Top 68 Latest ASME B 31.3 Exam Questions and Answers

Top Most Important 68 Latest ASME B 31.3 Exam Questions and Answers

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1. What is the minimum wall schedule that can be used in a male threaded joint in normal fluid servicif22e, carbon steel (notch-sensitive) and NPS 1.5 a nd smaller?

a. Sch 10
b. Sch 40
c. Sch 80
d. Sch 160

2. What is an example of a straight-threaded joint?

a. Threads (male) of threaded piping
b. Threads (female) on a threaded valve
c. An union comprising male and female ends joined with a threaded union nut
d. A joint used in instrument tubing

3. Determine the linear expansion (in/100ft) of a carbon steel pipe between 70°F. and 450°F.

a. 3.04” per 100 ft
b. 3.39” per 100 ft
c. 2.93” per 100 ft
d. 3.16” per 100 ft

4. A 20’ long carbon steel pipe is heated uniformly to 450°F from 70°F. Determine its length after heating.

a. 20.052’
b. 20.263’
c. 20.210’
d. 20.250’

5. If 4 materials, carbon steel, 18Chr-8Ni, Monel, Aluminium are heated from 70°F. to 550°F.which one will expand more?

a. 18 Chr-8Ni
b. Monel
c. Aluminium
d. Carbon Steel

6. What is the modulus of elasticity of carbon steel material (carbon content ≤ 0.3) at 700°F?

a. 25,500,000 psi
b. 25,300,000 psi
c. 26,700,000 psi
d. 29,500,000 psi

7. Poisson’s ratio may be taken as ________ at all temperatures for all metals.

a. 0.30
b. 0.31
c. 0.32
d. 0.33

8. Stop valves are allowed on the inlet and outlet side of a pressure-relieving device, provided:

a. The valves are approved by the jurisdiction
b. They are approved by the inspector
c. They can be locked or sealed in both the open and closed position
d. The valves are non-rising stem valves

9. For a liquid thermal expansion relief device which protects only a blocked-in portion of a piping system, the set pressure shall not exceed the lesser of the system test pressure or _________% of design pressure.

a. 105
b. 110
c. 115
d. 120

10. An ASTM A53 Grade B pipe with a maximum wall thickness of 0.75” is being considered for use in a cold service. What minimum temperature can it be used and not have an impact test?

a. +20°F
b. +15°F
c. +10°F
d. 0°F

11. Each set of impact test specimens shall consist of __________ specimen bars.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

12. A carbon steel ASTM A 53 Grade B material is being impact tested. What is the minimum energy requirement for this material (average for 3 specimens-fully deoxidized steel)?

a. 7 ft-lbs
b. 10 ft-lbs
c. 13 ft-lbs
d. 15 ft-lbs

13. A thicker wall pipe is joined to a thinner wall pipe. The thicker pipe is taper bored to facilitate the fit up. What is the maximum slope of the taper bore?

a. 15 degrees
b. 20 degrees
c. 25 degrees
d. 30 degrees

14. A NPS 2 schedule 80 (0.218” wall) is welded into a NPS 6 Schedule 40 (0.0.280” wall) header. What size cover fillet weld (tc) is required around the fully penetrated groove weld of the branch into the header? (Express answer to nearest hundredth)

a. 0.15”
b. 0.20
c. 0.22”
d. 0.25”

15. An NPS 8 schedule A NPS 8 Schedule 40 (0.322” wall), ASTM A 106 Grade B, is to be welded. The weather is clear. The sun is shining. The temperature is 30°F. What preheat temperature, if any, is required.

a. None
b. 25°F
c. 50°F
d. 175°F

16. The zone for preheat shall extend:

a. At least ½” beyond each edge of the weld
b. At least 1” beyond each edge of the weld
c. Over only the weld itself
d. At a minimum 2” each side of the weld

17. An ASME A 106 Grade B, NPS 8, Schedule 40 (0.322” wall) pipe is to be welded to an ASME A335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 40 (0.322” wall) pipe. What preheat temperature is required?

a. 50°F
b. 175°F
c. 300°F
d. 350°F

18. When components of a piping system are joined by welding, the thickness to be used in applying the heat treatment provisions of ASME B 31.3, Table 331.1.1 shall be:

a. That of the thinner component measured at the joint, except for certain exclusions.
b. That of the thicker component measured at the joint, except for certain exclusions.
c. That of the average thickness of the two components, except for certain exclusions.
d. That of the thinner component measured in the thinner pipe except exclusions.

19. An NPS 4 Schedule 40 (0.237” wall) branch connection is welded into a NPS 6 Schedule 40 (0.0.280” wall) header. A ¼” reinforcing pad is used around the branch connection. The branch connection is inserted into the header. The material of the branch and the header is ASTM A 106 Grade B. What thickness would be used to determine whether heat treatment of this connection is required? (Express answer to nearest hundredth.)

a. 0.80”
b. 0.77”
c. 0.70”
d. 0.60”

20. An ASME A335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 40(0.322” wall) pipe is to be welded to an ASME A335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 40 (0.322” wall) pipe. What Brinnell Hardness is required after post weld heat treatment?

a. 200
b. 225
c. 241
d. 250

21. Where a hardness limit is specified in Table 331.1.1, at least _______% of welds, hot bends, and hot formed components in each furnace heat treated batch and 100% of those locally heat treated shall be tested.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

22. An ASME A335 Grade P11, NPS 8, Schedule 120 (0.718” wall) pipe is to be welded to an ASME A 335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 80 (0.500” wall ) pipe. What Brinnell Hardness number is required after post weld heat treatment?

a. The Grade P11 material is the controls; thus, the Bhn number must be ≤ 225.
b. The average of both material must give a Bhn number of ≤ 233.
c. The grade P9 material only requires checking; its Bhn number must be ≤ 241.
d. The grade P11 material must be ≤225 and the Grade p9 material must be ≤ 241.

23. Flattening of a bend, the difference between maximum and minimum diameters at any cross section, shall not exceed_________ % on nominal outside diameter for internal pressure.

a. 5
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12

24. Flattening of a bend, the difference between maximum and minimum diameters at any cross section, shall not exceed_________ % on nominal outside diameter for internal pressure.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 8

25. While assembling a piping system it is required to pull two pieces into alignment. This distorts one of the pieces (puts a bend into one of the pipe sections. The assembly is in a strain that the inspector feels is detrimental to the equipment. What action should the inspector take?

a. Since any distortion that introduces a strain is prohibited, the detail(s) should be removed and the problem corrected.
b. Since the pipe details fit up and there appears to be no problem, the system my be tested and if no leaks the Inspector can accept it.
c. As long as the system will fit together and the flanges and other connections will make connection, the Inspector may accept it.
d. If the system will not make connection the Inspector should require the problem to be corrected; however, if it connects without leaks, the Inspector may accept it.

26. Before bolting up flanged joints, the Inspector should check alignment to the design plane. It should be within ______in / ft or ______% measured across any diameter.

a. 1/16, 0.5%
b. 1/8, 0.05%
c. 1/32, 0.05%
d. 1/64, 0.5%

27. Before bolting up flanged joints, the Inspector should check alignment of the flange bolt holes. They shall be aligned within ______ inch maximum offset.

a. 1/32
b. 1/16
c. 1/8
d. 9/64

28. An Inspector, checking bolts on flanges, finds 3 bolts in a NPS 6, 300# class flange that will not meet ASME B31.3 bolt length specification.What did he find?

a. The bolt only extended from the nut by ¼”
b. The lack of engagement was 2 threads.
c. The lack of engagement was 1 thread
d. The bolt only extended from the nut by 3/8”

29. You find a flanged joint with two fibre gaskets used to make up the joint. What is the correct course of action for an Inspector?

a. Remove the gaskets and replace them with two spiral wound grafoil filled gaskets
b. The joint is acceptable as is because the gaskets are fibre.
c. Two gaskets are unacceptable; have the joint repaired to take only one gasket
d. Remove the gaskets and replace them with two wrapper with grafoil tape

30. An Inspector finds incomplete penetration in a radiograph of a girth weld of normal fluid service piping. What can he accept or can he accept any incomplete penetration?

a. If the incomplete penetration is 1/16” or less (or ≤ 0.2T w) deep, he may accept.
b. If the incomplete penetration is 1/32” or less (and ≤ 0.2T w) deep, he may accept
c. He may not accept the incomplete penetration
d. If the incomplete penetration is 1/32” or less (or ≤ Tw) deep, he may accept

31. When spot or random examination reveals a defect, what should the Inspector do?

a. Take one additional sample of the same kind used for the first examination. If it is acceptable, repair or replace the original defect and accept the job.
b. Take two additional samples of the same kind used for the first examination. If they are acceptable, repair or replace the original defect and accept the job.
c. Take two additional samples using a different inspection technique. If this is acceptable, repair or replace the original defect and accept the job.
d. Take 4 additional samples of the same kind used for the first examination. If they are acceptable, repair or replace the original defect and accept the job.

32. Prior to a hydrostatic test, a piping system may be subject to a preliminary test using air at no more than ______ psi gage to locate major leaks.

a. 45
b. 35
c. 25
d. 15

33. What is the minimum time that a leak test must be maintained (all joints and connections shall be examined for leaks)?

a. 60 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 10 minutes

34. A NPS 10 ASTM A335 Grade P9 pipe was installed. It had to be changed by adding an NPS 6 ASTM A335 Grade P9 branch connection. The weld(s) were post weld heattreated. When should this section of piping be leak tested or should it be leak tested?

a. before and after the heat treatment
b. before the heat treatment
c. after the heat treatment
d. no test is required

35. If a non-toxic flammable liquid is used as a leak-testing medium, it must have:

a. At least a flash point of 1200F
b. A boiling point of 1500F
c. A vapour point of 1000F
d. A staybolt viscosity of 120 at 1220F

36. Where the design temperature of the system is the same as the hydrostatic test temperature, the hydrostatic test pressure shall be not less than:

a. That calculated according to B31.3
b. 1.1 times the design pressure
c. 1.25 times the operating pressure
d. 1.5 times the design pressure

37. Calculate the hydrostatic leak test at 700F. required for a piping system with NPS 6 ASTM A 106 Grade B pipe that operates at a maximum of 6000F and 400 psi. Round to the nearest psi.

a. 500 psi
b. 600 psi
c. 694 psi
d. 440 psi

38. Where the test pressure of piping exceeds the a vessels test pressure, and it is not considered practicable to isolate the piping from a vessel, the piping and the vessel may be tested together at the vessel test pressure, provided the owner approves and the vessel test pressure is not less than _______% of the piping test pressure calculated by ASME B31.3, paragraph 345.4.2 (b).

a. 67
b. 77
c. 85
d. 110

39. If a pneumatic leak test is used, the test pressure shall be __________% of design pressure.

a. 50
b. 150
c. 125
d. 110

40. If it becomes necessary to use a “Sensitive Leak Test” method, the test pressure shall be at least the lesser of _______psi or ________% of the design pressure.

a. 10,33
b. 15,25
c. 17,23
d. 20,20

41. Unless otherwise specified by the engineering design, the following records shall be retained for at least _____ years after the record is generated for the project: examination procedures, and examination personnel qualifications.

a. 10
b. 8
c. 5
d. 2

42. What is the longitudinal weld joint factor, Ej, for API 5L ERW (Electric Resistance Welded) pipe?

a. 1.00
b. 0.95
c. 0.85
d. 0.60

43. What is the casting quality factor, Ec, of a A216 carbon steel casting that is not upgraded per B31.3 paragraph 302.3.3 © and Table 302.3.3 ©?

a. 0.85
b. 0.80
c. 0.75
d. 0.60

44. A carbon steel pipe has ≤ 0.3% carbon in it. What is its Modulus of Elasticity at 4000F?

a. 30,000,000 psi
b. 31,900,000 psi
c. 29,000,000 psi
d. 27,700,000 psi

45. Double welded slip-on flanges should be _______ between the welds for fluid services that require leak testing of the inner fillet weld, or when fluid handled can diffuse into the enclosed space, resulting in possible failure.

a. sanded
b. machined
c. scored
d. vented

46. If a relief valve has a stop valve at the inlet or outlet. Is it permissible to close either or both these valves while the equipment the relief valve is protecting is in service.

a. It is not permissible to block off a relief valve while the equipment it is protecting is in operations.
b. It is permissible if an authorized person is present and this person can relieve the pressure by another means.
c. It is permissible to block off a relief valve while the equipment it is protecting is in a reduced operating mode, i.e. the operating pressure and/or temperature is reduced.
d. It is permissible to block off a relief valve only when the equipment it is protecting is not in operations.

47. Why would you not use cast iron material in the majority of cases in oil refinery or chemical plant applications?

a. The possibility of embrittlement when handling strong caustic solutions.
b. Its lack of ductility and its sensitivity to thermal and mechanical shock restricts its use.
c. The possibility of stress corrosion cracking when exposed to acids or wet H2S.
d. The possibility of stress corrosion cracking if exposed to chlorides in H2O>50 ppm.

48. If you expose copper and copper alloys to ammonia, what would this possibly cause?

a. embrittlement
b. stress corrosion cracking
c. hydrogen attack
d. sulphidation

49. You have a fluid that does not operate at high pressure. The fluid is not toxic. The fluid is not flammable. Exposure to the fluid will not cause damage to human tissue. The design gage pressure is 120 psi and the operating temperature is 1000F. The owner requires metal piping to be used and he does not designate the category. No cyclic problems will occur. What category fluid service would you design?

a. Normal fluid service
b. Category D fluid service
c. Category M fluid service
d. High pressure fluid service

50. In elevated temperature service any condition of pressure and temperature under which the design conditions are not exceeded is known as the:

a. Operating conditions
b. Design condition
c. Extent of the excursions
d. Service life

51. In elevated temperature service a condition under which pressure or temperature or both, exceed the design conditions is known as:

a. A design condition
b. An operating condition
c. An excursion
d. A duration

52. In elevated temperature service a condition under which pressure or temperature or both, exceed the design conditions is known as:

a. Estimated life
b. Service life
c. Equivalent life
d. Excursion life

53. The Inspector finds that ERW (electric resistance weld) pipe is used in a piping system. What longitudinal joint factor (Ej) would be used to calculate the required thickness for pressure?

a. 0.85
b. 0.60
c. 0.80
d. 0.90

54. The joint factor cannot be increased by additional examination on which of the following longitudinal pipe joint:

a. Electric fusion weld, single butt weld, straight or spiral, without filler metal
b. Electric fusion weld, double butt weld, straight or spiral
c. Electric fusing weld, single butt weld, straight or spiral with filler metal
d. Electric resistance weld, straight or spiral

55. A NPS 10 pipe made from ASTM A106 Grade B carbon steel is to be checked for minimum thickness ™. The pipe operated at 900°F. The existing thickness is 0.29”. Determine the coefficient Y.

a. 0.4
b. 0.5
c. 0.6
d. 0.7

56. A NPS 10 pipe made from ASTM A53 Grade B carbon steel is to be checked for thickness (t). The pipe operates at 975°F. The existing thickness is .29”. Determine the coefficient Y.

a. 0.4
b. 0.5
c. 0.6
d. 0.7

57. “S” is defined as the stress value for material from Table A-1 of ASME B31.3. Pick the value of “S” when the material is ASTM A335 Grade P9 and the temperature is 950°F.

a. 11400 psi
b. 10600 psi
c. 7400 psi
d. 20000 psi

58. An NPS 12 seamless pipe made from ASTM A53 Grade B material operates at 600 psi and 600°F. Calculate the pressure design thickness for these conditions.

a. 0.218”
b. 0.442”
c. 0.205”
d. 0.191”

59. An NPS 12 (12.75” o.d.) seamless pipe made from ASTM A-53 Grade B material operates at 600 psi and 600°F. The conditions require that a corrosion allowance of 0.125” be maintained. Calculate the minimum required thickness for these conditions.

a. 0.218”
b. 0.346”
c. 0.330”
d. 0.436”

60. An NPS 4 (4.5” o.d.) seamless pipe made from ASTM A-106 Grade A material operates at 300 psi and 400°F. The pipe must cross a small ditch and it must be capable of supporting itself without any visible sag. A piping Engineer states that the pipe must be at least 0.25” thick just to support itself and the liquid product. He also states that a 0.10” corrosion allowance must be included. Calculate the thickness required for the pipe.

a. 0.292”
b. 0.392”
c. 0.350”
d. 0.142”

61. A blank is required between two NPS 8,150 pound class flanges. The maximum pressure in the system is 285 psi at 100°F. A corrosion allowance of 0.10” is required. The inside diameter of the gasket surface is 8.25”. The blank is ASTM A-285 Grade C material. Calculate the thickness required for the blank.

a. 0.545”
b. 0.584”
c. 0.530”
d. 0.552”

62. Which of the below may only be used for category D fluid service?

a. ASTM A-333 Grade 6
b. API 5L Grade X46
c. ASTM A-106 Grade B
d. ASTM A-53 Grade F

63. What is the minimum thickness of a blank that is made from A516-60 material (seamless) and is 17.375” I.D.? The pressure is 630 psi at 600°F. Corrosive product will be on both sides of the blank, and the specified corrosion allowance is 1/8”.

a. 1.5”
b. 1.627”
c. 1.752”
d. 2.067”

64. Per B31.3, a piping designer must have _______ years of experience if she has a bachelor’s degree in engineering?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. Not specified

65. Using the given formula, calculate the design pressure of a 0.397” replacement pipe (measured thickness) with the following information:
i. Material: A672 B70 Class 13
ii. Pressure and temperature: 753 psi @ 300°F
iii. Diameter: NPS 16
iv. Corrosion allowance: 1/16”
P = ( )D 2SE t − c

a. 1000 psi
b. 949 psi
c. 942 psi
d. 800 psi

66. What is the design pressure allowed on a replacement A-135-A ERW pipe that is NPS 6 (6.625”), and is installed in a system operating at 7000F? The pipe is Sch.80, and the engineering specifications require a 1/16” erosion allowance to be maintained. P = ( )D2SE t − c

a. 1596 psi
b. 1167 psi
c. 1367 psi
d. 1800 psi

67. What schedule of seamless pipe will be required if a seamless replacement piece is ordered for a piping circuit with the following conditions:

i. Material : A-106 Grade B
ii. Pressure and temperature: 770 psi @ 800°F
iii. Diameter: NPS 18
iv. Corrosion allowance: 1/8”

a. Sch. 40
b. Sch. 60
c. Sch. 80
d. Sch. 140

68. An A 381 Y 35 pipe is 1.0” thick and is installed in a system operating at 150 psi. A replacement pipe will be ordered, and will be the same material (not normalized or quenched/tempered). If the design minimum temperature is 400°F and the nominal pressure stress is 10,000 psi, what temperature can this material be operated at without impact testing?

a. +80F
b. -80F
c. 680F
d. 200F

ASME B 31.3 Questions and Answers

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1. The requirements of the latest edition of ASME Code Section B 31.3 and any subsequent Addenda:

A. Must be followed explicitly as soon as the latest edition is issued.
B. Are retroactive and all piping installed per earlier must be upgraded.
C. Are not retroactive & all piping installed per earlier additions need not be upgraded
D. Maybe used without regard. to the acceptability of Code revisions to the jurisdictions.

2. Clauses in the B 31 code are not necessarily numbered consecutively. Such discontinuities result from:

A. The age of the code and the number of changes that has been made.
B. Following a common outline, in so far as practical for all Code Sections
C. No particular logic was followed in the original versions of the Code.
D. Practices followed by all codes to make them difficult to reproduce.

3. Who has the responsibility of determining which Code Section is applicable to piping installations, i.e. B31.1, B31.3 etc?

A. Owner
B. Inspector
C. Jurisdiction
D. Engineer

4. Who has the overall responsibility for compliance with ASME B31.3?

A. Inspector
B. Owner
C. Engineer
D. Jurisdiction

5. The intent of ASME B 31.3 is to set forth engineering requirements deemed necessary for __________ and __________ of piping installations.

A. Structural design, fabrication
B. Safe design, construction
C. Adequate fabrication, execution
D. Permanent existence, iongetivity

6. ASME Code is not intended to apply to piping:

A. In the chemical Industry
B. That has been placed in service
C. In the agronomy industry
D. In the space industry

7. Compatibility of materials with the service and hazards from instability of contained fluids:

A. Is covered extensively by ASME B 31.3
B. Are not within the scope of ASME B31.3
C. Is addressed on a limited basis by ASME B31.3
D. Is the main scope of ASME 831.3

8. ASME B31.3 applies to piping for all fluids except for which of the below?

A. Tubes of fired heaters, plumbing and storm sewers
B. Raw, intermediate and finished chemicals
C. Petroleum products, fluidized solids and refrigerants
D. Gas, steam, air, and water

9. A pre-placed filter metal which is completely fused into the roof of a welded joint and becomes part of the weld is called:

A. A depleted appendage
B. A pre-placed ligament
C. A consumable insert
D. A caulked joint

10. Define “face of weld”

A. It is longitudinal view of a weld that has been split down the middle for inspection.
B. It is the elevation view of a weld that has been cut out to show its cross section.
C. It is the concealed weld surface on the side opposite from which the welding was done.
D. It is the exposed surface of a weld on the side from which the welding was done.

11. Fluid service that is non-flammable, nontoxic, and not damaging to human tissue and its gauge pressure does not exceed 150 psi and the design temperature is form 20 degrees through 366 degrees F is known as a category ________ fluid.

A. D
B. C
C. M
D. N

12. A fluid service in which the potential for personnel exposure is judged to be significant and in which a single exposure to a very small quantity of a toxic fluid, caused, by leakage, can produce serious irreversible harm to persons on breatng or bodily contact, even when prompt restorative measures are taken is known as a category ______ fluid.

A. D
B. M
C. H
D. N

13. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the thinner member joined is called,

A. A butt fillet weld
B. A longitudinal fillet weld
C. A full fillet weld
D. A fillet weld without backing

14. The heating of metal to and holding at a suitable temperature and then cooling at a suitable rate for such purposes as; reducing hardness, improving machinability, facilitating cold working, producing a desired mechanical, physical, or other properties known as:

A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Quenching
D. Stress- relieving

15. Piping joint that for the purpose of mechanical strength or-leak resistance, or both, in which the mechanical strength is developed by threaded, grooved, rolled, flared, or flanged pipe ends; or by bolts, pins, toggles, or rings; and the leak resistance is developed by threads and compounds, gaskets, rolled ends, caulking, or machined and mated surfaces is known as

A. Bonded joint
B. Mechanical joint
C. fused joint
D. juke joint

16. The term NPS 6 refers to:

A. A pipe which outside diameter is 6.625”
B. A pipe which outside diameter is 6”
C. A pipe which radius is 6”
D. A tube which inside diameter is 6”

17. A pipe produced by piercing a billet followed by rolling or drawing, or both is a:

A. Electric fusion welded pipe
B. Spiral welded pipe
C. Seamless pipe
D. ERW pipe

18. What is the “root opening”?

A. It is the gaps between flanges left to facilitate the installation of gaskets.
B. It is the division between different rods accounting for different metallurgy.
C. It is the separation between members to be joined by welding, at the root of the joint
D. It is the conjunction of members joined by bonding at the face of the joint.

19. A weld intended primarily to provide joint tightness against leakage in metallic piping is known as a:

A. Fillet weld
B. Fissure weld
C. Seal weld
D. Caulking weld

20. A weld made to hold parts of weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made is known as a:

A. Face weld
B. Fissure weld
C. Seal weld
D. Tack weld

21. The junction between the face of a weld and the base metal is known:

A. Root of the weld
B. Face of the weld
C. Toe of the weld
D. Throat of the weld

22. The pressure in a piping system that is the pressure at the most severe conditions of coincident internal or external pressure and temperature (minimum or maximum) expected during service (except for allowances for occasional variations of pressure or temperature, or both, above operating levels which are characteristics of certain services) is known as:

A. Excursion pressure
B. Test Pressure
C. Design pressure
D. Absolute pressure

23. Piping not protected by a pressure relieving device, or that can be isolated from a pressure relieving device, shall be designed for at least the:

A. Usual pressure that is developed
B. Median pressure that is developed
C. Average pressure that can be developed
D. Highest pressure that can be developed

24. What might happen to a piping system that has a gas or vapour in it (like steam) and it is allowed to cool significantly?

A. Nothing will happen
B. The gas or vapour will form a liquid which will not affect the piping system
C. The pressure in the piping system may reduced sufficiently to create an internal vacuum
D. The pressure in the piping system may increase and create an over pressure

25. What happens to a piping system with fluids in it and the fluid are heated with the system blocked?

A. The internal pressure will decrease
B. The internal pressure will increase
C. There will be no change in the system
D. The external pressure will increase

26. _________ caused by external or internal conditions (including changes in flow rate, hydraulic shock, liquid or solid slugging, flashing, and geysering) shall be taken into account in the design of piping

A. Virtual kinetics
B. Abnormal potential
C. Normal dynamism
D. Impact forces

27. Loads on a piping system that include the weight of the medium transported or the medium used for test and snow loads ore ice loads are examples of _________ loads.

A. Dead
B. Live
C. Normal
D. Vortex

28. What can be caused by low operating temperatures, including the chilling effect of sudden loss of pressure on highly volatile fluids, or in alloy piping the failure to properly post weld heat treat after welding?

A. Thermal restraint effect
B. Loss of ductility or reduced ductility
C. Increase in plasticity or deformation
D. Increase in toughness strength

29. Fillet welds may vary from convex to concave. The size of a fillet weld is based on the theoretical throat, which is _________ × the length.

A. 0.707
B. 0.770
C. 1.414
D. 0.500

30. In spot radiography of circumferential butt welds, it is recommended that not less than one shot fro each _________ welds for each welder/operator be completed.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30

31. If a requirement is specified in the engineer design, but is not a code requirement, ASME B31.3 states that the requirement

A. May be ignored
B. May be optionally applied
C. Shall be implemented only if the inspector required it
D. Shall be considered a Code requirement

32. In the question tm = 5 + c, pick the correct definition of the value “t”.

A. Minimum required thickness, including mechanical & erosion allowances.
B. Pressure design thickness, as calculated for internal pressure.
C. Pipe wall thickness (measured or minimum per purchase specification.
D. Minimum design temperature of the pipe

33. When the services erosive, if there is crevice corrosion present, or if cyclic loading occur, slip-on flanges shall:

A. Be bolted together with double nutted machine bolts
B. Be bolted together with machine bolts
C. Not to be used
D. Be double welded

34. The use of slip-on flanges should be __________ where many large temperature cycles are expected particularly if the flanges are not insulated

A. Called for
B. Encouraged
C. Avoided
D. The first choice

35. Severe cyclic conditions require the use of:

A. Slip – on flanges
B. Welding neck flanges
C. Socket weld flanges
D. Lap joint flanges

36. Bolting having not more than _______ ksi specified minimum yield strength shall not be used for flanged joints rated ASME B16.6 Class 400 and higher

A. 35
B. 30
C. 45
D. 40

37. Tapped holes for pressure retaining bolting in metallic piping components shall be of sufficient depth that the thread engagement will be at least ________ time the normal thread diameter

A. 718
B. 314
C. 518
D. 112

38. What type backing rings shall not be used under severe cyclic conditions?

A. Continuous backing rings
B. Split backing rings
C. Slip – on backing rings
D. Consumable backing rings

39. Socket welded joints should be avoided in any service where _______ or ______ occur.

A. Crevice corrosion, severe erosion
B. Graphitic corrosion, continual fretting
C. Plut type dezincification, severe carburisation
D. Hydrogen attack, sensitisation

40. Socket welds larger than NPS , shall not be used under severe cyclic conditions.

A. ¾
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2

41. Which of the listed items is NOT a location where fillet welds are permissible?

A. Weld of socket weld flange
B. Attach a weld neck flange
C. Weld of a slip – on flange
D. Attach a nozzle reinforcement pad

42. What type of weld is considered to furnish no strength and is only used to prevent leakage of threaded joints?

A. Tack weld
B. Seal weld
C. Fillet weld
D. Built weld

43. Where flanges of different ratings are bolted together:

A. The rating of the joint shall not exceed that of the higher rated flange.
B. They are not acceptable and one flange shall be changed where they both match.
C. The rating of the joint shall not exceed that of the lower rated flange.
D. The bolt diameter must be 118° less than that required for the lower rated flange

44. Where a metallic flange is bolted to a nonmetallic flange.

A. A ring joint type gasket is preferred
B. A spiral wound grafoil filled gasket is preferred
C. A Full faced gasket is preferred
D. A Grayloc type gasket is preferred

45. What type of joint should not be used under severe cyclic conditions?

A. Welded joints
B. expanded joints
C. flanged joints
D. lap joints

46. Threaded joints should be avoided in any service where:

A. Crevice corrosion, severe erosion, or cyclic loading may occur
B. Graphitic corrosion, biological corrosion or static loadings may occur
C. Graphitisation, sensitisations, or longitudinal loadings may occur
D. Dezincification, hydrolysis, or hoop stress loadings may occur

47. An inspector is checking threaded joints prior to seal welding them. What is an important item to check?

A. Check and make sure all gasket surfaces are covered
B. Make sure that thread sealing compound has not been used
C. Check the longitudinal loading of the joint
D. Make sure that the consumable insert to be used is made from the correct material

48. The intentional deformation of piping during assembly to produce a desired initial displacement and stress is known as:

A. hot spring
B. cold spring
C. post stress
D. displacement

49. When fitting up a socket weld joint, the made end is welded in the female socket with:

A. An approximate 1/32” gap at the base of the joint
B. No gap left at the base of the joint
C. An approximate 1/16” gap at the base of the joint
D. An approximate 1/8” gap at the base of the joint

50. A weld defect to be repaired shall be removed:

A. To the satisfaction of the pipe fitter
B. To apparently good material
C. Until the defect can no longer be seen
D. To sound metal

51. What is acceptable as an alternate heat treatment for B31.3 piping?

A. Synthesizing, forging or standardizing
B. Pre-heating, peening, or case hardening
C. Stress relieving, tempering or peening
D. Normalizing, normalizing and tempering or annealing

52. When an entire piping assembly to be heat treated cannot be fitted into the furnace, it is permissible to heat treat in more than one heat, provided there is at least ______ overlap between successive heats, and that parts of the assembly outside the furnace are protected from harmful temperature gradients

A. 6 inches
B. 1 foot
C. 2 feet
D. 3 feet

53. According to B31.3 inspection applies to functions performed:

A. By third party inspector or their delegates
B. By the owner’s inspector or the inspector’s delegates
C. By a jurisdictional inspector or their delegates
D. By an ASME inspector or their delegates

54. Who is responsible for verifying that all required examinations and testing have been completed and to inspect the piping to the extent necessary to be satisfied that it conforms to all applicable examination requirements of the ASME B31.3 Code and of the engineering design?

A. It is the owner’s responsibility, exercised through his inspector
B. It is the API Examiner’s responsibility
C. It is the jurisdiction’s inspector’s responsibility
D. It is the ASME inspector’s responsibility

55. According to ASME B31.3 how much experience in the design, fabrication, or inspection of industrial pressure piping must a Piping inspector have?

A. 10 years
B. 8 years
C. 6 years
D. 5 years

56. Prior to initial operation each piping installation, including components and workmanship shall be examined in accordance with ASME B31.3, paragraph 341. When should examination of P-Numbers 3, 4 and 5 materials be carried out?

A. Examination shall be performed prior to any heat treatment
B. Examination shall be performed before and after heat treatment
C. Examination shall be performed after completion of any heat treatment
D. Examination shall be performed on at least 5% of the fabrication after heat treatment

57. For normal fluid service, how much of the piping welds (circumferential and mitre groove welds)

A. 3%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. 33%

58. VT, MY, PT, UT and RT shall be performed as specified in the:

A. ASME BPV Code, Section V
B. ASME BPV Code, Section IX
C. ASME BPV Code, Section VIII
D. ASME BPV Code, Section I

59. The extent of radiography when considering longitudinal welds, the minimum requirement is inches of weld length

A. 12
B. 9
C. 6
D. 4

60. Which of the following examinations is NOT considered as in- process examination?

A. Examination of joint preparation and cleanliness
B. Examination of appearance of the finished joint
C. Examination of material for toughness
D. All of the above

61. What method o in-process examination is used unless additional methods are specified in the engineering design?

A. MT
B. RT
C. UT
D. VT

62. What is the only category fluid service that may be subject to an initial in-service leak test?

A. Category M
B. Category D
C. Category N
D. Category H

ASME B16.5 Practice Questions and Answers

Take A Free Practice Test With- Top 32 Latest ASME B16.5 Practice Questions and Answers (Closed Book)

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1. ASME B 16.5 does not cover:

a. Class 150 flanges
b. Class 300 flanged fittings
c. Butt welded pipe caps 
d. All of the above

2. The maximum hydrostatic test pressure permitted for a flange in a system hydrostatic test is:

a. Not required
b. Conducted at 1.5 x class rating @100°F 
c. Conducted at 25 psi above class rating
d. Required only for welded flanges

3. “High strength” bolting is described as equivalent to:

a. ASTM A 193 B5
b. ASTM A 193 B7 
c. ASTM 320 GR8
d. Any high carbon steel bolt

4. The pressure class ratings covered by ASME B16.5 are:

a. 150, 300, 400, 600, 900, 1500, 2500 
b. 150, 300, 400, 450,600,900,1500
c. 125, 150, 300, 400, 600, 900, 1500, 2500
d. 150, 300, 400, 600, 700, 900, 1000, 1500

5. The standard finish for raised face flanges per ASME B16.5 is:

a. 250 µ to 500 µ / inch
b. 125 µ to 250 µ / inch 
c. 260 mm to 500 mm / inch
d. 250 µ / mm to 500 µ / mm

6. Socket weld and threaded flanges are not recommended for service beyond the following temperatures if thermal cycles are involved:

a. –20 – 650°F
b. –30 – 600° F
c. –50 – 500°F 
d. –50 – 500°C

7. “Low strength bolting” is:

a. ≤ 30 KSI yield strength 
b. ≥ 30 KSI yield strength
c. ≥ 30 KSI tensile strength
d. ≥ 100 KSI yield strength

8. Ring joint sidewall surfaces (gasket groove) must not exceed __________roughness.

a. 50 µ / in
b. 63 µ / in 
c. 100 µ/in
d. 63 mm / in

9. Which of the following items must be marked on all flanges or flanged fittings?

a. Temperature
b. Actual working pressure
c. ASTM material specification 
d. Hydrotest pressure

10. When used above ________ °F, class 150 flanges may develop leakage unless special precautions are taken regarding loads or thermal gradients.

a. 150
b. 300
c. 600
d. 400 

11. The three basic parts to a flanged joint are:

a. Flanges, welds, gaskets
b. Flanges, bolts, nuts
c. Flanges, bolts, gaskets
d. Flanges, gaskets, threads

12. Class 600 flanged joints may develop leakage, unless special considerations for thermal gradients are applied at temperatures above ________°F.

a. 600
b. 800
c. 950
d. 750 

13. A Class 400 flanged fitting must be hydrotested at what pressure, if the 100°F rating is 800 psig?

a. 1020 psig
b. 1200 psig 
c. 1225 psig
d. Not required per ASME B 16.5

14. The maximum temperature for hydro testing a fitting is:

a. 120F 
b. 1250C
c. Per Construction Code requirements
d. Per Owner / User system requirements

15. The minimum duration for hydro testing on NPS 12 fitting shall be:

a. 2 min
b. 1 min
c. 3 min 
d. No requirements to test fittings

16. The maximum depth and radial projection of an imperfection (deeper than the bottom of the serration) on a NPS 14 raised face flange is:

a. 0.31”
b. 0.018”
c. 0.18” 
d. 0.25”

17. On an NPS 24, 600 Class flange, the thickness of the flange (minimum) is:

a. 4 ½”
b. 3.00”
c. 6.0”
d. 4.0” 

18. The allowable pressure (in psig) on a 100°F, Class 150 8” flange made from A182 Grade F2 material is:

a. 170
b. 290
c. 300
d. 400

19. If a Class 1500 flange is to be made from A-182 F347 stainless steel and will be used at 280 psig with a carbon content of 0.09%, at what maximum temperature can this flange be used?

a. 1000°F
b. 1300°F 
c. 1180°F
d. 2000°F

20. What is the minimum wall thickness of a Class 900 fitting that is NPS 16?

a. 1.56” 
b. 2.6”
c. 3.2”
d. 4.1”

21. What is the rated working pressure of a flanged fitting that is a 400 Class with a material stress value of 16,200 psi?

a. 1000 psig 
b. 1500 psig
c. 800 psig
d. 740 psig

22. What is the minimum wall thickness of a NPS 5 Class 1500 fitting?

a. 0.091”
b. 0.91” 
c. 1.00”
d. 1.15”

23. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 300 flange that is made from Group 1.10 material?

a. 1125 psig 
b. 450 psig
c. 1000 psig
d. None of the above

24. A local area has been thinned on the wall thickness of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 8 Class 400, and the local area has been thinned to 0.400”. Is this corrosion acceptable per ASME B 16.5?

a. Yes
b. No 
c. Cannot be calculated from information given
d. Wall thicknesses may not be less than that shown in B16.5

25. In question No.9, what is the maximum circular area of sub-minimum thickness allowed, in square inches?

a. 2.75
b. 0.74
c. 1.85
d. 0.431 

26. From problem No.9 and No.10 above, if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on the fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?

a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 8.0”
d. 3.70” 

27. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 600 flange in a flanged joint made from Group 3.5 material?

a. 2250 psi 
b. 1500 psi
c. 1000 psi
d. None of the above

28. A local area has been thinned on the wall of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 12 Class 900, and the local area has been thinned to 0.945”. What is the minimum acceptable thickness for this thinned area per ASME B 16.5?

a. 0.9375” 
b. 1.250”
c. 1.750”
d. Cannot be calculated from information given

29. From the information in Question No.13, what is the maximum circular area of subminimum thickness allowed in square inches?

a. 2.75”
b. 1.33” 
c. 1.85”
d. 0.431”

30. Using the information in questions No.13, 14 , if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on the fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?

a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 6.52” 
d. 4.70”

31. What would be the calculated thickness of a new NPS 14 flanged fitting with a 900 psi class designation?

a. 0.830”
b. 1.28” .
c. 1.112”
d. None of the above

32. A NPS flanged fitting is operating at a temperature of 6500F and has a pressure class rating of 600 psi. Using a stress value of 17,400 psi, what would be the maximum permitted rated working pressure?

a. 2000 psi
b. 1193 psi
c. 1175 psi 
d. 1500 psi

Top 85 Latest ASME Section V Questions and Answers

Top 85 Latest ASME Section V Questions and Answers (Nondestructive Examination)

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Note: Some questions in this section are true/false or essay type questions, instead of multiple choice. Historically, it has been shown that test questions on involve a good deal of theory that cannot adequately be explored through multiple choice questions (although multiple choice questions only will be on the test).

1. A film side penetrameter can be used for:

a. Inaccessible welds (unable to hand place a source penetrameter) 
b. All welds
c. All castings at any time
d. An alternative to a source-side wire pentrameter

2. A dark image of the “B” on a lighter background is:

a. Acceptable
b. Rejectable
c. Sometimes rejectable
d. None of the above

3. One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the processing details for :

a. Post-examination cleaning
b. Pre-examination cleaning
c. Apply the penetrant
d. All of the above 

4. Non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.

a. True
b. False 

5. The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an ammeter shall be verified :

a. Each year 
b. Each two years
c. When possible
d. Every 6 months

6. When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at least ________ minutes prior to performing the examination.

a. 7
b. 10
c. 5 
d. 1

7. A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.

a. True
b. False 

8. Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on:

a. Carbon steels
b. Ferritic stainless steels
c. Austenitic stainless steels 
d. None of the above

9. Black light intensity shall be measured with a _______ when conducting fluorescent PT.

a. Dark room meter
b. Photo-meter
c. Black light meter
d. None of the above

10. The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as radiographic images.

a. True 
b. False

11. D.C. yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?

a. True
b. False 

12. How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?

a. 4
b. 6 
c. 2
d. 1

13. Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least _____ of the area to be examined.

a. 1 
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 3

14. Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60 psi and 1000F.

a. True
b. False 

15. The maximum emulsification time shall be:

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. none of the above 

16. Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a calibrated:

a. Densitometer
b. Step Wedge Comparison Strip
c. Light Meter
d. Transmission monitor

17. When using a hydrophillic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and intermediate step that must be taken is:

a. Pre-flooding with emulisifier
b. Pre-cleaning with solvent
c. Pre-rinsing with water 
d. Pre-washing with detergent

18. A welded part is to be radiographed and is 1” thick, with 1/8” reinforcement. What ASTM wire set IQI should be used on these radiographs if a source side technique is used:

a. Set A
b. Set B 
c. Set C
d. Set D

19. When a PT test cannot be conducted between 500-1250F, what must be done, per ASME V?

a. The procedure must be qualified
b. The surface must be re-cleaned
c. The test cannot be conducted
d. None of the above

20. All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with:

a. ASME VIII
b. ASME V
c. The referencing Code section 
d. The written procedure

21. The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes:

a. NDE acceptance crtieria
b. How to perform NDE to achieve a desired result .
c. Where to do NDE (i.e. what welds to examine )
d. Who can be the Authorised inspector.

22. UT equipment is calibrated?

a. Before heat-treatment
b. After completing the examination
c. Prior to visual examination
d. Prior to UT examination .

23. A penetrameter is used on a DWE/DWV. The penetrameter selection is based on:

a. The single wall thickness and weld reinforcement.
b. Both wall thicknesses
c. The single wall thickness for Sch 80 pipe
d. None of the above

24. A suitable means for applying penetrant.

a. Dipping
b. Brushing
c. Spraying
d. Any or all of the above .

25. What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants as to the contaminants in the penetrant?

a. Nickel alloys
b. Austenitic stainless steel alloys
c. Ferritic / martensific stainless steel
d. Both a and b, above .

26. How shall indications be evaluated, i.e. acceptance standards for RT?

a. To ASME V
b. To ASME VIII
c. To B31.3
d. To the referencing Code section .

27. How shall Nondestructive Examination Personnel be qualified?

a. To SNT-TC 1A
b. To CP-189
c. To referencing code requirements .
d. To ACCP rules

28. Which NDE methods are considered “surface” methods?

a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. Both A & C above.

29. What designation is used to indicate the penetrameter is on the film side?

a. A “F” .
b. An “E”
c. A “D”
d. A “FS”

30. What is a shim used for?

a. UT field adequacy
b. RT field direction
c. MT field strength and direction.
d. MT field current applications

31. Why must the surface be closely observed during the application of the PT developer?

a. To ensure proper coating application
b. To ensure excess penetrant removal
c. To allow proper characterization of discontinuities.
d. To see the “groovy” lines form

32. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the magnetic particle method.

a. Lack of penetration
b. Inter-pass lack of fusion
c. Slag inclusions
d. Toe cracks .

33. For a DWE/SWV RT Technique, a minimum of ___________________ exposures shall be made.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 .
d. 4

34. When are location markers placed on the film side in SWV for curved surfaces?

a. Concave side is toward the source
b. Source – to – material distance greater than IR
c. A cobalt source is used
d. Both a and b, above .

35. What is the difference between an inspection and an examination per Section V of the ASME Code?

a. Inspection performed by AI
b. Examination performed by manufacturer’s personnel
c. There is no difference between the two
d. Both a and b, above .

36. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the liquid penetrant method

a. I.P. on an NPS 2 girth weld
b. I.F. at the root of an NPS 2 girth weld
c. HAZ surface cracks on a NPS 2 girth weld .
d. Slag inclusions on a NPS 8 longitudinal weld

37. What is to be done to excess penetrant remaining on the surface after the specified penetration time has elapsed?

a. It must be removed .
b. It can remain on the part
c. It must be developed
d. It must be removed with water only

38. What must be done to ensure 100% coverage on any NDE method?

Answer: All examinations must overlap to ensure 100% coverage of the part.

39. When surface irregularities may mask indications of unacceptable discontinuities, what is required?

Answer: Grinding, machining, or other methods .

40. List the type of discontinuities magnetic particle examination is effective in detecting.

Answer: Surface and slight subsurface indications .

41. What are the six penetrant techniques to be used?

Answer:

Color contrast or fluorescent
a. Water washable
b. Post – emulsifying
c. Solvent removable

42. What are the approved methods of indicating UT thickness measurements?

Answer: CRT, Digital, or meter .

43. How is the “quality” of a radiograph evaluated?

Answer: Ability to see the prescribed hole or wire on the designated penetrameter and compliance with density requirements.

44. Where are RT location markers placed, on the part or on the radiograph?

Answer: On the part .

45. The IQI may be of what two types?

Answer: Hole or wire types .

46. What is the critical hole in a hole type IQI?

Answer: 2T .

47. What identity must also be included in the UT calibration records?

Answer: Equipment, Probe and Calibration block identity .

48. The IQI is normally placed on which side of a part?

Answer: Source side .

49. A 4T hole on a 20 IQI has a diameter of:

Answer: 0.08”

 

50. List 4 types of blemishes (artifacts) not permitted on film.

a) Fogging
b) Processing defects
c) Scratches, finger marks, etc.
d) False indications due to defective screens

51. When is a written radiographic procedure required by ASME V?

Answer: Article 2 requires the use of a written procedure for RT in all cases, but T-150 overrides, which states procedures are only required when specified by the referencing code section (same as for UT,MT,PT and other NDE methods)

52. When should the developer be applied?

Answer:As soon as possible after penetrant removal. Not to exceed time in written procedure.

53. What type of discontinuity is the magnetic particle method most sensitive to?

Answer:Surface discontinuities aligned perpendicular to the magnetic field.

54. What is the examination medium when using MT? What is the probing medium when using MT?

Answer:Ferro magnetic particles, magnetic fields.

55. When must ultrasonic equipment be calibrated?

Answer:
a) Beginning and end of each examination
b) When personnel are changed
c) Anytime malfunction is suspected
d) Linearity check every 90 days

56. How many IQIs should appear on each radiograph, except for panoramic techniques?

Answer:At least one on each radiograph.

57. Are intensifying screens permitted for radiography per ASME V?

 

Answer:Yes, except when restricted by the referencing Code .

58. What two radiographic techniques are noted as available for examinations?

 

Answer: Single wall and double wall .

59. How can compliance with a written radiographic procedure be demonstrated?

Answer: By compliance with density and penetrameter image on the production or procedure qualification radiographs .

60. List the type of discontinuity liquid penetrant examination is effective in detecting.

Answer: Discontinuities that are open to surface .

61. What must be done when a penetrant is to be applied on parts beyond 50°F – 125°F?

Answer: The procedure must be qualified using a quench – cracked aluminium block.

62. The lifting power of yokes must be checked when?

Answer: Prior to use within the last year or if the yoke has been damaged. Permanent magnet yokes checked daily. T272 .

63. How should welded butt-joints be prepared for radiograph?

Answer: The weld ripples or surface irregularities on both the inside (if accessible) and outside shall be removed by any suitable means

64. In magnetic particle examination of a welded joint using yokes, is alternating current or direct current allowed?

Answer: AC yoke (Table – I721).

65. A ____________________________ is a device used to determine the image quality of radiograph

a. A step wedge comparison film
b. A densitometer
c. An IQI .Answer:
d. All of the above e. None of the above

66. In accordance with Section V, wire – type penetrameters:

a. Can always be used .Answer:
b. Can be used unless restricted by the referencing Code
c. Can never be used
d. Can be used only with Type 1 film

67. A. What is meant by “non –destructive examination” of a welded joint?

Answer: An examination of a welded joint that will disclose surface and sub-surface discontinuities without physical harm to the welded joint. Such examinations can be conducted by radiography, ultrasonics, liquid penetrant or magnetic particle testing.

B. Name four methods of non-destructive examination.

Answer:
• Radiographic Examination
• Ultrasonic Examination
• Magnetic Particle Examination
• Liquid Penetrant Examination

68. In a radiographic film of a weld, how are the following characteristics measured or judged?

a. Film sensitivity or quality
Answer:IQI.

b. Film density

Answer:Densitometers or step-wedge comparison films.

 

69. What is radiography?

Answer: A radiograph is a shadow picture produced by the passage of X-rays or gamma – rays through an object onto a film. When the rays pass through the object, part of the radiation penetrates the material and part is absorbed. The amount of radiation absorbed and the amount that penetrates are a function of the thickness of the material. Where a void or discontinuity exists, there is essentially less material to absorb the radiation. Therefore, more radiation will pass through this section and a dark spot corresponding to the projected position of the void will appear on the film.

70. What is the minimum and maximum allowable density through the image of the penetrameter for radiographs made with:

a. A 2000 kV tube?

Answer: 1.8 – 4.0 ( for any X-ray source )

b. Cobalt 60 (Co60)?

Answer: 2.0 – 4.0 ( for any gamma source)

71. A single film technique was used to make a radiograph using a Cobalt-60 source. The minimum permitted density in the area of interest is:

a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
e. None of the above
Answer: e. The correct answer is –15% from the transmitted density through the body of the penetrameter

72. Under ASME Code Section V, what upper and lower density limits are acceptable for viewing if the density through the body of the penetrameter is 2.7?
Assume single film viewing.

Answer:
-15% = 2.295
+30% = 3.510

73. What is the minimum number of IQI required for the following:

A. A complete girth seam containing 30 radiographs shot with a single exposure?

Answer: Requires at least 3 IQIs spaced 1200 apart.

B. Twelve radiographs on a longitudinal seam shot from the outside with a single exposure?

Answer:Requiresat least 12 IQI, one on each film.

74. A radiograph is made using an X-ray source, and two films in each film holder. If the film is to be viewed separately the minimum permitted density would be:

a. 4.0
b. 1.8 .Answer
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
e. None of the above

75. A weld with a nominal thickness of 1.5 inch is to be radiographed using a film side penetrameter. The penetrameter designation
should be: (Note: This is an open book question)

a. 25 Answer
b. 30
c. 35
d. Both a and b are acceptable?

76. A) What are hole – type penetrameters and what are they used for?

Answer:An IQI is a small strip of material, fabricated of radiographically similar material to the object being inspected, and having a thickness of approximately 2% of the object being radiographed. The IQI has three holes in it. The sizes of these holes are 1T, 2T and 4T where “T” is the thickness of the IQI. The 2T is designated as the essential hole, i.e., the hole whose image must appear on the radiograph. IQI thickness and essential hole size requirements are listed in tables in Section V of the ASME Code. The IQI is identified with a number made of lead that is attached to the IQI. This number indicates the thickness of the IQI in thousandths of an inch. An IQI is used for evaluating radiographic technique in that it serves as an image quality indicator, proper technique should display the IQI image and the specified hole.

B) What are wire penetrameters and what are they used for?

Answer: Wire type IQI use thin wires to ascertain sensitivity instead of holes. The ability to see the wire required by the Code indicates a quality radiograph.

77. In radiographing a butt welded joint of 1” thickness, on what side of the weld is the penetrameter normally placed?

Answer: The IQI should be placed the source side of the material being radiographed. However, where inaccessibility prevents this, the IQI may be placed on the film side of the material being radiographed provided a lead letter “F” at least as high as the identification number is placed adjacent to the IQI.

78. What type of flaws may be detected by:

1. Liquid Penetrant testing?

Answer:Surface discontinuities

2. Magnetic Particle testing?

Answer:Surface and slight sub-surface discontinuitie

3. Radiographic examination?

Answer:Surface and sub-surface discontinuities

4. Ultrasonic examination?

Answer: Surface and sub-surface discontinuities

79. What is a densitometer used to determine?

Answer: A densitometer ( or step wedge comparison film ) shall be used for judging film density requirements. Film density is a measure of overall darkening of the radiograph, which is directly related to the sensitivity, definition, and overall quality of the technique.

80. Name two radiation sources permitted for radiographic examination in ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.

Answer:The two common radiographic sources in industrial use today are X-ray machines and artificially produced radioactive isotopes of certain metallic elements.

81. When reviewing a radiograph, a dark image of the letter B can be seen on the film. Does this indicate an unacceptable radiograph?

Answer:No.

82. Describe how liquid penetrant examination should be performed in order to detect discontinuities that are open to the surface, per Article 6 of ASME Code section V.

 

Answer: The part is first thoroughly cleaned of oil, dirt, etc, and then a liquid penetrant is applied to the surface to be examined and allowed to enter the discontinuities. All excess penetrant is then removed, the part is dried, and a developer is applied. The developer functions both as a blotter to absorb penetrant that has been trapped in discontinuities and as a contrasting background to enhance the visibility of penetrant indications. The dyes in penetrants are either color contrast (visible under white light) or fluorescent (visible under ultraviolet light)

83. A) If IQIs are not placed on the source side, what rules apply?

Answer: The penetrameter should be placed on the source side of the material being radiographed. However, where inaccessibility prevents this, the penetrameter may be placed on the film side of the material being radiographed provided a lead letter “F” at least as high as the identification number is placed adjacent to the penetrameter.

B) For materials being radiographed other than welds, where are the IQIs placed?

Answer:For material other than weld a source side penetrameter shall be placed in the area of interest.

84. If the density through the IQI is 2.50, what would the maximum allowable density and minimum allowable density be through the weld represented by this un-shimmed IQI?

Answer:
Minus 15% to plus 30% allowed
2.5 + 30% = 2.5 + 0.75 = 3.25
2.5 – 15% = 2.5 – 0.4 = 2.125

85. On a set of cassettes containing film for a seam just radiographed you notice the lead location markers (i.e. 1-2, 2-3 etc.) are taped to the cassettes. Would these radiographs be acceptable?

Answer:No. Location makers that are to appear on the radiographic film should be placed on the part being examined and not on the cassettes.

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ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers

Top 99 Latest ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers (Closed Book)

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists:

A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list:

A. Essential variables.
B. Qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.

A. 1962
B. Current
C. 1986
D. 1995

6. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.

A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.

A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _____________positions.

A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:

A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.

A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe:

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe:

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for the WPS.

A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable for the WPS.

A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’____________________________.

A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?

A. Yes
B. No

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.

A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the___________ variables specified.

A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing 1/2″ of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.

A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”

29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designate dusing:

A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process______________________ is an essential variable.

A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?

A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?

A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor.

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:

A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?

A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.

True
False

44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?

A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes.

Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonic?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are:

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production?

(Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?

A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?

A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will this test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable

54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?

A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?

A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?

A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above

60. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?

A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

61. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:

A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

62. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test.
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

63. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties.
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

64. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.

True
False

65. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:

A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

66. A non-essential variable may be changes without requalification because:

A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

67. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.

True
False

68. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :

A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

69. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.

True
False

70. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?

A. Pass
B. Fail

71. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.

True
False

72. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.

True
False

73. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

True
False

74. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.

True
False

75. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a_____________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

76. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an______________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

77. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.

True
False

78. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

79. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.

True
False

80. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.

True
False

81. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

True
False

82. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.

True
False

83. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.

True
False

84. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?

A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

85. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without requalification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:

A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

86. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when:

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

87. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?

A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

88. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that process?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

89. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

90. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:

A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

91. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:

A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

92. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:

A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

93. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses_______________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.

A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above

94. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

95. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR

True
False

96. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:

A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches

97. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?

A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above

98. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?

A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above

99. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?

A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

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