 c. Dynamic leak test

 d. Halogen leak test

36.

Which of the following systems or components are candidates for leak testing?

 a. Piping and pressure vessels

 b. Refrigeration piping

 c. Vacuum chambers

 d. All of the above

37.

A helium mass spectrometer is used in which of the following NDT method(s)?

 a. X-ray spectroscopy

 b. Optical holography

 c.’ Acoustic holography

 d. Leak testing

38.

Which of the following is a technique of leak testing?

 a. Bubble detection

 b. Measurement of pressure changes

 c. Halogen sniffing

 d. All of the above

39.

Potentially, the most sensitive leak testing technique is the:

 a. bubble test

 b. pressure change test

 c. mass spectrometer test

 d. liquid penetrant test

40.

Establishing differential pressure between the test object and environment is an essential element in which of the following NDT methods?

 a. X-ray diffraction

 b. Neutron radiography

 c. Leak testing

 d. Gamma radiography

41.

Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT)
A problem with retesting a specimen that has been previously tested using a liquid penetrant is that:

 a. the penetrant may form beads on the surface

 b. the penetrant residue left in discontinuities may not readily dissolve and the retest may be misleading

 c. the penetrant will lose a great deal of its color brilliance

 d. none of the above are correct statements

42.

When performing a liquid penetrant test using solvent-removable visible dye penetrant, there are several ways to remove excess penetrant from the surface of the part. Which of the methods listed below is generally regarded as most suitable for giving accurate test results?

 a. Squirting solvent over the surface with no more than 10 psi pressure

 b. Wiping with a solvent-soaked cloth, then wiping with a dry cloth

 c. Wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, then wiping with a dry cloth

 d. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, and finally wiping with a dry cloth.

43.

Which of the following penetrant systems is generally considered the least sensitive?

 a. Water-washable; visible dye

 b. Solvent-removable; visible dye

 c. Water-washable; fluorescent dye

 d. Post-emulsified; visible dye

44.

The most widely accepted method for removing excessive water-washable penetrant from the surface of a test specimen is by:

 a. using a wet rag

 b. using a water spray rinse

 c. washing the part directly under water running from a tap

 d. immersing the part in water

45.

A red penetrant indication against a white background is most likely to be seen when:

 a. dry developers are used

 b. visible dye penetrants are used

 c. fluorescent post-emulsified penetrants are used

 d. wet developers are used

46.

The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to:

 a. the viscosity of the penetrant

 b. capillary forces

 c. the chemical inertness of the penetrant

 d. the specific gravity of the penetrant

47.

Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive test that can be used for:

 a. locating and evaluating all types of discontinuities in a test specimen

 b. locating and determining the length, width, and depth of discontinuities in a test specimen

 c. determining the tensile strength of a test specimen

 d. locating discontinuities open to the surface

48.

Which of the following is not a characteristic that applies to liquid penetrant testing?

 a. This method can accurately measure the depth of a crack or discontinuity

 b. This method can be used for on-site testing of large parts

 c. This method can be used to find shallow surface discontinuities

 d. This method can be made more or less sensitive by using different penetrant materials

49.

The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to emit light of a range of wavelengths different from the wavelength of light that excites the emission is called:

 a. emissivity

 b. irradiation

 c. black light

 d. fluorescence

50.

When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant, the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to remain on the part is critical for detecting shallow discontinuities. The optimum length of time should be:

 a. 10 seconds

 b. 5 seconds

 c. 2-3 minutes

 d. determined by experimentation

51.

Magnetic Particle Testing (MT)
How is the inside diameter of a cylinder best magnetized?

 a. By a headshot

 b. By using prods at either end

 c. With a central conductor placed between contact heads

 d. With the cylinder placed crosswise in a solenoid

52.

Inspecting a part by applying the magnetic particle suspension while the current is flowing is called the:

 a. continuous method

 b. dry method

 c. residual method

 d. demagnetization method

53.

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using the prod method?

 a. The magnetic field may be applied in the wrong direction

 b. The inspection surface may be arc burned

 c. Magnetic saturation may occur

 d. The operator’s eyes may be burned by arc strikes

54.

In which magnetizing method is the current passed directly through the part, thereby setting up a magnetic field at right angles to the current flow?

 a. Longitudinal magnetization

 b. Coil magnetization

 c. Central conductor magnetization

 d. None of the above

55.

Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of:

 a. circumferential cracks

 b. longitudinal cracks

 c. cracks in cylindrical parts at right angles to the long axis of the part

 d. Both a and c

56.

Which of the following materials cannot be tested by magnetic particle techniques?

 a. High alloy steels

 b. Tool steels

 c. Copper alloys

 d. Ferritic stainless steels

57.

Materials that are strongly attracted to a magnet are called:

 a. magnetized

 b. nonmagnetic

 c. ferromagnetic

 d. magnetic

58.

Magnetic lines of force (magnetic fields) are oriented in what direction in relation to. the direction of the magnetizing current?

 a. Parallel

 b. At right angles

 c. At a 45-degree angle

 d. One angular orientation is random

59.

Magnetizing flux is a term that relates to:

 a. describing the direction of current flow in an electromagnet

 b. the manner by which magnetism flows through space

 c. the lines of force associated with a magnetic field

 d. permanent magnets only

60.

Subjecting a part to a magnetic field that is constantly reversing in polarity and gradually diminishing in strength accomplishes which of the following?

 a. The part is magnetized

 b. The part is demagnetized

 c. The remanence of the magnetic field is increased

 d. Deep-lying discontinuities are more easily located

61.

Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR)
The most suitable films for producing neutron radiographs are:

 a. red sensitive films

 b. instant-type films

 c. industrial X-ray films

 d. medical X-ray films

62.

Which of the following neutron radiography converter foils cannot be used for the transfer or indirect radiography?

 a. Dysprosium

 b. Indium

 c. Gadolinium

 d. Gold

63.

Neutron radiography using the transfer method requires that the imaging screen:

 a. be placed behind the film

 b. be placed in front of the film

 c. be very thin

 d. become radioactive

64.

The primary radiation mechanism for darkening X-ray film when the direct neutron radiography process is used with gadolinium screens is:

 a. alpha particles

 b. electrons

 c. gamma rays

 d. light emission

65.

Material that slows down neutrons is called:

 a. a moderator

 b. an accumulator

 c. a limiter

 d. a reducer

66.

A normally desirable feature of a thermal neutron beam for neutron radiography is:

 a. low gamma radiation intensity

 b. relatively low fast-neutron intensity

 c. low angular divergence

 d. both a and b

67.

The highest intensity sources of thermal neutrons are:

 a. Cf-252 isotopes

 b. accelerators

 c. nuclear reactors

 d. none of the above

68.

Neutrons for fast-neutron radiography are obtainable from:

 a. accelerators

 b. radioactive sources

 c. reactors

 d. all of the above

69.

A radioactive source used for neutron radiography is:

 a. Pu-239

 b. Co-60

 c. Cs-137

 d. Cf-252

70.

The energy of the neutron is expressed in which of the following units of measurement?

 a. Curies

 b. Roentgens

 c. Half-life

 d. Electron-volts

71.

Radiographic Testing (RT)
The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionize and become electrical conductors makes them useful in:

 a. X-ray transfonners

 b. X-ray tubes

 c. masks

 d. radiation detection equipment

72.

The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiograph is called:

 a. radiographic contrast

 b. subject contrast

 c. film contrast

 d. definition

73.

Common sources of neutrons for neutron radiography are:

 a. electron linear accelerators

 b. isotopes of cobalt (Co-60 is one)

 c. nuclear reactors

 d. betatrons

74.

Of the following, the source providing the most penetrating radiation is:

 a. Co-60

 b. 220 kVp X-ray tube

 c. 15 MeV betatron

 d. electrons from Ir-192

75.

The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of the following units of measurement?

 a. Curie

 b. Roentgen

 c. Half-life

 d. kilo electron volts (keV) or millions of electron volts (MeV)

76.

The penetrating ability of an X-ray beam is governed by:

 a. kilovoltage or wavelength

 b. time

 c. milliamperage

 d. source-to-film distance

77.

Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal kilovoltage and milliamperage settings:

 a. will produce the same intensities and energies of radiation

 b. will produce the same intensities but may produce different energies of radiation

 c. will produce the same energies but may produce different intensities of radiation

 d. may give not only different intensities but also different energies of radiation

78.

Which of the following X-ray generators would produce the narrowest cone of X-radiation?

 a. 10 MeV

 b. 15 MeV

 c. 25 MeV

 d. 1 MeV

79.

Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced during the disintegration of nuclei of radioactive substances is called:

 a. X-radiation

 b. gamma radiation

 c. scatter radiation

 d. backscatter radiation

80.

Almost all gamma radiography is performed with:

 a. natural isotopes

 b. artificially produced isotopes

 c. Radium

 d. Tm-170

81.

Thennal/infrared Testing (IR)
Infrared thermal detectors:

 a. have a broad, flat spectral response

 b. have much faster response times than photon detectors

 c. usually requires cooling to operate properly

 d. have much greater sensitivity than photon detectors

82.

The spectral band in which glass transmits infrared radiation most efficiently is the:

 a. 3-6 μm region

 b. 2-3 μm region

 c. 6-9 μm region

 d. 9-11 μm region

83.

If a surface has an emissivity of 0.35 and a reflectivity of 0.45, its transmissivity would be:

 a. impossible to determine without additional information

 b. 0.80

 c. 0.10

 d. 0.20

84.

A graybody surface with an emissivity of 0.04 would be:

 a. transparent to infrared radiation

 b. a fairly good emitter

 c. almost a perfect reflector

 d. almost a perfect emitter

85.

As a surface cools, the peak of its radiated infrared energy:

 a. shifts to longer wavelengths

 b. shifts to shorter wavelengths

 c. remains constant if emissivity remains constant

 d. remains constant even if emissivity varies

86.

Thermal resistance is:

 a. analogous to electrical current

 b. a material’s impedance to heat flow

 c. proportional to the fourth power of emissivity

 d. proportional to the rate of heat flow

87.

Conductive heat transfer cannot take place:

 a. across a vacuum

 b. within organic materials such as wood

 c. between two solid materials in contact

 d. between dissimilar metals

88.

The infrared/thermal energy emitted from a target surface:

 a. occurs only in a vacuum

 b. is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute surface temperature

 c. is inversely proportional to surface emissivity

 d. is totally absorbed by water vapor in the air

89.

Thermal radiation reaching the surface of a thermally opaque object will only be:

 a. absorbed by the surface

 b. absorbed and reflected by the surface

 c. reflected by the surface

 d. transmitted and absorbed by the surface

90.

The following spectral band is included in the infrared spectrum:

 a. 0.1-5.5 μm

 b. 0.3-10.6 μm

 c. 0.4-20 μm

 d. 0.75-100 μm

91.

Ultrasonic Testing (UT)
The display on most basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instruments consists of:

 a. automatic read-out equipment

 b. an A-scan presentation

 c. a B-scan presentation

 d. a C-scan presentation

92.

Which of the following will create a resonance condition in a specimen?

 a. Pulsed longitudinal waves

 b. Continuous longitudinal waves

 c. Pulsed shear waves

 d. Continuous shear waves

93.

The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small discontinuities is a definition for:

 a. resolution

 b. sensitivity

 c. definition

 d. gain

94.

In general. shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given frequency and in a given material because:

 a. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves

 b. shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the material

 c. the direction of particle vibration for shear waves is more sensitive to discontinuities

 d. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the wavelength of longitudinal waves

95.

When inspecting coarse-grained materials, which of the following frequencies will generate a sound wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain structure?

 a. 1.0 MHz

 b. 2.25 MHz

 c. 5 MHz

 d. 10 MHz

96.

Ultrasonic waves propagate through test materials in the form of:

 a. electromagnetic waves

 b. low voltage electric fields

 c. discontinuous radio waves

 d. mechanical vibrations

97.

When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface of two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel takes place in the second material due to:

 a. attenuation

 b. rarefaction

 c. compression

 d. refraction

98.

The gradual loss of energy as ultrasonic vibrations travel through material is referred to as:

 a. reflection

 b. refraction

 c. reproducibility

 d. attenuation

99.

Ultrasonic velocities are different for different materials. These differences are primarily caused by differences in the materials :

 a. frequency and wavelength

 b. thickness and travel time

 c. elasticity and density

 d. chemistry and permeability

100.

Ultrasonic energy for immersion testing is transmitted to the test object as a compressional wave because:

 a. compressional waves travel faster and will therefore reduce the distance of the interface signal

 b. liquids will only sustain compressional waves

 c. compressional waves are used with immersion testing only

 d. the higher intensity of compressional waves is necessary to overcome high attenuation in liquids

101.

Vibration Analysis Testing (VA)
Visual Testing (VT)
The IES is the:

 a. International Eye Society

 b . Institute of Engineering Sciences

 c. Illumination and Eyesight Society

 d. Illuminating Engineering Society

102.

The spectral range of visible response in humans is:

 a. static

 b. dependent on lighting conditions

 c. greatest at wavelengths less than 400nm

 d. greatest at wavelengths more than 750 nm

103.

What is the name of the condition of eye adaptation to a dark environment?

 a. Photopic vision

 b. Stereo topic vision

 c. Scotopic vision

 d. Heliotopic vision

104.

The minimum lighting condition recommended for detecting small cracks in welds is:

 a. 100 Ix

 b. 200 Ix

 c. 500 Ix

 d. 2,000 Ix

105.

The angle the eye makes with respect to the normal inspection surface should not:

 a. exceed 70 degrees

 b. exceed 45 degrees

 c. exceed 5 degrees

 d. be considered

106.

What is considered the typical spectral range of visible light for most humans?

 a. 300-800 nm

 b. 380-770 nm

 c. 400-800 nm

 d. 250-920 nm

107.

What element of the eye functions the same as the photographic plane of a camera?

 a. The optic nerve

 b. The iris

 c. The cornea

 d. The retina

108.

A surface has diffuse reflection when:

 a. a fuzzy reflection of the light source is seen

 b. a perfect reflection of the light source can be seen

 c. no reflection of the light source is seen

109.

The resolution of the human eye at a distance of about 31 cm (12 in.) is nearest:

 a. 0.03 mm (0.001 in.)

 b. 0.08 mm (0.003 in.)

 c. 0.3 mm (0.010 in.)

 d. 1.3 mm (0.050 in.)

110.

For routine direct visual inspection, the eye should be located at a distance:

 a. between 15 and 152 cm (6 and 60 in.)

 b. less than 25 cm (10 in.)

 c. between 31 and 60 cm (12 and 24 in.)

 d. more than 60 cm (24 in.)

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In this Practice Test we are covering all the technique questions with answers given in the list below:

General Applications of Various NDT Methods:

• Acoustic Emission Testing (AE) Level III
• Electromagnetic Testing (ET) Level III
• Leak Testing (LT) Level III
• Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT) Level III
• Magnetic Particle Testing (MT) Level III
• Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR) Level III
• Radiographic Testing (RT) Level III
• TherrnallInfrared Testing (IR) Level III
• Ultrasonic Testing (UT) Level III
• Vibration Analysis Testing (VA) Level III
• Visual Testing (VT) Level III

Materials and Processes for NDT Technology:

• Relation of NDT to Manufacturing
• Introduction to Manufacturing Technology
• Properties of Materials
• The Nature of Materials and Solid State Changes in Metals
• Ferrous Metals
• Nonferrous Metals and Plastics
• The Nature of Manufacturing
• The Casting Process
• The Welding Process
• Welding Processes and Design
• Plastic Flow
• Millwork, Forging, and Powder Metallurgy
• Press working of Sheet Metal
• Machining Fundamentals
• Miscellaneous Processes
• Surface Finishing
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