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Latest ASNT NDT Ultrasonic Method (UT) Level III Examination Questions and Answers

The resonant frequency of a 2 cm (0.79 in.) thick plate of naval brass (V = 4.43 × 10⁵ cm/s) is:

a. 0.903 MHz

b. 0.443 MHz

c. 0.222 MHz

d. 0.111 MHz

The length of the near field for a 2.5 cm (1 in.) diameter, 5 MHz transducer placed in oil (V = 1.4 × 10⁵cm/s) is approximate:

a. 0.028 cm (0.01 in.)

b. 6.25 cm (2.5 in.)

c. 22.3 cm (8.8 in.)

d. 55.8 cm (22 in.).

In a water (VL = 1.5 × 10⁵ cm/s) immersion test, ultrasonic energy is transmitted into steel (VT = 3.2 ×10⁵ cm/s) at an incident angle of 14°. What is the refracted shear wave within the material?

a. 13°

b. 35°

c. 31°

d. 53°

The acoustic impedance for brass (V = 4.43 × 10⁵ cm/s, p = 8.42 gm/cm³) is:

a. 0.53 × 10⁵ gm/cm²s

b. 1.9 × 10⁵ gm/cm²s

c. 9.4 × 10⁵ gm/cm²s

d. 37 × 10⁵ gm/cm²s

What would be the wavelength of the energy in lead (V = 2.1 × 10⁵ cm/s) if it is tested with a 25 MHz transducer?

a. 119 cm (47 in.)

b. 0.525 cm (0.21 in.)

c. 0.0119 cm (0.005 in.)

d. 0.0084 cm (0.003 in.)

What is the transducer half-angle beam spread of a 1.25 cm diameter, 2.25 MHz transducer in water (V = 1.5 × 10⁵ cm/s)?

a. 2.5°

b. 3.75°

c. 37.5°

d. 40.5°

In an ultrasonic test system where signal amplitudes are displayed, an advantage of a frequency-independent attenuator over a continuously variable gain control is that the:

a. pulse shape distortion is less

b. signal amplitude measured using the attenuator is independent of frequency

c. dynamic range of the system is decreased

d. effect of amplification threshold is avoided

An amplifier in which received echo pulses must exceed a certain threshold voltage before they can be indicated might be used to:

a. suppress amplifier noise, unimportant scatter echoes or small discontinuity echoes that are of no consequence.

b. provide a display with nearly ideal vertical linearity characteristics

c. compensate for the unavoidable effects of material attenuation losses

d. provide distance-amplitude correction automatically

The output voltage from a saturated amplifier is:

a. 180° out of phase from the input voltage

b. lower than the input voltage

c. nonlinear with respect to the input voltage

d. below saturation

10.

The transmitted pulse at the output of the pulse usually has a voltage of 100 to 1000 V, whereas the voltages of the echoes at the input of the amplifier are on the order of:

a. 0.001-1 V

b. 1-5 V

c. 10 V

d. 50 V

11.

The intended purpose of the adjustable calibrated attenuator of an ultrasonic instrument is to:

a. control transducer damping

b. increase the dynamic range of the instrument

c. broaden the frequency range

d. attenuate the voltage applied to the transducer

12.

Which of the following might result in increased transmission of ultrasound within a coarse-grained material?

a. Perform the examination with a smaller diameter transducer

b. Perform the examination after grain-refining heat treatment

c. Change from a contact examination to an immersion examination

d. Change from a longitudinal to a transverse wave

13.

The term that is used to determine the relative transmittance and reflectance of ultrasonic energy at an interface is called:

a. acoustic attenuation

b. interface refraction

c. acoustic impedance ratio

d. acoustic frequency

14.

In a forging, discontinuities associated with nonmetallic inclusions can most accurately be described as being:

a. oriented parallel to the major axis

b. parallel to the minor axis

c. aligned with forging flow lines

d. oriented at approximately 45° to the forging direction

15.

The preferred method of ultrasonically inspecting a complex-shaped forging:

a. is an automated immersion test of the finished forging using an instrument containing a calibrated attenuator in conjunction with a C-scan recorder

b. combines thorough inspection of the billet prior to forging with a careful inspection of the finished part in all areas where the shape permits.

c. is a manual contact test of the finished part

d. is an automated immersion test of the billet prior to forging

16.

When maximum sensitivity is required from a transducer:

a. a straight beam unit should be used

b. large-diameter crystals are required

c. the piezoelectric element should be driven at its fundamental resonant frequency

d. the bandwidth of the transducer should be as large as possible

17.

The sensitivity of an ultrasonic test system:

a. depends on the transducer, pulse, and amplifier used.

b. decreases as the frequency is increased

c. increases as the resolution increases

d. is not related to mechanical damping or the transducer

18.

The ability of a test system to separate the back surface echo and the echo from a small discontinuity just above this back surface:

a. depends primarily upon the pulse length generated from the instrument

b. is not related to the surface roughness of the part under inspection

c. is primarily related to the thickness of the part under inspection

d. is usually improved by using a larger diameter transducer

19.

Transducer sensitivity is most often determined by:

a. calculations based on frequency and thickness of the piezoelectric element

b. the amplitude of the response from an artificial discontinuity

c. comparing it to a similar transducer made by the same manufacturer

d. determining the ringing time of the transducer

20.

Side-drilled holes are frequently used as reference reflectors for:

a. distance-amplitude calibration for shear waves

b. area-amplitude calibration

c. thickness calibration of plate

d. determining near-surface solutions

21.

Notches provide good reference discontinuities when a UT examination is conducted to primarily detect discontinuities such as:

a. porosity in rolled plate

b. inadequate penetration at the root of a weld

c. weld porosity

d. internal inclusions

22.

The difference between a compression and shear wave is:

a. quantitative measure

b. relative particle vibration direction

c. qualitative measure

d. amplitude

23.

The particle motion for rayleigh waves is usually described as:

a. sinusoidal

b. circular

c. elliptical

d. shear

24.

Based upon wave theory and ignoring attenuation losses, the echo amplitude of a finite reflector is:

a. directly proportional to the distance to the reflector

b. inversely proportional to the distance to the reflector

c. directly proportional to the square of the diameter of the circular reflector

d. inversely proportional to the square of the diameter of the circular reflector

25.

The rate generator in B-scan equipment will invariably be directly connected to the:

a. display intensity circuit

b. pulse circuit

c. RF amplifier circuit

d. horizontal sweep circuit

26.

In A-scan equipment, the RF pulse output voltage is normally in the range of:

a. 1-10 V

b. 10-100 V

c. 100-1000 V

d. 1000-3000 V

27.

When contact testing, an increase in tightness of a shrink-fit to a hollow shaft will cause the ratio of the back reflection to the metal-to-metal interface reflection to:

a. Increase

b. Decrease

c. Remain unchanged

d. Not be predicted as the response is material-dependent

28.

The frequency that can best distinguish the difference between a large planar discontinuity and four stacked (multiple-layered) laminations in the rolled plate is:

a. 0.5 MHz

b. 1 MHz

c. 2.25 MHz

d. 5 MHz

29.

During immersion examination, when evaluating the response from a contoured surface of a part, irrelevant indications due to the contour are most likely to appear as:

a. sharp, spiked signal indications

b. irregular signal indications

c. broad-based signal indications

d. grass or hash

30.

The pulse applied to the electrodes of the ultrasonic transducer is:

a. electrical

b. mechanical

c. electromechanical

d. piezoelectrical

31.

In calibrating an ultrasonic test instrument using the responses from each of the area-amplitude type reference blocks, the determination of the:

a. vertical range is obtained

b. pulse range is obtained

c. resolving range is obtained

d. horizontal range is obtained

32.

Test sensitivity corrections for metal distance and discontinuity area responses are accomplished by using:

a. an area-amplitude set of blocks

b. a distance-amplitude and an area-amplitude set of blocks

c. a distance-amplitude set of blocks

d. steel balls of varying diameter

33.

The time from the start of the ultrasonic pulse until the reverberations completely decay limits the maximum usable:

a. pulse time-discontinuity rate

b. pulse/receiver rate

c. pulse repetition rate

d. modified pulse-time rate

34.

Rough surfaces can cause undesirable effects, which are noticeable when parts are tested ultrasonically, including:

a. annular maxima rings

b. an increase in the width of front face echo and consequent loss of resolving power

c. acoustical mismatch

d. asymmetrical modes

35.

Rough surfaces cause the echo amplitude from discontinuities within the part to:

a. increase

b. decrease

c. not change

d. change frequency

36.

Resonance testing equipment generally uses:

a. pulsed longitudinal waves

b. continuous longitudinal waves.

c. pulsed shear waves

d. continuous shear waves

37.

To eliminate the decrease of sensitivity close to a wall that is parallel to the beam direction, the transducer used should be:

a. as small as possible

b. of as low frequency as possible

c. large and with a frequency as small as possible

d. large and with a frequency as high as possible

38.

Which of the following transducer materials makes the best transmitter?

a. Quartz

b. Lithium sulfate

c. Barium titanate

d. Lead titanate

39.

Of the transducer materials listed below, the most efficient receiver is:

a. quartz

b. lithium sulfate.

c. barium titanate

d. lead meta niobate

40.

The concentration of energy in the far-field of a transducer beam is:

a. greatest at the outer edges of the beam

b. greatest at the center of the beam

c. the same at the outer edges as in the center of the beam

d. directly proportional to beam width

41.

An extensive application of shear waves in ultrasonic testing is the inspection of:

a. welds

b. plate

c. pipe and tubing

d. castings

42.

In angle beam shear wave testing, skip distance will __________ as the thickness of the test specimen is increased.

a. decrease

b. not change

c. increase

d. decrease by half with double thickness

43.

The thickness range of UT resonance thickness gages can be increased by:

a. using large transducers

b. operating at the fundamental frequency

c. operating at a harmonic frequency

d. increasing the voltage

44.

The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small discontinuities is a definition for:

a. resolution

b. sensitivity

c. definition

d. gain

45.

From the equation for the length of the near field, it can be determined that the near field can be minimized by:

a. decreasing water travel distance

b. increasing transducer diameter

c. decreasing the size of reference targets

d. decreasing test frequency

46.

The principal attributes that determine the differences in ultrasonic velocities among materials are:

a. frequency and wavelength

b. thickness and travel time

c. elasticity and density

d. chemistry and permeability

47.

Wavelength may be defined as:

a. frequency divided by the velocity

b. the distance along a wavetrain from peak to trough

c. the distance from one point to the next identical point along the waveform

d. the distance along a wavetrain from an area of high particle motion to one of low particle motion

48.

Velocity measurements in a material revealed that the velocity decreased as frequency increased. This material is called:

a. dissipated

b. discontinuous

c. dispersive

d. degenerative

49.

The sound beam emanating from a continuous wave sound source has two zones. These are called the:

a. fresnel and fraunhofer zones

b. fresnel and near fields

c. fraunhofer and far fields

d. focused and unfocused zones

50.

The difference between through-transmission and pitch-catch techniques is that:

a. the transducers in the through-transmission face each other, while in pitch-catch the transducers are often side by side in the same housing

b. the transducers in through-transmission are side by side, while in pitch-catch the transducers are facing each other

c. the transducers in through-transmission are always angle beam

d. in through-transmission the depth of the discontinuity is easily determined

Question 1 of 50

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ASNT UT Level 3 Exam Pattern and Syllabus 2025

Total Questions: 135
Allowed Time: 4 hours

Core Topics:

Fundamental Principles and Theories
Equipment and Material Handling
Calibration and Technique Development
- Contact Techniques
- Immersion Techniques
- Comparative Analysis of Contact vs. Immersion
Remote Monitoring Techniques
Electronic and Functional Calibration Methods
Analysis and Assessment
- Evaluation Techniques for Base Metal Forms
- Examination of Weldments
- Assessment of Bonded Structures
- Influential Variables in Test Outcomes
- General Evaluation Practices
Procedural Applications
- Tailored Applications
- Regulatory and Standard Compliance

Health and Safety Protocols

The resonant frequency of a 2 cm (0.79 in.) thick plate of naval brass (V = 4.43 × 105 cm/s) is:

The length of the near field for a 2.5 cm (1 in.) diameter, 5 MHz transducer placed in oil (V = 1.4 × 105cm/s) is approximate:

In a water (VL = 1.5 × 105 cm/s) immersion test, ultrasonic energy is transmitted into steel (VT = 3.2 ×105 cm/s) at an incident angle of 14°. What is the refracted shear wave within the material?

The acoustic impedance for brass (V = 4.43 × 105 cm/s, p = 8.42 gm/cm³) is:

a. 0.53 × 105 gm/cm²s

b. 1.9 × 105 gm/cm²s

c. 9.4 × 105 gm/cm²s

d. 37 × 105 gm/cm²s

What would be the wavelength of the energy in lead (V = 2.1 × 105 cm/s) if it is tested with a 25 MHz transducer?

What is the transducer half-angle beam spread of a 1.25 cm diameter, 2.25 MHz transducer in water (V = 1.5 × 105 cm/s)?