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Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) General Examination Answers to Question

1.

A common application of an aluminum block containing quench cracks is to:

 (a) Determine penetrant test sensitivity

 (b) Compare the performance of penetrant materials or processes

 (c) Determine effects of mechanical cleaning methods on penetrant test results

 (d) Determine the effectiveness of cleaning techniques

2.

Which of the following is not a (!) advantage of a water washable fluorescent penetrant process?

 (a) Excess penetrant is easily removed with a water wash

 (b) It is well suited to testing large quantities of small parts

 (c) It is readily removed from shallow discontinuities

 (d) It has low cost, low processing time compared to the post emulsified penetrant process

3.

When using a water-washable penetrant testing process, why should the water rinse temperature remain constant?

 (a) To avoid changes in rinse efficiency

 (b) To maintain the temperature of the part

 (c) To avoid over washing

 (d) To avoid under washing

4.

What is the proper technique for the removal of excess penetrant from a part when using a water-washable penetrant process?

 (a) Fine spray normal to the surface

 (b) Coarse spray normal to the surface

 (c) Fine spray at 45 degrees to the surface

 (d) Coarse spray at 45 degrees to the surface

5.

Which type of developer would you use to obtain the highest sensitivity test results?

 (a) Dry

 (b) Non-aqueous wet

 (c) Aqueous wet

 (d) Lipophilic

6.

What type of penetrant process would be best suited to an application at near-freezing temperatures?

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) None of the above

7.

Which type of developer does not (!) provides a contrasting background against which to view penetrant indications?

 (a) Dry

 (b) Non-aqueous wet

 (c) Water soluble

 (d) Water suspendable

8.

Which type of developer should not be used with a visible dye penetrant process?

 (a) Dry

 (b) Non-aqueous wet

 (c) Water soluble

 (d) Water suspendable

9.

Why might steel parts have a greater tendency towards rusting after penetrant testing?

 (a) Penetrant materials are normally corrosive

 (b) Penetrant materials residues are hygroscopic

 (c) Any protective oils are removed during penetrant testing

 (d) This is true only if the developer and penetrant residues are not removed after testing

10.

The most significant advantage of the visible solvent removable penetrant process is?

 (a) Its suitability for penetrant testing of articles with rough surfaces

 (b) Portability

 (c) Its non-corrosive properties

 (d) Ability to allow a retest

11.

Correct developer coating thickness is indicated by:

 (a) An even, snowy white appearance

 (b) A slightly pinkish background

 (c) A fine, misting spray

 (d) A thin, translucent layer

12.

Which penetrant test processes commonly use the same penetrants?

 (a) Water washable

 (b) Water washable and solvent removable

 (c) Solvent removable and post emulsifier

 (d) None of the above

13.

Mercury vapor black lights may be extinguished if the supply voltage drops below about:

 (a) 120 volts

 (b) 90 volts

 (c) 220 volts

 (d) 200 volts

14.

The output of a mercury vapour blacklight depends on:

 (a) Cleanliness of its filter

 (b) Age of the bulb

 (c) Both a and b

 (d) None of the above

15.

When a mercury vapour black light is first turned on, what minimum warm-up time is normally required?

 (a) None

 (b) 2 to 3 minutes

 (c) 5 minutes

 (d) 10 minutes

16.

When a mercury vapour black light is inadvertently cut off, approximately how long should it be allowed to cool before attempting to restart?

 (a) Not required

 (b) 2 to 3 minutes

 (c) 5 minutes

 (d) 10 minutes

17.

A soft aluminum test piece is to be penetrant tested. The piece has previously been sandblasted to remove tightly adhering soils. What additional surface preparation should be performed?

 (a) Etching

 (b) Solvent cleaning

 (c) Ultrasonic cleaning

 (d) Grinding

18.

Dried, non-aqueous developers are best removed after penetrant testing by:

 (a) Solvent cleaning

 (b) Wiping with a water-dampened cloth

 (c) Wiping with a dry towel

 (d) Any of the above

19.

The most important penetrant test processing time to control is:

 (a) Penetrant dwell time

 (b) Emulsifier dwell time

 (c) Water rinse time

 (d) Development time

20.

A penetrant that contains an emulsifier is called:

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) Solvent suspended

21.

A penetrant that requires a separate emulsification step prior to removal from the surface of the test piece is called?

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) Solvent suspended

22.

The chief advantage of using a water-washable penetrant process is:

 (a) Sensitivity

 (b) Safety

 (c) Water tolerance

 (d) Economics

23.

While performing a fluorescent water-washable penetrant test, which of the following steps should be performed under black light?

 (a) Penetrant application

 (b) Excess penetrant removal

 (c) Emulsification

 (d) Developer application

24.

What are the two most important properties in determining the penetrating ability of a penetrant?

 (a) Viscosity and surface tension

 (b) Viscosity and contact angle

 (c) Surface tension and wetting ability

 (d) None of the above

25.

The human eye is most sensitive to which of the following types of light?

 (a) Yellow-green

 (b) Red

 (c) Blue-violet

 (d) Orange

26.

What amount of time is normally considered necessary for dark adaption of the eyes prior to performing a fluorescent penetrant test?

 (a) None required

 (b) 1 to 2 minutes

 (c) 3 to 5 minutes

 (d) 5 to 10 minutes

27.

Which of the following is not normally recommended?

 (a) Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test

 (b) Performing a visible penetrant test following a fluorescent test

 (c) Removing excess penetrant with a water spray

 (d) Removing excess penetrant with towels moistened with solvent

28.

What is the most common source of penetrant bath contamination?

 (a) Emulsifier

 (b) Water

 (c) Developer

 (d) Solvent

29.

Which of the following is normally considered an acceptable practice?

 (a) Sandblasting a soft aluminum part during pre-cleaning

 (b) Performing a fluorescent penetrant test following a visible penetrant test

 (c) performing a re-test on a part tested with a water-washable penetrant process

 (d) Removing excess penetrant with a water spray

30.

A penetrant testing method in which an emulsifier, separate from the penetrant, is used is called:

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifying

 (d) Self-emulsifying

31.

A penetrant testing method in which the degree of washability can be controlled by the operator is called:

 (a) Self-emulsifying

 (b) Post emulsifiable

 (c) Water washable

 (d) Solvent removable

32.

Open, shallow discontinuities are best detected by which penetrant testing method?

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) None of the above

33.

An advantage of the post emulsifiable penetrant testing process is that:

 (a) Test pieces can be re-processed several times with little loss of sensitivity

 (b) It is the most economical penetrant testing process

 (c) It is highly susceptible to overwashing

 (d) It is not self-emulsifying

34.

A disadvantage of the post emulsifiable penetrant process is that:

 (a) Test pieces can be re-processed several times with little loss of sensitivity

 (b) It is not very sensitive to open, shallow discontinuities

 (c) It is less sensitive to degradation in the presence of acids and chromates

 (d) Emulsifier application is an extra processing step.

35.

Acceptable methods to apply emulsifier are:

 (a) Dipping

 (b) Flowing

 (c) Spraying

 (d) All of the above

36.

An advantage of emulsifier application by dipping is:

 (a) Excess penetrant is recovered in the emulsifier tank and reprocessed

 (b) All of the test objects are coated at approximately the same time

 (c) Excess emulsifier drains back into the emulsifier tank for re-use

 (d) Hydrophilic scrubbing is then easier to perform

37.

Emulsification time is less critical for the detection of:

 (a) Fine, tight cracks

 (b) Wide, shallow discontinuities

 (c) Internal porosity

 (d) None of the above

38.

Over-washing during excess penetrant removal is less likely with which penetrant testing process?

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) Self emulsifying

39.

The fluorescent dyes used in the liquid penetrant testing process are most active when energized with black light of what wavelengths? (Å stands for angstrom units)

 (a) 2.0 × 10−7 m (2000 Å)

 (b) 2.5 ×10−7m (2500 Å)

 (c) 3.25 ×10−7m (3250 Å)

 (d) 3.65 ×10−7m (3650 Å)

40.

Application of penetrant to a test piece may be by:

 (a) Dipping, brushing or spraying

 (b) Spraying only

 (c) Bushing or spraying only

 (d) Dipping or spraying only

41.

The penetrant process best suited to use on parts with rough surfaces is:

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) Magnetic particle

42.

The penetrant process best suited for the detection of very fine discontinuities is:

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) Magnetic particle

43.

The penetrant process best suited for use on parts with keyways and threads is:

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) None of the above

44.

Indications that are caused by the design or construction of the test piece are called?

 (a) Relevant

 (b) Non-relevant

 (c) False

 (d) Real

45.

Indications that are caused by something other than a discontinuity are called:

 (a) Relevant

 (b) Non-relevant

 (c) False

 (d) Real

46.

Which of the following discontinuities would you not expect to find in a casting?

 (a) Shrinkage cracks

 (b) Incomplete penetration

 (c) Cold shuts

 (d) Porosity

47.

Which type of casting is made in a metal mould?

 (a) Investment casting

 (b) Sand casting

 (c) Die-casting

 (d) Lost wax process

48.

The act of determining the cause of an indication is called

 (a) Interpretation

 (b) Inspection

 (c) Evaluation

 (d) Determination

49.

The act of determining the effect of a discontinuity of the usefulness of a part is called:

 (a) Interpretation

 (b) Inspection

 (c) Evaluation

 (d) Determination

50.

Contaminants that are commonly limited in penetrant materials are:

 (a) Hydrogen and chlorine

 (b) Carbon and sulphur

 (c) Hydrogen and carbon

 (d) Chlorine and sulphur

51.

1.2.2 Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 2 (PT-2) Specific Examination
The most likely result of a too-short dwell time of an emulsifier is:

 (a) A tendency to remove the penetrant from fine discontinuities

 (b) Incomplete removal of excess surface penetrant

 (c) An overactive emulsifier

 (d) All of the above

52.

Diffusion of a lipophilic emulsifier penetrant into the test piece surface is stopped by:

 (a) The conclusion of the emulsifier dwell time

 (b) The penetrant

 (c) Application of developer

 (d) The water rinses step

53.

When using a post emulsifiable penetrant process, it is important to drain as much excess penetrant as possible from the surface of a test piece that has been immersed in the penetrant because:

 (a) Too much penetrant on the part surface may lead to more rapid penetration and over-sensitivity

 (b) A thinner layer of penetrant is likely to have higher capillary action and, thus, be more sensitive to fine discontinuities

 (c) A thinner layer of penetrant will result in less penetrant contamination in the emulsifier tank

 (d) None of the above

54.

When a drain-dwell technique is used during emulsification, what two mechanisms are responsible for combining the emulsifier and penetrant?

 (a) Diffusion and turbulent mixing

 (b) Osmosis and agitation

 (c) Turbulent mixing and osmosis

 (d) Agitation and turbulent mixing

55.

When performing a post emulsifiable penetrant test, the test piece does not rinse acceptable clean during normal processing. What should be done?

 (a) Return the test piece to the emulsifier and repeat the step

 (b) Increase water temperature and pressure

 (c) Remove the excess penetrant with solvent remover and process the remainder of the test normally

 (d) Clean the test piece and re-process through the complete penetrant test process

56.

The adequacy of excess penetrant removal, using water-washable penetrant process, is judged and controlled by:

 (a) Water rinse time

 (b) Fluorescent brightness measurement

 (c) Visual observation

 (d) Cleanliness of cloths used for removal

57.

Another name for a self-emulsifying penetrant process is:

 (a) Solvent removable

 (b) Water washable

 (c) Post emulsifiable

 (d) Solvent emulsifiable

58.

Which of the following is a function of an emulsifier?

 (a) To draw penetrant out of a discontinuity and form a visible indication

 (b) To increase the size of an indication through capillary action

 (c) To provide a contrasting background for viewing penetrant indications

 (d) None of the above

59.

When viewed under black light, the developer appears?

 (a) Yellow-green

 (b) Blue-black

 (c) White

 (d) Pinkish white

60.

Penetrant developers are used in which of the following forms?

 (a) Water washable

 (b) Water suspendable

 (c) Solvent suspendable

 (d) All of the above

61.

Which of the following developers requires the test piece to be dried prior to its application?

 (a) Water washable

 (b) Water suspendable

 (c) Non-aqueous suspendable

 (d) All of the above

62.

An effect of a thick developer coating might be:

 (a) To obscure discontinuity indications

 (b) To enhance discontinuity indications

 (c) To increase penetrant test sensitivity by providing more capillary paths

 (d) None of the above

63.

Why is it important to view the test piece shortly after the developer application and periodically through the development time?

 (a) To make sure the developer dries evenly

 (b) To guard against pooling of developers in low areas

 (c) To avoid missing small flaw indications adjacent to areas of high bleed-out

 (d) To avoid missing transient indications against an otherwise clean background

64.

Which of the following is an advantage of a dry developer?

 (a) Ease of handling

 (b) Non-corrosive

 (c) No hazardous vapours

 (d) All of the above

65.

Why is the need for a dry surface prior to developer application more of a disadvantage with a dry developer than with a non-aqueous wet developer?

 (a) Because the dry developer-only forms a thin film on the surface of the test piece

 (b) Because the solvent in a non-aqueous wet developer penetrates deeper into discontinuities to contact entrapped penetrant and draw it back out

 (c) Because the warm test piece causes evaporation of the solvent in the nonaqueous developer

 (d) All of the above

66.

The preferred method of application of aqueous wet developer is:

 (a) Dipping

 (b) Spraying

 (c) Brushing

 (d) All of the above

67.

It is easier to control developer coating thickness with a soluble developer than a water suspendable one because:

 (a) Less developer can be dissolved that suspended in water

 (b) It dries more rapidly on the test piece

 (c) Evaporation deposits a thin, even coating on the test piece

 (d) All of the above

68.

Which of the following is not an advantage of an aqueous wet developer?

 (a) It may be applied to a dry surface

 (b) It has no hazardous vapours

 (c) There is visible evidence of developer coverage

 (d) During drying, only water evaporates, not costly solvents

69.

A disadvantage of water-soluble developers is:

 (a) Agitation of the developer is not required

 (b) A uniform developer film is obtained

 (c) The dried developer is difficult to remove during post cleaning

 (d) None of the above

70.

Fluorescent penetrant indications are more visible than color contrast penetrant indications because:

 (a) They reflect more light

 (b) They emit rather than reflect light

 (c) They contain a higher concentration of dye particles

 (d) Yellow and green contrast more than red and white

71.

The tendency of a liquid to be drawn into small discontinuities is called:

 (a) Viscosity

 (b) Barometric

 (c) Capillary action

 (d) Surface tension

72.

A liquid that reacts with a penetrant to render it water washable is called:

 (a) Developer

 (b) Emulsifier

 (c) Aqueous scrubber

 (d) Non-aqueous cleaner

73.

A water tolerance test would be performed on:

 (a) Solvent removable penetrants

 (b) Water washable and post emulsifiable penetrant

 (c) Solvent removable penetrants and hydrophilic emulsifiers

 (d) Water washable penetrants and lipophilic emulsifiers

74.

A problem that could be caused by a penetrant with abnormally high water content is:

 (a) Hydrogen assisted cracking

 (b) Rusting of steel parts

 (c) Water contamination

 (d) Blurring of indications

75.

Deterioration of penetrant material performance may be caused by which of the following?

 (a) Water contamination

 (b) Heat

 (c) Cleaning solvents

 (d) All of the above

76.

When adding water to a penetrant, the water tolerance limit is indicated when:

 (a) Opacity reaches 2% of the International optical transmission standard

 (b) The penetrant material and dye separate into their constituent parts

 (c) Permanent cloudiness occurs

 (d) None of the above

77.

Possible degradation of penetrant materials performance is often checked by:

 (a) Performing penetrant testing of comparator blocks using samples of new and used penetrant materials

 (b) Water tolerance test

 (c) Using a penetrant test penetrameter

 (d) Judgment of a qualified inspector during production testing

78.

The most common biological effect of penetrant materials on personnel is:

 (a) Burns to the retina of the eye from overexposure to ultraviolet light

 (b) Skin irritation caused by the removal of natural oils from the skin

 (c) Acute chlorine poisoning

 (d) No effect

79.

Hydrophilic emulsifiers may be applied by:

 (a) Dipping

 (b) Immersion

 (c) Spraying

 (d) All of the above

80.

The term ‘drag out losses’ refers to:

 (a) Loss of penetrant materials that are carried from one processing station to another on the test piece

 (b) Penetrant which is removed from discontinuities during the water washable process

 (c) Penetrant which is removed from discontinuities because of over emulsification prior to water removal

 (d) Both b and c

81.

The diffusion mechanism is used in the operation of:

 (a) Solvent removable penetrant

 (b) Lipophilic emulsifiers

 (c) Hydrophilic emulsifiers

 (d) Both b and c

82.

The concentration of a hydrophilic emulsifier may be measured by:

 (a) Specific gravity

 (b) Fluorescent brightness

 (c) An optical refraction meter

 (d) A comparator block

83.

When applied by immersion, an optimum concentration for a hydrophilic emulsifier is about?

 (a) 0.5–2%

 (b) 80–100%

 (c) 2.5–20%

 (d) 50–80%

84.

Does hydrophilic emulsifier contact time depend on which of the following?

 (a) Surface finish of test piece

 (b) Emulsifier concentration

 (c) Method of application

 (d) All of the above

85.

How is the correct emulsifier contact time determined?

 (a) Manufacturer’s recommendations

 (b) One-half penetrant dwell time

 (c) Experiment

 (d) Same as penetrant dwell time

86.

Which of the following is used in connection with hydrophilic emulsifiers applied by immersion?

 (a) Brushing

 (b) Agitation

 (c) Drain-dwell

 (d) All of the above

87.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a hydrophilic emulsifier?

 (a) Greater penetrant tolerance than lipophilic emulsifiers

 (b) Economical

 (c) Low drag-out losses compared to lipophilic emulsifiers

 (D) Versatile application

88.

During excess penetrant removal, a water spray pre-rinse might be used with:

 (a) A lipophilic emulsifier

 (b) A hydrophilic emulsifier

 (c) A hydrophobic emulsifier

 (d) None of the above

89.

Re-cycling of penetrant and rinse water is facilitated with which of the following emulsifier types?

 (a) Hydrophobic

 (b) Hydrophilic

 (c) Lipophilic

 (d) Hygroscopic

90.

Which type of emulsifier is intended for use without the dilution?

 (a) Hydrophobic

 (b) Hydrophilic

 (c) Lipophilic

 (d) Hygroscopic

91.

Halogen content of penetrant materials is limited because of the possibility of stress corrosion cracking in which of the following materials?

 (a) High tensile steel

 (b) Austenitic stainless steel

 (c) Titanium alloys

 (d) All of the above

92.

The most likely cause of loss of performance in a lipophilic emulsifier is:

 (a) High viscosity

 (b) Water contamination

 (c) Phase separation

 (d) Improper concentration

93.

In performing a water content test of a lipophilic emulsifier per ASTM D-95, what solvent is used?

 (a) Naptha

 (b) Trichloroethane

 (c) Benzene

 (d) Xylene

94.

Which of the following developers would you expect to be the least sensitive?

 (a) Water suspendable wet (immersion)

 (b) Water suspendable wet (spray)

 (c) Dry immersion (dip)

 (d) Non-aqueous wet (solvent spray)

95.

Which of the following developers would you expect to be the most sensitive?

 (a) Water suspendable wet (immersion)

 (b) Water suspendable wet (spray)

 (c) Dry immersion (dip)

 (d) Non-aqueous wet (solvent spray)

96.

Which of the following developers would you expect to be the least sensitive?

 (a) Water suspendable wet (immersion)

 (b) Water suspendable wet (spray)

 (c) Water-soluble (spray)

 (d) Water-soluble (immersion)

97.

Which of the following developers would you expect to be the most sensitive?

 (a) Water suspendable wet (immersion)

 (b) Water suspendable wet (spray)

 (c) Water-soluble (spray)

 (d) Water-soluble (immersion)

98.

Dual-purpose penetrants are viewed under what type of light?

 (a) White light

 (b) Blacklight

 (c) Both a and b

 (d) None of the above

99.

When is it possible to detect slightly sub-surface defects using penetrant testing?

 (a) Only if you are using fluorescent penetrant

 (b) When using post-emulsifiable penetrant

 (c) It is not possible to detect slightly sub-surface defects using penetrant testing

 (d) When using dual sensitivity penetrants

100.

Which of the following would be classed as an in-service fault?

 (a) A shrinkage crack

 (b) A fatigue crack

 (c) A grinding crack

 (d) All could be in-service faults

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