Top 41 Latest API 570 Exam Questions and Answers

Top 41 Latest API 570 Exam Questions and Answers – ALL QUESTIONS ARE CLOSE BOOK

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1. API 570 covers inspection of :

A. new construction
B. new tank construction
C. in-service piping
D. in-service vessels

2. CUI is the acronym for :

A. Corrosion Under Insulation
B. Cold under-ground In-service piping
C. Corrosion Under Inside flow
D. Crack under Insulation

3. A person who assists the inspector by performing specific NDE on piping systems is defined as

A. NDE Technician
B. Assistant Inspector
C. NDT Level II inspector
D. Examiner

4. The response or evidence resulting from the application of a nondestructive evaluation technique is termed:

A. A crack
B. Porosity
C. A leak
D. An indication

5. The MAWP is:

A. The maximum internal pressure permitted in the piping system.
B. The minimum external pressure permitted in the piping system.
C. The maximum external pressure permitted in the piping system.
D. None of the above

6. A selection of piping encompassed by flanges or other connecting fittings is called:

A. A flanged pipe
B. A ready to be installed pipe
C. A spooled piece
D. A fabricated piping assembly

7. If a person has a degree in engineering he is automatically qualified to be:

A. An Authorized Piping Inspector
B. A piping inspector
C. A NDE Level II or III in any technique
D. None of the above

8. A TML is:

A. Thickness Measurement Laboratory
B. The Maximum Limit for thickness
C. Thickness Measurement Location
D. Time Medium Length

9. The result of excessive cyclic stresses that are often well below the static yield strength of the material is termed as:

A. material failure
B. fatigue cracking
C. failure cracking
D. creep cracking

10. Thickness measurements may be taken by ultrasonic instruments or what other method:

A. AET
B. ET
C. MT
D. RT

11. Which of the following tests are not normally conducted as part of a routine inspection:

A. UT thickness
B. Visual inspection
C. Radiographic profile
D. Pressure tests

12. Thickness measurements are not routinely taken on in piping circuits.

A. valves
B. straight run pipe
C. fittings
D. deadlegs

13. During the installation of a flanged connection, the bolts should:

A. Extend two threads past their nuts
B. Extend completely through their nuts
C. Extend only half way through their nuts
D. Extend at least .5 inches (1.25 mm) past their nuts.

14. Services with the highest potential of resulting in an immediate emergency if a leak were to occur are in:

A. Class 3
B. Class 2
C. Class 1
D. Owner/user designated system

15. The classification that includes the majority of unit process piping is labeled:

A. Class 3
B. Class 2
C. Class I
D. Owner/user designated system

16. Services that are flammable but do not significantly vaporize when they leak and are not located in high activity areas:

A. Class 3
B. Class 2
C. Class I
D. Owner/user designated system

17. What is the remaining life in years of a piping system whose corrosion rate is 0.074 inches per year, the actual wall thickness is 0.370 inches and the minimum required thickness is 0.1 inches

A. 36.68 years
B. 364.8 years
C. 3.6 years
D. 3.6 months

18. What is the long term corrosion rate of a piping circuit that started at 0.475 inches and is now 0.2 inch, the measurements were taken over a five year period.

A. 0.055 inches per year
B. 0.005 inches per year
C. 0.550 inches per year
D. Not enough information given

19. What is the short term corrosion rate for the above piping circuit in Question 18.

A. 0.055 inches per year
B. 0.005 inches per year
C. 0.550 inches per year
D. Not enough information given

20. A longitudinal crack in an existing piping circuit may be repaired by:

A. installing a full encirclement welded split sleeve
B. welding a box over the cracked area
C. welding a box over the crack
D. using a full encirclement welded split sleeve, with the approval of the piping engineer.

21. Soil to air interface Zone of a partially buried pipe is defined as

A. 6 inches above and 12 inches below the soil surface
B. Pipe running parallel with the soil surface is also included
C. 12 inches below and 6 inches above the soil surface
D. A and B above

22. API 570 was developed for

A. Petroleum refining and chemical process industry
B. Ship building industry
C. Power plant industry
D. Construction Industry

23. API 570 shall be used as a substitute for the original construction requirement governing a piping system before it is placed in service wherever possible.

A. True
B. False

24. API 570 applies to the piping systems for

A. Process fluids
B. Hydrocarbons and similar flammable and toxic fluid service
C. Sour water and hazardous waste streams above threshold limit
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

25. Excluded and Optional piping system to API 570 requirements are

A. Fire water system
B. Hazardous fluid service below the threshold limit as defined by jurisdictional requirement.
C. Steam and boiler feed water service
D. Category D fluid service
E. All of the above

26. A imperfection of a type or dimension exceeding the acceptable criteria is defined as

A. Defect
B. Discontinuity
C. Lack of continuity
D. All of the above

27. The test point area for a8 “ NPS pipe is

A. 3” Dia Circle
B. 2” Dia Circle
C. 5” Dia Circle
D. None of the above

28. Who shall control activities related the repair, rerating and alteration of the piping system

A. Owner or User
B. Authorized Inspection Agency
C. Approved Inspection Agency
D. Any authorized piping Inspector

29. Who shall control the inspection program, frequency and maintenance of the Piping System?

A. Owner or User
B. Authorized Inspection Agency
C. Approved Inspection Agency
D. Any authorized piping Inspector

30. Who shall be responsible for the functions of the authorized Inspection Agency?

A. Owner or User
B. Authorized Inspection Agency themselves
C. Approved Inspection Agency
D. Any authorized piping Inspector
E. Regulatory authority or Class

31. As regards dead legs in piping circuits, what is recommended to be done by API 570 when ever possible?

A. Dead legs should be monitored on a monthly basis.
B. The chief inspector and the unit engineer should designate dead legs to be inspected.
C. Dead legs should be monitored on a yearly basis
D. Consideration should be given to removing dead legs that serve no further process purpose.

32. Which of the following is an not an example of environmental cracking?

A. Chloride SCC of austenitic stainless steels
B. Polythionic acid SCC of sensitized austenitic alloy steels.
C. Carbonate SCC. D. Low Temperature SCC.

33. An example of where creep cracking has been experienced in the industry is in;

A. 2-114 Cr steels above 800°F.
B. 1-114 Cr steels above 900°F.
C. 2-114 Cr steels above 900°F.
D. Chrome Vanadium steels above 1000°F.

34. Rerating piping systems is defined as;

A. changing the temperature rating.
B. changing the MAWP.
C. changing the temperature rating or the MAWP.
D. re-painting the pipe with the correct pressure and temperature

35. WFMT is

A. Wet Ferro magnetic testing
B. Wet Flourescent Magnetic Particle testing
C. Buried piping testing
D. Special internal testing

36. When preparing to inspect a piping system inspection personnel should?

A. Consult with the piping engineer.
B. Briefly review the history of individual piping systems before making any of the inspections required by API 570.
C. Check that repair materials are available.
D. Check that the corrosion engineer has reviewed the inspection plan.

37. As regards dead legs in piping circuits, what is recommended to be done by API 570 when ever possible?

A. Dead legs should be monitored on a monthly basis.
B. The chief inspector and the unit engineer should designate dead legs to be inspected.
C. Dead legs should be monitored on a yearly basis
D. Consideration should be given to removing dead legs that serve no further process purpose.

38. When is it necessary to reevaluate the frequency of inspection for an existing piping system?

A. The API 570 authorized inspector suspects a problem.
B. The operations group desires an increase in inspection frequency.
C. The inspection interval must be reviewed and adjusted as necessary after each inspection or significant change in operating conditions.
D. More than one flange has started to leak.

39. The selection of TMLs within injection point circuits are established at four basic locations, three of which are:

 TMLs on appropriate fittings within the injection point circuit.
 TMLs on the pipe wall at the location of expected pipe wall impingement of injected fluid
 Establish TMLs at both the upstream and downstream limits of the injection point circuit.
What is the fourth consideration when selecting TMLs

A. TMLs at intermediate locations along the longer straight piping within the injection point circuit may be required
B. TMLs at extreme locations along the longer straight piping within the injection point circuit may be required
C. TMLs at pipe bends within the longer straight piping in the injection point circuit may be required
D. TMLs at pipe bends within the shorter straight piping in the injection point circuit may be required

40. When the inspector suspects or is advised that specific circuits may be susceptible to environmental cracking, the inspector should schedule supplemental inspections. What types of inspections may this include?

A. Radiography.
B. Wet Fluorescent Magnetic Particle NDE.
C. Ultrasonic NDE.
D. Radiography, Wet Fluorescent Magnetic Particle, and/or Ultrasonic examinations.

41. Suplemental inspection for piping systems are sometimes required. Which of the following may be considered supplements to normal inspection techniques?

A. Annual hydrostatic testing.
B. Eddy current testing.
C. Spool piece removal and visual inspection
D. Periodic use of radiography and/or thermography to check for fouling or internal plugging.

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1.

When ‘hydrogen control’ is specified for a manual metal arc welding project the electrode would normally be:

CSWIP 3.1 Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 1

 
 
 
 

2.

You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its:

 
 
 
 

3.

When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which group of welders are most likely to require continuous monitoring?

 
 
 
 

4.

You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You would object because:

 
 
 
 

5.

When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention. What would you investigate?

 
 
 
 

6.

The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6% manganese, to 0.2% carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of:

 
 
 
 

7.

One of the following alloys is non-magnetic – which?

 
 
 
 

8.

When TIG welding austenitic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for This is to:

 
 
 
 

9.

Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of:

 
 
 
 

10.

In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the:

 
 
 
 

11.

1. BS499 communicates by the use of symbols the type of joint preparation to be used. Which of the following symbols indicates the depth of weld penetration required on the joint?

CSWIP 3.1 General Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 2

 

 
 
 
 

12.

Which of the following symbols would indicate that a weld has to be finished on the ‘other’ side of the weld?

 
 
 
 

13.

The use of flux with gas shielded metal arc welding allows:

 
 
 
 

14.

In MMA welding what parameter is used for control of penetration into the base material?

 
 
 
 

15.

In the welding of a butt joint from one side, the profile of the root bead is controlled by:

 
 
 
 

16.

What type of power characteristic is required for manual welding?

 
 
 
 

17.

Which of the following tests would indicate the toughness of weld metal/parent metal – HAZ?

 
 
 
 

18.

Degreasing components is essential for quality welding but some agents may:

 
 
 
 

19.

Which of the following elements has the greater effect on the hardenability of a steel plate?

 
 
 
 

20.

In MAG/CO2 welding which parameter gives the greatest control of weld appearance during dip transfer or short-circuiting welding?

 
 
 
 

21.

1. The British code for visual inspection requirements is:

CSWIP 3.1 General Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 3

 

 
 
 
 

22.

A code of practice for visual inspection should include the following:

 
 
 
 

23.

Incomplete root penetration in a butt joint could be caused by:

 
 
 
 

24.

Incomplete root fusion would certainly be caused by:

 
 
 
 

25.

When visually inspecting a completed single vee butt weld cap, you would certainly assess:

 
 
 
 

26.

You notice a very ‘veed’ ripple shape. This is most likely caused by:

 
 
 
 

27.

Toe blending is important as it may affect:

 
 
 
 

28.

Slag inclusions would occur with:

 
 
 
 

29.

Undercut is principally caused by:

 
 
 
 

30.

Undercut is normally assessed by:

 
 
 
 

31. CSWIP 3.1 General Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 4

1. Movement of the arc in MMA welding by magnetic forces is called:

 
 
 
 

32.

A metallurgical problem most associated with submerged arc welding is:

 
 
 
 

33.

Oxy pressure and nozzle size in flame cutting would influence:

 
 
 
 

34.

The main usage of arc cutting/gouging processes is:

 
 
 
 

35.

Which of the following processes joins metals plastically?

 
 
 
 

36.

Which electrode classification would be relevant to AWS A5.1-81?

 
 
 
 

37.

Which of the following coatings is associated with stove welding?

 
 
 
 

38.

A common gas mixture used in MIG welding nickel alloys, to combine good levels of penetration with good arc stability would be:

 
 
 
 

39.

Which type of SAW flux is more resistant to moisture absorption?

 
 
 
 

40.

The flame temperature of oxy/acetylene mixture gas is given as:

 
 
 
 

41. CSWIP 3.1 General Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 5

1. Generally the most suitable method of detecting lack of sidewall fusion would be:

 
 
 
 

42.

Hot shortness is a term used to indicate:

 
 
 
 

43.

Cobalt as an isotope would generally be used on:

 
 
 
 

44.

In welding procedure terms, a change in essential variable means:

 
 
 
 

45.

Weld symbols placed on a dotted line in accordance with ISO requirements means:

 
 
 
 

46.

A welding inspector’s main attributes include:

 
 
 
 

47.

Technically, a code of practice is:

 
 
 
 

48.

The correct term for ‘cap height’ is:

 
 
 
 

49.

A tensile test will assess:

 
 
 
 

50.

The important point of high temperature steels is that:

 
 
 
 

51. CSWIP 3.1 General Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 6

1. The weld dimension used to indicate the minimum strength of a fillet weld is:

 
 
 
 

52.

An electroslag weld requires what heat treatment to improve the grain structure?

 
 
 
 

53.

The most common type of failure associated with sharp fillets, notches and undercut is:

 
 
 
 

54.

Weld decay in stainless steels can be avoided by:

 
 
 
 

55.

An eutectoid mixture in steel is:

 
 
 
 

56.

Low alloy steels having a high carbon equivalent before welding will require:

 
 
 
 

57.

The electrodes for welding low alloy steels should be:

 
 
 
 

58.

The purpose of pre-heating low alloy steel pipes before electric arc welding is to:

 
 
 
 

59.

Welder qualification tests are designed to:

 
 
 
 

60.

In positional MMA welding on pipework, welders are having difficulty in obtaining good capping profiles when welding in the overhead position. Would you:

 
 
 
 

61. CSWIP 3.1 General Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 7

1. Pipe welding codes are set up by:

 
 
 
 

62.

The different grain structure between the weld deposit and the base metal can be determined by:

 
 
 
 

63.

A root bend test is used to test the amount of weld:

 
 
 
 

64.

What would be observed if a fillet weld were sectioned and macro-etched?

 
 
 
 

65.

What is the most common cause of failure in root bend tests?

 
 
 
 

66.

The purpose of a nick break specimen is to provide a test for:

 
 
 
 

67.

Which organisation publishes the most commonly used code for boiler and pressure vessel welding?

 
 
 
 

68.

A low hydrogen electrode, according to BS 639, would contain:

 
 
 
 

69.

The second run in a three run butt weld using the stovepipe technique is known as the:

 
 
 
 

70.

You could determine that an electrode is cellulosic by its:

 
 
 
 

71. CSWIP 3.1 Technology Examination Multipule Choice Questions And Answers- Exam Paper 2

Answers to be indicated on Candidate Answer Sheet under the heading of Technology Candidates must not mark this sheet; failure to
follow these instructions could lead to this part of the examination being void.

Duties Before Welding

1. Who should have access to the WPS?

 
 
 
 

72.

How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle) should?

 
 
 
 

73.

How are the lengths of tack welds during assembly and fit up determined?

 
 
 
 

74.

Is it always necessary to preheat the base metal before welding?

 
 
 
 

75.

Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?

 
 
 
 

76.

What does the term WPS means?

 
 
 
 

77.

What standard is used for the basic requirements of visual inspection?

 
 
 
 

78.

Who is responsible for site safety?

 
 
 
 

79. Duties During Welding

It is permissible to allow trainee welder to carry out production welding?

 
 
 
 

80.

Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct polarity during welding?

 
 
 
 

81.

When would you measure the minimum preheat temperature?

 
 
 
 

82.

During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of excess penetration?

 
 
 
 

83.

The welder have increased the voltage on the SAW welding set, what would be the effect on the weld appearance?

 
 
 
 

84.

What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using incorrect shielding gas?

 
 
 
 

85.

What is the maximum OCV allowed to initiate an arc when using A. C current?

 
 
 
 

86.

Why is the OCV capped at voltage setting?

 
 
 
 

87. Duties After Welding

What information should be recorded as a minimum, on a completed production weld?

 
 
 
 

88.

What is meant by the term PWHT?

 
 
 
 

89.

Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline be important?

 
 
 
 

90.

Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?

 
 
 
 

91.

Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the production weld?

 
 
 
 

92.

To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to eye should be amaximum of?

 
 
 
 

93.

What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by BS EN 970 for inspection of a weldedsurface?

 
 
 
 

94.

Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage required bythe specification/Code?

 
 
 
 

95. Mechanical Testing

A welding procedure transverse joint tensille test the following observations were made . The specimen CSA was recorded as 25 mm x 12 mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 150kN. What is the UTS?

 
 
 
 

96.

In a transverse weld tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would he:

 
 
 
 

97.

In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm , and after the test theincreased gauge length was 60mm, what is the elongation percentage?

 
 
 
 

98.

Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint `tensile specimens to be flush, this is because:

 
 
 
 

99.

In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends used i nstead of root and face bends?

 
 
 
 

100.

Mechanical tests are divided in to two areas, identify these from the list below:

 
 
 
 

101.

When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175°. The testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180°?

 
 
 
 

102.

Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because?

 
 
 
 

103.

Charpy impact tests showing a flat but rough surface after the completed test, this would indicate which type of failure?

 
 
 
 

104. Processes

A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding electrode used was abasic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of the runs was 220 amps, 21 volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL:of 270mm per min. What would be the arc energy?

 
 
 
 

105.

When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

 
 
 
 

106.

When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld f the power source was changed from DC+ve to AC?

 
 
 
 

107.

What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-ve?

 
 
 
 


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1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists:

A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of a & b above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list:

A. essential variables
B. qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.

A. 1962
B. current
C. 1986
D. 1995

6. Each ___________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.

A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.

A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorised Inspector
D. Foreman

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the ____________ positions.

A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:

A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.

A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe:

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe:

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ____________ is an essential variables for the WPS.

A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ______________ is an essential variable for the WPS.

A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s _____________.

A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1, 1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?

A. Yes
B. No.

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.

A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the ___________ variables specified.

A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing ½” of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.

A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1” D. ½”

29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using:

A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D.
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process _________ is an essential variable.

A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?

A. GMAW uses a continuously fed filler metal as electrode and GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld.

38. May a welder who qualified using a doublegroove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F22 fillers

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?

A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:

A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?

A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.

A. True
B. False

44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?

A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using realtime ultrasonics?

A. Yes
B. No C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are:

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production? (Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?

A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?

A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following: No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory Will this test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable

54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?

A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?

A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?

A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap D. Any of the above

60. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:

A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

61. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

62. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

63. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-qualification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.

A. True
B. False

64. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:

A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

65. A non-essential variable may be changes without re-qualification because:

A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

66. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.

A. True
B. False

67. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :

A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR.
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

68. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.

A. True
B. False

69. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?

A. Pass
B. Fail

70. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.

A. True
B. False

71. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.

A. True
B. False

72. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

A. True
B. False

73. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.

A. yes
B. No

74. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a ___________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

75. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an ____________variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

76. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.

A. True
B. False

77. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

78. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.

A. True
B. False

79. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.

A. True
B. False

80. A WPS must address all applicable nonessential variables.

A. True
B. False

81. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.

A. True
B. False

82. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.

A. True
B. False

83. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?

A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

84. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-qualification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:

A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

85. A welder is qualified to weld all thicknesses of material when:

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

86. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?

A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

87. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to requalify in that process?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

88. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

89. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:

A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

90. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:

A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

91. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:

A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

92. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thicknesses ___________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.

A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch C. 1 inch
D. 1 ¼ inches
E. None of the above

93. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

94. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR

A. True
B. False

95. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:

A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches

96. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?

A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above

97. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?

A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12” length of weld
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above

98. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows: Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?

A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

99. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?

A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

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1. In the Barlow formula for determining pipe thickness, the term S stands for:

a. Internal design gage pressure of the pipe in psi
b. Pressure design strength for internal pressure, in inches
c. Allowable unit stress at the design temperature, in psi 
d. Maximum strain at the average operating temperature, in psi

2. At low pressures and temperatures, the thickness determined by the Barlow formula may be so small that the pipe would have _______ structural strength.

a. Adequate
b. Insufficient 
c. Ample
d. Good

3. A seamless NPS 12, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is 16000 psi. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions.

a. 0.375” 
b. 0.750”
c. 0.353”
d. 0.706”

4. A seamless NPS6, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is 16000 psi. The owneruser specified that the pipe must have 0.1” allowed for corrosion allowance. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions:

a. 0.295” 
b. 0.195”
c. 0.277”
d. 0.706”

5. A seamless NPS 8, A-53 Grade B pipe operators at 700 degrees F and 700 psi. The allowable stress is 16500 psi. The pipe has been in service for 6 years. The original wall thickness of the pipe was 0.375”. The pipe wall now measures 0.30”. Considering no structural requirements, estimate how long the piping can continue to operate and not be below the minimum thickness.

a. 4.68 years
b. 9.8 years 
c. 0 years; pipe now below minimum
d. 10.42 years

6. An Inspector finds a thin area in the body of a NPS 8 (8.625” O.D.) 600# gate valve. The valve’s body is made from ASTM A216 WCB material. The system operates at 700 psi and 750 degrees F. Using a corrosion allowance of 0.125”, what thickness must be present in order to continue to safely operate? Round to nearest hundredth.

a. 0.48”
b. 0.38”
c. 0.51”
d. 0.43”

7. If corrosion or erosion is anticipated for a valve, what should be done prior to installing the valve?

a. Severance thickness determinations should be made when the valves are installed so that the fretting rate and metal ruination can be determined
b. Retirement thickness measurements should be made after installation so that the fatigue rate and metal loss can be determined
c. Reference thickness measurements should be made when the valves are installed so that the corrosion rate and metal loss can be determined 
d. Retina measurements of the macula should be made when the iris’ are installed so the optical rate and losses of perception can be determined

8. Which of the items listed below would NOT normally be contained in inspection records or piping?

a. Original date of installation, the specifications and strength levels of the materials used
b. Original vessel hydrotest pressures and conditions that the tests were performed under 
c. Original thickness measurements and the locations and dates of all subsequent readings
d. Calculated retirement thicknesses

9. Accurate records of a piping system make possible an evaluation of __________ on any piping, valve or fitting:

a. Computerisation
b. Security and continuity
c. Cost and competency
d. Service life 

10. You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping in non-corrosive or very low corrosive service, you find the initial thickness reading of an inspection point to be 0.432” and marked nominal on a NPS 6 pipe. At the next inspection 12 months later you find a reading by ultrasonics of 0.378” at the same point. Twelve months later UT readings were taken and the thickness at the point was still 0.378”. What would this mean to you?

a. No measurement was taken originally, the nominal thickness was listed and the piping probably had an undertolerance of 12.5”
b. There was an error made by the inspector at the installation or the inspector who UT’d the piping at the next inspection made an error
c. The UT machine that the inspector used during the 12 month inspection after installation was defective and not reading correctly
d. The pipe contractor or the installer put the wrong schedule piping in service

11. You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping, you find the letter “C” marked under a column headed by the word METHOD. What does the “C” indicate?

a. The inspection temperature of the pipe was COLD
b. The thickness measurement was made by an inspector with the I.D. OF “C”
c. The thickness measurement was taken with calipers
d. The thickness measurement was CONFIRMED by a second party

12. Which of the following is not an important function of an accurate sketch?

a. Assist in determining future locations that urgently require examinations
b. Identifying systems and circuits in terms of location, size, materials etc
c. Serve as field data sheets
d. None of the above

13. As soon as possible after completing an inspection, the Inspector should:

a. Review the inspection records and schedule the next inspection 
b. Always require a hydrotest
c. Sign all RT records
d. Notify the Piping Engineer, so he can wake up and go home

14. The Wenner 4-Pin methods, the soil bar, and the soil box do not represent methods of determining:

a. Holidays
b. Pipe-to-soil potentials
c. Cathodic protection acceptability
d. All of the above 

15. The total resistivity for a Wenner 4-Pin test that utilizes pins spaced 2 feet apart and a 6 “R” factor is:

a. 2298 ohm/cm 
b. 3500 ohm/cm
c. 6000 ohm/cm
d. 8000 ohm/cm

16. Which of the following is not a consideration when using a soil bar?

a. Using a standard prod bar
b. Avoiding the addition of water
c. Applying pressure on the soil bar after injection
d. None of the above 

17. Which of the following is a consideration when using a soil box:

a. Depth of Pins less than 4% of spacing
b. Ensuring the soil has dried out before testing
c. Avoiding contamination of the sample during handling and storage 
d. All of the above

ASME B16.5 Practice Questions and Answers

Take A Free Practice Test With- Top 32 Latest ASME B16.5 Practice Questions and Answers (Closed Book)

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1. ASME B 16.5 does not cover:

a. Class 150 flanges
b. Class 300 flanged fittings
c. Butt welded pipe caps 
d. All of the above

2. The maximum hydrostatic test pressure permitted for a flange in a system hydrostatic test is:

a. Not required
b. Conducted at 1.5 x class rating @100°F 
c. Conducted at 25 psi above class rating
d. Required only for welded flanges

3. “High strength” bolting is described as equivalent to:

a. ASTM A 193 B5
b. ASTM A 193 B7 
c. ASTM 320 GR8
d. Any high carbon steel bolt

4. The pressure class ratings covered by ASME B16.5 are:

a. 150, 300, 400, 600, 900, 1500, 2500 
b. 150, 300, 400, 450,600,900,1500
c. 125, 150, 300, 400, 600, 900, 1500, 2500
d. 150, 300, 400, 600, 700, 900, 1000, 1500

5. The standard finish for raised face flanges per ASME B16.5 is:

a. 250 µ to 500 µ / inch
b. 125 µ to 250 µ / inch 
c. 260 mm to 500 mm / inch
d. 250 µ / mm to 500 µ / mm

6. Socket weld and threaded flanges are not recommended for service beyond the following temperatures if thermal cycles are involved:

a. –20 – 650°F
b. –30 – 600° F
c. –50 – 500°F 
d. –50 – 500°C

7. “Low strength bolting” is:

a. ≤ 30 KSI yield strength 
b. ≥ 30 KSI yield strength
c. ≥ 30 KSI tensile strength
d. ≥ 100 KSI yield strength

8. Ring joint sidewall surfaces (gasket groove) must not exceed __________roughness.

a. 50 µ / in
b. 63 µ / in 
c. 100 µ/in
d. 63 mm / in

9. Which of the following items must be marked on all flanges or flanged fittings?

a. Temperature
b. Actual working pressure
c. ASTM material specification 
d. Hydrotest pressure

10. When used above ________ °F, class 150 flanges may develop leakage unless special precautions are taken regarding loads or thermal gradients.

a. 150
b. 300
c. 600
d. 400 

11. The three basic parts to a flanged joint are:

a. Flanges, welds, gaskets
b. Flanges, bolts, nuts
c. Flanges, bolts, gaskets
d. Flanges, gaskets, threads

12. Class 600 flanged joints may develop leakage, unless special considerations for thermal gradients are applied at temperatures above ________°F.

a. 600
b. 800
c. 950
d. 750 

13. A Class 400 flanged fitting must be hydrotested at what pressure, if the 100°F rating is 800 psig?

a. 1020 psig
b. 1200 psig 
c. 1225 psig
d. Not required per ASME B 16.5

14. The maximum temperature for hydro testing a fitting is:

a. 120F 
b. 1250C
c. Per Construction Code requirements
d. Per Owner / User system requirements

15. The minimum duration for hydro testing on NPS 12 fitting shall be:

a. 2 min
b. 1 min
c. 3 min 
d. No requirements to test fittings

16. The maximum depth and radial projection of an imperfection (deeper than the bottom of the serration) on a NPS 14 raised face flange is:

a. 0.31”
b. 0.018”
c. 0.18” 
d. 0.25”

17. On an NPS 24, 600 Class flange, the thickness of the flange (minimum) is:

a. 4 ½”
b. 3.00”
c. 6.0”
d. 4.0” 

18. The allowable pressure (in psig) on a 100°F, Class 150 8” flange made from A182 Grade F2 material is:

a. 170
b. 290
c. 300
d. 400

19. If a Class 1500 flange is to be made from A-182 F347 stainless steel and will be used at 280 psig with a carbon content of 0.09%, at what maximum temperature can this flange be used?

a. 1000°F
b. 1300°F 
c. 1180°F
d. 2000°F

20. What is the minimum wall thickness of a Class 900 fitting that is NPS 16?

a. 1.56” 
b. 2.6”
c. 3.2”
d. 4.1”

21. What is the rated working pressure of a flanged fitting that is a 400 Class with a material stress value of 16,200 psi?

a. 1000 psig 
b. 1500 psig
c. 800 psig
d. 740 psig

22. What is the minimum wall thickness of a NPS 5 Class 1500 fitting?

a. 0.091”
b. 0.91” 
c. 1.00”
d. 1.15”

23. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 300 flange that is made from Group 1.10 material?

a. 1125 psig 
b. 450 psig
c. 1000 psig
d. None of the above

24. A local area has been thinned on the wall thickness of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 8 Class 400, and the local area has been thinned to 0.400”. Is this corrosion acceptable per ASME B 16.5?

a. Yes
b. No 
c. Cannot be calculated from information given
d. Wall thicknesses may not be less than that shown in B16.5

25. In question No.9, what is the maximum circular area of sub-minimum thickness allowed, in square inches?

a. 2.75
b. 0.74
c. 1.85
d. 0.431 

26. From problem No.9 and No.10 above, if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on the fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?

a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 8.0”
d. 3.70” 

27. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 600 flange in a flanged joint made from Group 3.5 material?

a. 2250 psi 
b. 1500 psi
c. 1000 psi
d. None of the above

28. A local area has been thinned on the wall of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 12 Class 900, and the local area has been thinned to 0.945”. What is the minimum acceptable thickness for this thinned area per ASME B 16.5?

a. 0.9375” 
b. 1.250”
c. 1.750”
d. Cannot be calculated from information given

29. From the information in Question No.13, what is the maximum circular area of subminimum thickness allowed in square inches?

a. 2.75”
b. 1.33” 
c. 1.85”
d. 0.431”

30. Using the information in questions No.13, 14 , if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on the fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?

a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 6.52” 
d. 4.70”

31. What would be the calculated thickness of a new NPS 14 flanged fitting with a 900 psi class designation?

a. 0.830”
b. 1.28” .
c. 1.112”
d. None of the above

32. A NPS flanged fitting is operating at a temperature of 6500F and has a pressure class rating of 600 psi. Using a stress value of 17,400 psi, what would be the maximum permitted rated working pressure?

a. 2000 psi
b. 1193 psi
c. 1175 psi 
d. 1500 psi

Top 85 Latest ASME Section V Questions and Answers

Top 85 Latest ASME Section V Questions and Answers (Nondestructive Examination)

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Note: Some questions in this section are true/false or essay type questions, instead of multiple choice. Historically, it has been shown that test questions on involve a good deal of theory that cannot adequately be explored through multiple choice questions (although multiple choice questions only will be on the test).

1. A film side penetrameter can be used for:

a. Inaccessible welds (unable to hand place a source penetrameter) 
b. All welds
c. All castings at any time
d. An alternative to a source-side wire pentrameter

2. A dark image of the “B” on a lighter background is:

a. Acceptable
b. Rejectable
c. Sometimes rejectable
d. None of the above

3. One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the processing details for :

a. Post-examination cleaning
b. Pre-examination cleaning
c. Apply the penetrant
d. All of the above 

4. Non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.

a. True
b. False 

5. The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an ammeter shall be verified :

a. Each year 
b. Each two years
c. When possible
d. Every 6 months

6. When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at least ________ minutes prior to performing the examination.

a. 7
b. 10
c. 5 
d. 1

7. A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.

a. True
b. False 

8. Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on:

a. Carbon steels
b. Ferritic stainless steels
c. Austenitic stainless steels 
d. None of the above

9. Black light intensity shall be measured with a _______ when conducting fluorescent PT.

a. Dark room meter
b. Photo-meter
c. Black light meter
d. None of the above

10. The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as radiographic images.

a. True 
b. False

11. D.C. yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?

a. True
b. False 

12. How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?

a. 4
b. 6 
c. 2
d. 1

13. Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least _____ of the area to be examined.

a. 1 
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 3

14. Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60 psi and 1000F.

a. True
b. False 

15. The maximum emulsification time shall be:

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. none of the above 

16. Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a calibrated:

a. Densitometer
b. Step Wedge Comparison Strip
c. Light Meter
d. Transmission monitor

17. When using a hydrophillic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and intermediate step that must be taken is:

a. Pre-flooding with emulisifier
b. Pre-cleaning with solvent
c. Pre-rinsing with water 
d. Pre-washing with detergent

18. A welded part is to be radiographed and is 1” thick, with 1/8” reinforcement. What ASTM wire set IQI should be used on these radiographs if a source side technique is used:

a. Set A
b. Set B 
c. Set C
d. Set D

19. When a PT test cannot be conducted between 500-1250F, what must be done, per ASME V?

a. The procedure must be qualified
b. The surface must be re-cleaned
c. The test cannot be conducted
d. None of the above

20. All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with:

a. ASME VIII
b. ASME V
c. The referencing Code section 
d. The written procedure

21. The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes:

a. NDE acceptance crtieria
b. How to perform NDE to achieve a desired result .
c. Where to do NDE (i.e. what welds to examine )
d. Who can be the Authorised inspector.

22. UT equipment is calibrated?

a. Before heat-treatment
b. After completing the examination
c. Prior to visual examination
d. Prior to UT examination .

23. A penetrameter is used on a DWE/DWV. The penetrameter selection is based on:

a. The single wall thickness and weld reinforcement.
b. Both wall thicknesses
c. The single wall thickness for Sch 80 pipe
d. None of the above

24. A suitable means for applying penetrant.

a. Dipping
b. Brushing
c. Spraying
d. Any or all of the above .

25. What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants as to the contaminants in the penetrant?

a. Nickel alloys
b. Austenitic stainless steel alloys
c. Ferritic / martensific stainless steel
d. Both a and b, above .

26. How shall indications be evaluated, i.e. acceptance standards for RT?

a. To ASME V
b. To ASME VIII
c. To B31.3
d. To the referencing Code section .

27. How shall Nondestructive Examination Personnel be qualified?

a. To SNT-TC 1A
b. To CP-189
c. To referencing code requirements .
d. To ACCP rules

28. Which NDE methods are considered “surface” methods?

a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. Both A & C above.

29. What designation is used to indicate the penetrameter is on the film side?

a. A “F” .
b. An “E”
c. A “D”
d. A “FS”

30. What is a shim used for?

a. UT field adequacy
b. RT field direction
c. MT field strength and direction.
d. MT field current applications

31. Why must the surface be closely observed during the application of the PT developer?

a. To ensure proper coating application
b. To ensure excess penetrant removal
c. To allow proper characterization of discontinuities.
d. To see the “groovy” lines form

32. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the magnetic particle method.

a. Lack of penetration
b. Inter-pass lack of fusion
c. Slag inclusions
d. Toe cracks .

33. For a DWE/SWV RT Technique, a minimum of ___________________ exposures shall be made.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 .
d. 4

34. When are location markers placed on the film side in SWV for curved surfaces?

a. Concave side is toward the source
b. Source – to – material distance greater than IR
c. A cobalt source is used
d. Both a and b, above .

35. What is the difference between an inspection and an examination per Section V of the ASME Code?

a. Inspection performed by AI
b. Examination performed by manufacturer’s personnel
c. There is no difference between the two
d. Both a and b, above .

36. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the liquid penetrant method

a. I.P. on an NPS 2 girth weld
b. I.F. at the root of an NPS 2 girth weld
c. HAZ surface cracks on a NPS 2 girth weld .
d. Slag inclusions on a NPS 8 longitudinal weld

37. What is to be done to excess penetrant remaining on the surface after the specified penetration time has elapsed?

a. It must be removed .
b. It can remain on the part
c. It must be developed
d. It must be removed with water only

38. What must be done to ensure 100% coverage on any NDE method?

Answer: All examinations must overlap to ensure 100% coverage of the part.

39. When surface irregularities may mask indications of unacceptable discontinuities, what is required?

Answer: Grinding, machining, or other methods .

40. List the type of discontinuities magnetic particle examination is effective in detecting.

Answer: Surface and slight subsurface indications .

41. What are the six penetrant techniques to be used?

Answer:

Color contrast or fluorescent
a. Water washable
b. Post – emulsifying
c. Solvent removable

42. What are the approved methods of indicating UT thickness measurements?

Answer: CRT, Digital, or meter .

43. How is the “quality” of a radiograph evaluated?

Answer: Ability to see the prescribed hole or wire on the designated penetrameter and compliance with density requirements.

44. Where are RT location markers placed, on the part or on the radiograph?

Answer: On the part .

45. The IQI may be of what two types?

Answer: Hole or wire types .

46. What is the critical hole in a hole type IQI?

Answer: 2T .

47. What identity must also be included in the UT calibration records?

Answer: Equipment, Probe and Calibration block identity .

48. The IQI is normally placed on which side of a part?

Answer: Source side .

49. A 4T hole on a 20 IQI has a diameter of:

Answer: 0.08”

 

50. List 4 types of blemishes (artifacts) not permitted on film.

a) Fogging
b) Processing defects
c) Scratches, finger marks, etc.
d) False indications due to defective screens

51. When is a written radiographic procedure required by ASME V?

Answer: Article 2 requires the use of a written procedure for RT in all cases, but T-150 overrides, which states procedures are only required when specified by the referencing code section (same as for UT,MT,PT and other NDE methods)

52. When should the developer be applied?

Answer:As soon as possible after penetrant removal. Not to exceed time in written procedure.

53. What type of discontinuity is the magnetic particle method most sensitive to?

Answer:Surface discontinuities aligned perpendicular to the magnetic field.

54. What is the examination medium when using MT? What is the probing medium when using MT?

Answer:Ferro magnetic particles, magnetic fields.

55. When must ultrasonic equipment be calibrated?

Answer:
a) Beginning and end of each examination
b) When personnel are changed
c) Anytime malfunction is suspected
d) Linearity check every 90 days

56. How many IQIs should appear on each radiograph, except for panoramic techniques?

Answer:At least one on each radiograph.

57. Are intensifying screens permitted for radiography per ASME V?

 

Answer:Yes, except when restricted by the referencing Code .

58. What two radiographic techniques are noted as available for examinations?

 

Answer: Single wall and double wall .

59. How can compliance with a written radiographic procedure be demonstrated?

Answer: By compliance with density and penetrameter image on the production or procedure qualification radiographs .

60. List the type of discontinuity liquid penetrant examination is effective in detecting.

Answer: Discontinuities that are open to surface .

61. What must be done when a penetrant is to be applied on parts beyond 50°F – 125°F?

Answer: The procedure must be qualified using a quench – cracked aluminium block.

62. The lifting power of yokes must be checked when?

Answer: Prior to use within the last year or if the yoke has been damaged. Permanent magnet yokes checked daily. T272 .

63. How should welded butt-joints be prepared for radiograph?

Answer: The weld ripples or surface irregularities on both the inside (if accessible) and outside shall be removed by any suitable means

64. In magnetic particle examination of a welded joint using yokes, is alternating current or direct current allowed?

Answer: AC yoke (Table – I721).

65. A ____________________________ is a device used to determine the image quality of radiograph

a. A step wedge comparison film
b. A densitometer
c. An IQI .Answer:
d. All of the above e. None of the above

66. In accordance with Section V, wire – type penetrameters:

a. Can always be used .Answer:
b. Can be used unless restricted by the referencing Code
c. Can never be used
d. Can be used only with Type 1 film

67. A. What is meant by “non –destructive examination” of a welded joint?

Answer: An examination of a welded joint that will disclose surface and sub-surface discontinuities without physical harm to the welded joint. Such examinations can be conducted by radiography, ultrasonics, liquid penetrant or magnetic particle testing.

B. Name four methods of non-destructive examination.

Answer:
• Radiographic Examination
• Ultrasonic Examination
• Magnetic Particle Examination
• Liquid Penetrant Examination

68. In a radiographic film of a weld, how are the following characteristics measured or judged?

a. Film sensitivity or quality
Answer:IQI.

b. Film density

Answer:Densitometers or step-wedge comparison films.

 

69. What is radiography?

Answer: A radiograph is a shadow picture produced by the passage of X-rays or gamma – rays through an object onto a film. When the rays pass through the object, part of the radiation penetrates the material and part is absorbed. The amount of radiation absorbed and the amount that penetrates are a function of the thickness of the material. Where a void or discontinuity exists, there is essentially less material to absorb the radiation. Therefore, more radiation will pass through this section and a dark spot corresponding to the projected position of the void will appear on the film.

70. What is the minimum and maximum allowable density through the image of the penetrameter for radiographs made with:

a. A 2000 kV tube?

Answer: 1.8 – 4.0 ( for any X-ray source )

b. Cobalt 60 (Co60)?

Answer: 2.0 – 4.0 ( for any gamma source)

71. A single film technique was used to make a radiograph using a Cobalt-60 source. The minimum permitted density in the area of interest is:

a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
e. None of the above
Answer: e. The correct answer is –15% from the transmitted density through the body of the penetrameter

72. Under ASME Code Section V, what upper and lower density limits are acceptable for viewing if the density through the body of the penetrameter is 2.7?
Assume single film viewing.

Answer:
-15% = 2.295
+30% = 3.510

73. What is the minimum number of IQI required for the following:

A. A complete girth seam containing 30 radiographs shot with a single exposure?

Answer: Requires at least 3 IQIs spaced 1200 apart.

B. Twelve radiographs on a longitudinal seam shot from the outside with a single exposure?

Answer:Requiresat least 12 IQI, one on each film.

74. A radiograph is made using an X-ray source, and two films in each film holder. If the film is to be viewed separately the minimum permitted density would be:

a. 4.0
b. 1.8 .Answer
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
e. None of the above

75. A weld with a nominal thickness of 1.5 inch is to be radiographed using a film side penetrameter. The penetrameter designation
should be: (Note: This is an open book question)

a. 25 Answer
b. 30
c. 35
d. Both a and b are acceptable?

76. A) What are hole – type penetrameters and what are they used for?

Answer:An IQI is a small strip of material, fabricated of radiographically similar material to the object being inspected, and having a thickness of approximately 2% of the object being radiographed. The IQI has three holes in it. The sizes of these holes are 1T, 2T and 4T where “T” is the thickness of the IQI. The 2T is designated as the essential hole, i.e., the hole whose image must appear on the radiograph. IQI thickness and essential hole size requirements are listed in tables in Section V of the ASME Code. The IQI is identified with a number made of lead that is attached to the IQI. This number indicates the thickness of the IQI in thousandths of an inch. An IQI is used for evaluating radiographic technique in that it serves as an image quality indicator, proper technique should display the IQI image and the specified hole.

B) What are wire penetrameters and what are they used for?

Answer: Wire type IQI use thin wires to ascertain sensitivity instead of holes. The ability to see the wire required by the Code indicates a quality radiograph.

77. In radiographing a butt welded joint of 1” thickness, on what side of the weld is the penetrameter normally placed?

Answer: The IQI should be placed the source side of the material being radiographed. However, where inaccessibility prevents this, the IQI may be placed on the film side of the material being radiographed provided a lead letter “F” at least as high as the identification number is placed adjacent to the IQI.

78. What type of flaws may be detected by:

1. Liquid Penetrant testing?

Answer:Surface discontinuities

2. Magnetic Particle testing?

Answer:Surface and slight sub-surface discontinuitie

3. Radiographic examination?

Answer:Surface and sub-surface discontinuities

4. Ultrasonic examination?

Answer: Surface and sub-surface discontinuities

79. What is a densitometer used to determine?

Answer: A densitometer ( or step wedge comparison film ) shall be used for judging film density requirements. Film density is a measure of overall darkening of the radiograph, which is directly related to the sensitivity, definition, and overall quality of the technique.

80. Name two radiation sources permitted for radiographic examination in ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.

Answer:The two common radiographic sources in industrial use today are X-ray machines and artificially produced radioactive isotopes of certain metallic elements.

81. When reviewing a radiograph, a dark image of the letter B can be seen on the film. Does this indicate an unacceptable radiograph?

Answer:No.

82. Describe how liquid penetrant examination should be performed in order to detect discontinuities that are open to the surface, per Article 6 of ASME Code section V.

 

Answer: The part is first thoroughly cleaned of oil, dirt, etc, and then a liquid penetrant is applied to the surface to be examined and allowed to enter the discontinuities. All excess penetrant is then removed, the part is dried, and a developer is applied. The developer functions both as a blotter to absorb penetrant that has been trapped in discontinuities and as a contrasting background to enhance the visibility of penetrant indications. The dyes in penetrants are either color contrast (visible under white light) or fluorescent (visible under ultraviolet light)

83. A) If IQIs are not placed on the source side, what rules apply?

Answer: The penetrameter should be placed on the source side of the material being radiographed. However, where inaccessibility prevents this, the penetrameter may be placed on the film side of the material being radiographed provided a lead letter “F” at least as high as the identification number is placed adjacent to the penetrameter.

B) For materials being radiographed other than welds, where are the IQIs placed?

Answer:For material other than weld a source side penetrameter shall be placed in the area of interest.

84. If the density through the IQI is 2.50, what would the maximum allowable density and minimum allowable density be through the weld represented by this un-shimmed IQI?

Answer:
Minus 15% to plus 30% allowed
2.5 + 30% = 2.5 + 0.75 = 3.25
2.5 – 15% = 2.5 – 0.4 = 2.125

85. On a set of cassettes containing film for a seam just radiographed you notice the lead location markers (i.e. 1-2, 2-3 etc.) are taped to the cassettes. Would these radiographs be acceptable?

Answer:No. Location makers that are to appear on the radiographic film should be placed on the part being examined and not on the cassettes.

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1) API 570 covers inspection, repair alteration, and re-rating procedures for metallic piping systems that __________.

a) Are being fabricated
b) Does not fall under ASTM B31.3
c) Have been in-service.
d) Has not been tested

2) API 570 was developed for the petroleum refining and chemical process industries.

a) It shall be used for all piping systems
b) It may be used, where practical, for any piping system.
c) It can be used, where necessary, for steam piping
d) It may not be used unless agreed to by all parties

3) API 570 __________ be used as a substitute for the original construction requirements governing a piping system before it is placed in-service.

a) Shall not.
b) Should
c) May
d) Can

4) API 570 applies to piping systems for process fluids, hydrocarbons, and similar flammable or toxic fluid services. Which of the following services is not specifically applicable?

a) Raw, intermediate, and finished petroleum products
b) Water, steam condensate, boiler feed water.
c) Raw, intermediate, and finished chemical products
d) Hydrogen, natural gas, fuel gas, and flare systems

5) Some of the classes of piping systems that are excluded or optional for coverage under API 570 are listed below. Which one is a mandatory included class?

a) Water
b) Catalyst lines.
c) Steam
d) Boiler feed water

6) The __________ shall be responsible to the owner-user for determining that the requirements of API 570 for inspection, examination, and testing are met.

a) Piping Engineer
b) Inspector.
c) Repair Organisation
d) Operating Personnel

7) Who is responsible for the control of piping system inspection programs, inspection frequencies and maintenance of piping?

a) Authorised Piping Inspector
b) Owner-user.
c) Jurisdiction
d) Contractor

8) An authorised piping inspector shall have the following qualifications. Pick the one that does not belong in this list:

a) Four years of experience inspecting in-service piping systems.
b) High school education plus 3 years of experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of piping systems
c) Two year certificate in engineering or technology plus 2 years of experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of piping systems
d) Degree in engineering plus one year experience in the design, construction, repair, operation, or inspection of piping systems

9) Risk based inspections include which of the following:

a) Likelihood assessment
b) Consequence analysis
c) Operating and inspection histories
d) All of the above.

10) An RBI assessment can be used to alter the inspection strategy provided:

a) The degradation methods are identified
b) The RBI is fully documented
c) A third party conducts the RBI
d) Both A and B above.

 

11) Which one of the following is not a specific type of an area of deterioration?

a) Rectifier performance.
b) Injection points
c) Deadlegs
d) Environmental cracking

12) Injection points subject to accelerated or localised corrosion may be treated as __________.

a) The focal point of an inspection circuit
b) Separate inspection circuits.
c) Piping that must be renewed on a regular schedule
d) Locations where corrosion inhibitors must be used

13) The recommended upstream limit of inspection of an injection point is a minimum of:

a) 12 feet or 3 pipe lengths whichever is smaller
b) 12 inches or 3 pipe diameters whichever is smaller
c) 12 inches or 3 pipe diameters whichever is greater.
d) 12 feet or 3 pipe lengths which is greater

14) The recommended downstream limit of inspection of an injection point is a minimum of

a) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 feet beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is less.
b) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 feet beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is greater
c) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 inches beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is less
d) Second change in flow direction past the injection point, or 25 inches beyond the first change in flow direction whichever is greater

15) Select thickness measurement locations (TMLs) within injection point circuits subjected to localised corrosion according to the following guidelines. Select the one that does not belong.

a) Establish TMLs on appropriate fittings within the injection point circuit
b) Establish at least one TML at a location at least 25 feet beyond the downstream limit of the injection point.
c) Establish TMLs on the pipe wall at location of expected pipe wall impingement or injected fluid
d) Establish TMLs at both the upstream and downstream limits of the injection point circuit

16) What are the preferred methods of inspecting injection points ?

a) Radiography and / or ultrasonics.
b) Hammer test and / or radiograph
c) Ultrasonics and / or liquid penetrant
d) Liquid penetrant and / or eddy current

17) During periodic scheduled inspections, more extensive inspection should be applied to an area beginning __________ upstream of the injection nozzle and continuing for at least __________ pipe diameters downstream of the injection point.

a) 10 inches, 20
b) 12 feet, 10
c) 12 inches, 10.
d) 10 feet, 10

18) Why should deadlegs in piping be inspected?

a) API 510 mandates the inspection of deadlegs
b) Acid products and debris build up in deadlegs
c) The corrosion rate in deadlegs can vary significantly from adjacent active piping.
d) Caustic products and debris build up in deadlegs

19) Both the stagnant end and the connection to an active line of a deadleg should be monitored. In a hot piping system, why does the high point of a deadleg corrode and need to be inspected?

a) Corrosion occurs due to directed currents set up in the deadleg
b) Erosion occurs due to convective currents set up in the deadleg
c) Corrosion occurs due to convective currents set up in the deadleg.
d) Erosion occurs due to directed currents set up in the deadleg

20) What is the best thing to do with deadlegs that are no longer in service?

a) Ultrasonically inspect often
b) Radiograph often
c) Inspect often
d) Remove them.

21) What are the most common forms of corrosion under insulation (CUI).

a) Localised corrosion of non-ferrous metals and chloride stress corrosion cracking of carbon steel
b) Localised corrosion of chrome-moly steel and chloride stress corrosion cracking of ferritic stainless steel
c) Localised corrosion of carbon steel and chloride stress corrosion cracking of austenitic stainless steel.
d) Localised corrosion of nickel-silicon alloy and caustic stress corrosion of austenitic stainless steel

22) What climatic area may require a very active program for corrosion under insulation?

a) Cooler northern continent locations
b) Cooler direr, mid-continent locations
c) Warmer, marine locations.
d) Warmer drier, desert locations

 

23) Certain areas and types of piping systems are potentially more susceptible to corrosion under insulation. Which of the items listed is not susceptible to CUI?

a) Areas exposed to mist over-spray from cooling water towers
b) Carbon steel piping systems that normally operate in-service above 250 degrees but are in intermittent service
c) Deadlegs and attachments that protrude from insulated piping and operate at a different temperature than the temperature of the active line
d) Carbon steel piping systems, operating between 250 degrees F and 600 degrees F.

24) What location is subject to corrosion under insulation and inspection contributes to it?

a) Locations where pipe hangers and other supports exist
b) Locations where insulator has been stripped to permit inspection of the piping
c) Locations where insulation plugs have been removed to permit piping thickness measurements.
d) Locations where there is damaged or missing insulation jacketing

25) Soil-to-air (S/A) interfaces for buried piping are a location where localised corrosion may take place. If the buried part is excavated for inspection, how deep should the excavation be to determine if there is hidden damage?

a) 12 to 18 inches
b) 6 to 12 nches.
c) 12 to 24 inches
d) 6 to 18 inches

26) At concrete-to-air and asphalt-to-air interfaces of buried piping without cathodic protection, the inspector look for evidence that the caulking or seal at the interface has deteriorated and allowed moisture ingress. If such a condition exists on piping systems over __________ years old, it may be necessary to inspect for corrosion beneath the surface before resealing the joint.

a) 8
b) 5
c) 15
d) 10

27) An example of service-specific and localised corrosion is:-

a) Corrosion under insulation in areas exposed to steam vents
b) Unanticipated acid or caustic carryover from processes into non-alloyed piping
c) Corrosion in deadlegs
d) Corrosion of underground piping at soil-to-air interface where it ingresses or egresses.

28) Erosion can be defined as:

a) Galvanic corrosion of a material where uniform losses occur
b) Removal of surface material by action of numerous impacts of solid or liquid particles
c) Gradual loss of material by a corrosive medium acting uniformly on the material surface
d) Pitting on the surface of a material to the extent that a rough uniform loss occurs

29) A combination of corrosion and erosion results in significantly greater metal loss that can be expected from corrosion or erosion alone. This type of loss occurs at:

  • a) High-velocity and high-turbulence areas
  • b) Areas where condensation or exposure to wet hydrogen sulphide or carbonates occur
  • c) Surface-to-air interfaces f buried piping
  • d) Areas where gradual loss of material occurs because of a corrosive medium

30) Environmental cracking of austenite stainless steels is caused many times by:-

a) Exposing areas to high-velocity and highturbulence streams
b) Excessive cyclic stresses that are often very low
c) Exposure to chlorides from salt water, washup water, etc.
d) Creep of the material by long time exposure to high temperature and stress

31) When the inspector suspects or is advised that specific piping circuits may be susceptible to environmental cracking, the inspector should:

a) Call in a piping engineer for consultation.
b) Investigate the history of the piping circuit.
c) Obtain advice from a Metallurgical Engineer.
d) Schedule supplemental inspections.

32) If environmental cracking is detected during internal inspection of pressure vessels, what should the inspector do?

a) The inspector should designate appropriate piping spools upstream and downstream of the vessel to be inspected if piping is susceptible to environmental cracking.
b) The inspector should consult with a metallurgical engineer to determine extent of the problems
c) The inspector should review history of adjacent piping to determine if it has ever been affected.
d) The inspector should consult with a piping engineer to determine the extent of the problems.

33) If external or internal coatings or refractory liners on a piping circuit are in good condition, what should an inspector do?

a) After inspection, select a portion of the liner for removal
b) The entire liner should be removed for inspection
c) Selected portions of the liner should be removed for inspection
d) After inspection, if any separation, breaks, holes or blisters are found, it may be necessary to remove portions of the lining to determine the condition under it.

34) What course of action should be followed it a coating of coke is found on the interior of a large pipe of a reactor on a Fluid Catalytic Cracking Unit?

a) Determine whether such deposits have active corrosion beneath them. If corrosion is present, thorough inspection in selected areas may be required.
b) The coke deposits should be removed from the area for inspection.
c) The coke deposits may be ignored – the deposits will probably protect the line from corrosion.
d) Consult with a Process Engineer and a Metallurgist on the necessity of removing the coke deposits.

35) Fatigue cracking of piping systems may result from

a) Embrittlement of the metal due to it operating below its transition temperature
b) Erosion or corrosion / erosion that thin the piping where it cracks
c) Excessive cyclic stresses that are often well below the static yield strength of the material
d) Environmental cracking caused by stress corrosion due to the presence of caustic, amine, or other substance.

36) Where can fatigue cracking typically be first detected?

a) At points of low-stress intensification such as reinforced nozzles
b) At points of high-stress intensification such as branch connections
c) At points where cyclic stresses are very low
d) At points where there are only bending or compressive stresses.

37) What are the preferred NDE methods for detecting fatigue cracking?

a) Eddy current testing ultrasonic A-scan testing, and / or possibly hammer testing
b) Liquid penetrant testing, magnetic particle testing and / or possibly acoustic emission testing.
c) Visual testing, eddy current testing and / or possibly ultrasonic testing
d) Acoustic emission testing, hydro-testing, and / or possibly ultrasonic testing.

38) Creep is dependent on:

a) Time, temperature, and stress
b) Material, product contained, and stress
c) Temperature, corrosive medium, and load
d) Time, product contained and load

39) An example of where creep cracking has been experienced in the industry is in the problems experienced with cracking of 1.25 % Chrome steels operating at temperatures above __________ °F.

a) 500
b) 900
c) 1000
d) 1200

40) Brittle fracture can occur in carbon, low-alloy and other ferritic steels at or below __________.

a) 140 degree
b) Ambient
c) 100 degree
d) 30 degree

41) Water and aqueous solutions in piping systems may freeze and cause failure because of the

a) Expansion of these materials
b) Contraction of these materials
c) Construction of these materials
d) Decrease of these materials

42) Different types of inspection and surveillance are appropriate depending on the circumstances and the piping system. Pick the one that does not belong in the following list:-

a) Internal and external visual inspection
b) Thickness measurement inspection
c) Vibrating piping inspection
d) Chemical analysis inspection

43) Internal visual inspections are __________ on piping unless it is a large diameter transfer line, duct, catalyst line or other large diameter piping system.

a) The most effective inspection
b) The most useful means of inspection
c) Not normally performed
d) The major means of inspection

44) Name an additional opportunity for a normal non-destructive internal inspection of piping.

a) When the piping fails and the interior is revealed
b) When maintenance asks for an internal inspection
c) When piping flanges are disconnected
d) When a fire occurs and the pipe is in the fire

45) Why is thickness measurement inspection performed?

  • a) To satisfy jurisdictional requirements
    b) To determine the internal condition and remaining thickness of the piping components
    c) To determine the external condition and amount of deposits inside the piping
  • d) To satisfy heat transfer requirements of the piping

46) Who performs a thickness measurement inspection?

  • a) The operator or control man
  • b) The inspector or examiner
  • c) The maintenance workers or supervisor
  • d) The Jurisdiction or OSHA

47) When corrosion product build-up is noted during an external visual inspection at a pipe support contact area, lifting of such supports may be required for inspection. When doing this, care should be:

  • a) Exercised if the piping is in-service
  • b) Used when determining the course of action
  • c) Practiced so as not to disturb the supports
  • d) Taken that a complete record of the problem is made

48) Qualified operating or maintenance personnel also may conduct external visual inspections when:

  • a) Satisfactory to the owner-user
  • b) Acceptable to the inspector
  • c) Agreeable to the maintenance supervisor
  • d) Permissible to the operation supervisor

49) Who would normally report vibrating or swaying piping to engineering or inspection personnel?

a) Operating personnel
b) Maintenance personnel
c) Jurisdictional personnel
d) OSHA personnel

50) Thermography is used to check for:

a) Vibrating sections of the piping system
b) Detecting localised corrosion in the piping system
c) Abnormal thermal expansion of piping systems
d) Hot spots in refractory lined piping systems

51) Thickness measurement locations (TMLs) are specific __________ along the piping circuit where inspections are to be made

a) Points
b) Areas
c) Items
d) Junctures

52) The minimum thickness at each TML can be located by:

a) Electromagnetic techniques
b) Ultrasonic scanning or radiography
c) Hammer testing
d) MT and / or PT

53) Where appropriate, thickness measurements should include measurements at each of __________ on pipe and fittings:

a) Two quadrants
b) Three locations
c) Four quadrants
d) Six points

54) Where special attention should be placed when taking thickness measurements of an elbow?

a) The outlet end
b) The inlet end
c) The inside and outside radius
d) The sides

55) TMLs should be marked on inspection drawings and __________ to allow repetitive measurements

a) On the inspectors notes
b) On a computer system
c) On the piping system
d) On maintenance department charts

56) What is taken into account by an experienced inspector when selecting TMLs?

a) The amount of corrosion expected
b) The patterns of corrosion that would be expected
c) The number and the cost of reading the TMLs
d) Whether the TMLs are easily accessed

57) In theory, a piping circuit subject to perfectly uniform corrosion could be adequately monitored with __________ TMLs.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

58) More TMLs should be selected for piping systems with any of the following characteristics:

a) Low potential for creating a safety or environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
b) More complexity in terms of fittings, branches, deadlegs, and injection points, etc.
c) Relatively non-corrosive piping systems
d) Long, straight-run piping systems

59) Fewer TMLs can be selected for piping systems with any of the following characteristics:

a) More complexity in terms of fittings, branches, deadlegs, and injection points, etc.
b) Higher expected or experienced corrosion rates
c) Long, straight-run piping systems
d) Higher potential for localised corrosion

60) TMLs can be eliminated for piping systems with the following characteristics:

a) Higher potential for creating a safety or environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
b) Low potential for creating a safety or environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
c) Extremely low potential for creating a safety of environmental emergency in the event of a leak.
d) More complexity in terms of fittings, branches, deadlegs, and injection points, etc.

61) What is usually the most accurate means for obtaining thickness measurements on installed pipe larger than NPS 1?

a) MT
b) UT
c) PT
d) ET

62) What thickness measuring technique does not require the removal of some external piping insulation?

a) AE
b) UT
c) ET
d) RT

63) When ultrasonic thickness measurements are taken above __________ degrees F, instruments couplants, and procedures should be used that will result in accurate measurements at the higher temperature

a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 250

64) Typical digital thickness gages may have trouble measuring thickness less than __________ inches.

a) 0.2188
b) 0.1875
c) 0.1562
d) 0.1250

65) When pressure testing of piping systems are conducted, they shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of:

a) ASME B31.3
b) ASME B&PV Code, Section VIII
c) SA B16.5
d) API 510

66) If a lower pressure test (lower than prescribed by code) is used only for tightness of piping systems, the __________ may designate the pressure

a) Owner-user
b) Inspector
c) Jurisdiction
d) Contractor

67) The preferred medium for a pressure test is __________:

a) Steam
b) Air
c) Water
d) Hydrocarbon

68) If a non-toxic hydrocarbon (flammable) is used as the test medium, the liquid flash point shall be at least __________ °F or greater.

a) 95
b) 100
c) 110
d) 120

69) Piping fabricated of or having components of 300 series stainless steel should be tested with __________.

a) Water with a pH of 4
b) Water with a pH of 6
c) Water with a chloride content of less than 400 ppm chlorides
d) Steam condensates

70) For sensitised austenitic stainless steel, piping subject to polythionic stress corrosion cracking, consideration should be given to using __________ for pressure testing

a) An acidic-water solution
b) An alkaline-water solution
c) A water with a pH of 5
d) A water with a pH of 4

71) When a pipe requires post weld heat treatment, when should the pressure test be performed?

a) During heat treatment
b) Before any heat treatment
c) After any heat treatment
d) No test is required

72) During a pressure test, where test pressure will exceed the set pressure of the safety relieve valve or valves on a piping system, the safety relief valve or valves should be __________ when carrying out the test.

a) Altered by screwing down the adjusting screw
b) Reset to exceed the test pressure
c) Checked or tested
d) Removed or blanked

73) When using block valves to isolate a piping system for pressure test, what precaution should be taken?

a) Do not use a globe valve during a test
b) Make sure the packing gland of the valve is tight
c) Do not exceed the permissible seat pressure of the valve
d) Check the bonnet bolts to make sure they are tight

74) Several methods may be used to verify that the correct alloy piping is in a system. Pick the incorrect method from the list below:

a) Holography
b) Optical spectrographic analyser
c) X-ray fluorescent analyser
d) Chemical spot checking

75) Name a part of a piping system that thickness measurements are not normally routinely taken.

a) Elbows
b) Expansion loops
c) Tees
d) Valves

76) If environmental cracking is found during inservice inspection of welds, who assesses the problem?

a) Owner-user
b) Inspector
c) Piping Engineer
d) Metallurgist

77) If an inspector finds an imperfection in an original fabrication weld and analysis is required to assess the impact of the weld quality on piping integrity, which of the following may perform the analysis?

a) An API 510 inspector, WPS inspector, A Pressure Vessel Engineer
b) An API 570 inspector, a CWI inspector, a piping engineer
c) An owner-user, a B31.3 inspector, an industrial engineer
d) A Jurisdictional representative, a API 574 inspector, a Chemical Engineer

78) According to API 570, some welds in a piping system that has been subjected to radiography according to ASME B31.3:

a) Will meet random radiograph requirements and will perform satisfactorily in-service without a hydrotest
b) Will not meet random radiograph requirements, and will not perform satisfactorily in-service even though hydrotested.
c) Will meet random radiograph requirements, and will not perform satisfactorily in-service after a hydrotest
d) Will not meet random radiograph requirements, but will still perform satisfactorily in-service after being hydrotested.

 

79) How should fasteners and gaskets be examined to determine whether they meet the material specifications:

a) All fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if their markings are correct according to ASME and ASTM standards
b) A representative sample of the fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if their markings are correct according to ASME and ASTM standards
c) Purchase records of all fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if the fasteners and gaskets meet ASME and ASTM standards
d) A representative sample of the purchase records of fasteners and gaskets should be checked to see if the fasteners and gaskets meet ASME and ASTM standards.

80) When checking flange and valve bonnet bolts for corrosion, what type of NDT is usually used?

a) RT
b) UT
c) VT
d) AE

81) What course of action is called for when an inspector finds a flange joint that has been clamped and pumped with sealant?

a) Disassemble the flange joint; renew the fasteners and gaskets. The flanges may also require renewal or repair.
b) Renew all the fasteners and renew the gasket if leakage is still apparent.
c) Check for leakage at the bolts; if re-pumping is contemplated, affected fasteners should be renewed.
d) No action is required since the joint has been pumped with a sealant.

82) All process piping systems must be categorised into different classes. On what are the classifications selection based?

a) Requirements of jurisdiction and the proximity of population areas
b) Potential safety and environmental effects should a leak occur
c) Liability to the owner-user and the requirements of the jurisdiction
d) Access to the systems for inspection and closeness to population areas

82) (A) Inspection strategy based on likelihood and consequence of failure is called:

a) RBI
b) FFS
c) BIR
d) MSOS

82) (B) An RBI assessment can be used to __________ the inspection interval limits in Table 1 of API 570 or the extent of the inspection conducted:

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Either a or b above
d) None of the above

82) © When an RBI assessment is used to increase or decrease inspection intervals, the assessment shall be conducted on Class 1 systems at a maximum interval of __________ years.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 3

83) Listed below are several examples of a CLASS 1 piping system. Which one does not belong?

a) Anhydrous hydrogen chloride;
b) Hydrofluoric acid
c) Piping over or adjacent to water and piping over public throughways
d) Distillate and product lines to and from storage and loading

84) Of the three classification of piping systems, which includes the majority of unit processes and selected off-site piping?

a) Class 3
b) Combination of classes 1 and 2
c) Class 1
d) Class 2

85) Class 3 piping is described as being in services:

a) With the highest potential of resulting in an immediate emergency if a leak occurs.
b) That are flammable but do not significantly vaporise when they leak and are not located in high-activity areas
c) That are not flammable and pose no significant risk to populated areas
d) That are not in classes 1 and 2.

86) Who establishes inspection interval for thickness measurements, external visual inspections and for internal and supplemental inspections?

a) Piping engineer
b) Owner-user or the inspector
c) Chemical Engineer
d) Piping engineer and the jurisdiction

87) Thickness measurement inspection should be scheduled based on the calculation of not more than

a) One half the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval of 5 years whichever is shorter.
b) One half the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval allowed by API 570 in Table 1, whichever is shorter
c) One fourth the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval of 10 years whichever is shorter.
d) One quarter the remaining life determined from corrosion rates or the maximum interval allowed by API 570 in Table 1, whichever is shorter.

88) For external inspections for potential corrosion under insulation (CUI) on Class 1 systems, the examination should include at least __________ percent of all suspect areas and __________ percent of all areas of damaged insulation.

a) 50, 75
b) 50, 33
c) 75, 50
d) 25, 10

89) Piping systems that are known to have a remaining life of over __________ years or that are protected against external corrosion need not have insulation removed for the periodic external inspection.

a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 20

90) For Class 3 piping systems, the examination for corrosion under insulation (CUI) should include at least __________ percent of all suspect areas.

a) 50
b) 30
c) 10
d) 0

91) For Class 2 piping, the extent of CUI inspections on a system operating at – 45oF will be:

a) 75% of damaged areas, 50% of suspect areas
b) 50% of suspect areas, 33% of damaged areas
c) 33% of damaged areas, 50% of suspect areas
d) None of the above

92) Small bore piping (SBP) that is Class I shall be inspected

a) Where corrosion has been experienced
b) At the option of the inspector
c) To the same requirements as primary process piping
d) Only if it has dead legs

93) Inspection of small bore piping (SBP) that is secondary and auxiliary (associated with instruments and machinery) is

a) Only required where corrosion has been experienced
b) Optional
c) Only if it has dead legs
d) Only if it is threaded

94) If an inspector finds threaded small bore piping (SBP) associated with machinery and subject to fatigue damage, he should:

a) Plan periodically to assess it and consider it for possible renewal with a thicker wall or upgrade it to welded components.
b) Inspect it only if it is corroded and the class of service requires an inspection.
c) Call for dismantling the threaded joints for close inspection to determine if any cracks are in the roots of the threads.
d) Have all the threaded piping renewed at each inspection period.

95) An eight-inch diameter piping system is installed in December 1979. The installed thickness if measured as 0.34”. The minimum thickness of the pipe is 0.20”. It is inspected 12/83 and the thickness is found to be 0.32”. An inspection 12/87 reveals a loss of 0.01” from the 12/85 inspection. During 12/89 the thickness was found to be 0.29”. The last inspection was during 12/95 and the thickness was found to be 0.26”. What is the long-term corrosion rate of this system?

a) 0.005”/year
b) 0.0075”/year
c) 0.00375”/year
d) 0.0025”/year

96) Using the information in question 95, calculate the short-term corrosion rate:

a) 0.005”/year
b) 0.0075”/year
c) 0.00375”/year
d) 0.0025”/year

97) Using the information in questions 95 and 96, determine the remaining life of the system:

a) 18 years
b) 15 years
c) 12 years
d) 6 years

98) You have a new piping system that has just been installed. It is completely new and no information exists to establish a corrosion rate. Also, information is no available on a similar system. You decide to put the system in service and NDT it later to determine the corrosion rate. How long do you allow the system to stay in service before you take your first thickness readings?

a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months

99) After an inspection interval is completed and if calculations indicate that an inaccurate rate of corrosion has been assumed in a piping system, how do you determine the corrosion rate for the next inspection period?

a) Check the original calculations to find out what the error is in the original assumption.
b) Unless the corrosion rate is higher, the initial rates shall be used.
c) The corrosion rate shall be adjusted to agree with the actual rate found.
d) If the corrosion rate is higher than originally assumed, call in a corrosion specialist.

100) If a piping system is made up of unknown materials and computations must be made to determine the minimum thickness of the pipe, what can the inspector or the piping engineer do t establish the minimum thickness?

a) The lowest grade material and joint efficiency in the applicable code may be assumed for calculations.
b) Samples must be taken from the piping and testing for maximum tensile stress and yield strength will determine the allowable stress to be used.
c) The piping made of the unknown material must be removed from service and current piping of known material must be installed.
d) The piping of unknown material may be subjected to a hydrostatic stress tests while having strain gages on it to determine its yield strength and thus allowable stress.

101) A piping engineer is designing a piping service with high potential consequences if a failure occurs, i.e., a 350 psi natural gas line adjacent to a high density population area. What should he consider doing for unanticipated situations?

a) Have all his calculations checked twice.
b) Increase the required minimum thickness.
c) Notify the owner-user and the jurisdiction.
d) Set up an emergency evacuation procedure.

102) When evaluating locally thinned areas, the surface of the weld includes __________ on either side of the weld or __________ times the minimum measured thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater.

a) 0.5”, 3
b) 1”, 2
c) 2”, 1
d) 1.5”, 1.5

103) An inspector finds a thin area in a fabricated 24” diameter pipe. The thin area includes a longitudinal weld in the pipe and is 10 feet long and 2 foot circumferentially. Calculations show that with 0.85 joint factor, the pipe must be repaired, renewed, etc. or the pressure in the pipe must be lowered. The owner does not want to do any hot work on the pipe and he does not wish to lower the pressure. What other course could you follow?

  • a) Write the results of the inspection up and leave it with the owner.
  • b) Radiograph the weld 100 % and increase the joint factor to one.
  • c) Insist that the weld be repaired or renewed or that the pressure be lowered.
  • d) Call in a regulator agency to force the owner to repair, renew, etc. the line.

104) Piping stress analysis is done during the system’s original design. How can the inspector make use of stress analysis information?

  • a) An inspector cannot use this information. It is only meaningful to a piping engineer.
  • b) It can be used to make sure the piping system was originally evaluated and designed correctly.
  • c) It can be used to concentrate inspection efforts at locations most prone to fatigue or creep damage, and to solve vibration problems.
  • d) The inspector should use this information to evaluate the need for conducting additional piping stress analysis.

105) You are inspecting a piping system. You find a significant loss of material (a major increase of corrosion rate) in gas oil piping (used as reboiler oil, temperature 500°F) on a Fluid Catalytic Cracking Unit. What is the best course of action for you to take?

  • a)The losses may be reported to your supervisor for corrective response
  • b) The losses should be recorded and reported in your final report after the unit has started.
  • c) It shall be reported to the owner-user for appropriate action.
  • d) Replace excessively thin piping and note replacement in the final report after unit startup.

106) The __________ shall maintain appropriate permanent and progressive records of each piping system covered by API 570.

  • a) Inspector
  • b) Owner-user
  • c) Jurisdiction
  • d) Examiner

107) When making repairs and alterations to piping systems, the principles of __________ or the code to which the piping system was built shall be followed:

  • a) ASME B31.3
  • b) API 570
  • c) API 574
  • d) ASME B&PV Code

108) Repair and alteration work must be done by a repair organisation as defined in API 570 and must be authorised by the __________ prior to its commencement:

  • a) Jurisdiction
  • b) Inspector
  • c) Owner-user
  • d) Examiner

109) Authorisation for alteration work to a piping system may be given by the inspector after:

  • a) Notifying the jurisdiction and getting their approval
  • b) Consulting API 570 and getting the approval of the owner-user
  • c) Consultation with and approval by a piping engineer
  • d) Discussing with and consent by an examiner

110) A repair procedure involving welding requires that the root pass of the weld be inspected before continuing the weld. A “hold” on the repair is required at this point. Who designates this “hold?”

  • a) A metallurgist
  • b) The owner-user
  • c) An API 570 inspector
  • d) The welder supervisor

111) What type of repairs and procedures may the inspector give prior general authorisation to continue (provided the inspector is satisfied with the competency of the repair organization)?

  • a) Major repairs and minor procedures
  • b) Limited or routine repairs and procedures
  • c) Alterations and re-ratings
  • d) Minor re-ratings and alterations

112) Who approves all proposed methods of design, execution, materials, welding procedures, examination and testing of inservice piping?

  • a) The jurisdiction or the piping engineer as appropriate
  • b) The analyst and the operator as appropriate
  • c) The examiner and the piping programmer as appropriate
  • d) The inspector or the piping engineer as appropriate

113) Who must give approval for any on-stream welding?

  • a) Owner-user
  • b) Jurisdiction
  • c) Examiner
  • d) Analyst

114) An inspector finds a crack in the parent metal of a pipe adjacent to a support lug. The pipe was being inspected after a 5 year run. Before repairing, he should:

  • a) Notify the jurisdiction prior to the start of any repairs
  • b) Write a detailed procedure for the repair organisations use in repairing the crack
  • c) Consult with the piping engineer to identify and correct the cause of the crack.
  • d) Consult with a metallurgist prior to writing a procedure to repair the crack.

115) A full encirclement welded split sleeve designed by a piping engineer may be applied over a damaged or corroded area of a pipe. This is considered a temporary repair. When should a permanent repair be made?

  • a) If the owner-user designates the welded split sleeve as permanent, it may remain.
  • b) A full encirclement welded split sleeve is permanent if okayed by the inspector.
  • c) A full encirclement welded split sleeve is considered a permanent repair.
  • d) A permanent repair must be made at the next available maintenance opportunity.

116) What type of defect, corrosion, pitting and / or discontinuity should not be repaired by a full encirclement welded split sleeve?

a) A longitudinal check
b) A circumferential crack
c) Pits that are one half through wall
d) General corrosion in the longitudinal direction.

117) If a repair area is localised (for example, pitting or pin-holes) and the specified minimum yield strength (SMYS) of the pipe is not more than __________ psi, a temporary repair may be made by fillet welding a properly designed plate patch over the pitted area:

a) 30,000 psi
b) 55,000 psi
c) 40,000 psi
d) 36,000 psi

118) Insert patches (flush patches may be used to repair damaged or corroded areas of pipe if several requirements are met. One of these is that an insert patch (flush patch) may be of any shape but it shall have rounded corners with __________ minimum radii.

a) 0.375”
b) 0.50”
c) 0.75”
d) 1”

119) An inspector finds a pin-hole leak in a weld during an on-stream inspection of a piping system. A permissible temporary repair is :-

a) The use of plastic steel to seal off the leak
b) Driving a wooden plug into the hole
c) Screwing a self tapping screw into the hole
d) The installation of a properly designed and fabricated bolted leak clamp.

120) Temporary leak sealing and leak dissipating devices shall be removed and the pipe restored to original integrity:

a) As soon as the piping system can be safely removed from service
b) At a turnaround or other appropriate time
c) When the leak seal and leak dissipating device ceases to work
d) As soon as possible – must be done on a safe, emergency shut-down basis

121) Which of the following is NOT an item for consideration by an inspector when a leak sealing fluid (“pumping”) is used for a temporary leak seal repair:

a) Consider the compatibility of the sealant with the leaking material
b) Consider the pumping pressure on the clamp (especially when re-pumping)
c) Consider the pressure testing of the piping in question
d) Consider the number of times the seal area is re-pumped

122) Any welding conducted on piping components in operation must be done in accordance with

a) NFPA 704
b) API Standard 510
c) ASME B31.3
d) API Publication 2201

123) All repair and alteration welding to piping systems shall be done in accordance with the:

a) Exact procedures of ASME B31.3 or to the code to which it was built
b) Standards of ASME B31.1 or the code to which it was built
c) Principles of ASME B31.3 or the code to which it was built
d) Ideals of ASME, NBIC, or API standards

124) Welders and welding procedures used in making piping repairs, etc. shall be qualified in accordance with:

a) ASME B31.3 or the code to which the piping was built
b) NBIC or the system to which the piping was built
c) NACE or the method to which the piping was built
d) ASTM or the law to which the piping was built

125) The repair organisation responsible for welding shall maintain records of welding procedures and welder performance qualifications. These records shall be available to the inspector:

a) At the end of the job
b) After the start of welding
c) Following the start of welding
d) Before the start of welding

126) Preheating to not less than __________ °F may be considered as an alternative to post weld heat treatment for alterations or repairs of P-1, piping initially post weld heat treated as a code requirement (may not be used if the piping was post weld heat treated due to environmental cracking prevention).

a) 150
b) 200
c) 300
d) 350

127) When u sing local PWHT as a substitute for 360-degree banding on local repairs of PWHT’d piping, which of the following items is NOT considered.

a) The application is reviewed, and a procedure is developed by the piping engineer
b) The locally PWHT’d area of the pipe must be RT’d or UT’d
c) A preheat of 300oF or higher is maintained while welding
d) The PWHT is performed for code compliance and not for environmental cracking

128) Piping butt joints shall be:

a) Double spiral fillet welds
b) Single fillet lap welds
c) Double fillet lap welds
d) Full-penetration groove welds

129) When piping components that need repair should be replaced?

a) When enough time remains on a turnaround to allow replacement
b) When repair is likely to be inadequate
c) When the cost of repair is as high as renewal
d) When replacement is preferred by maintenance personnel

130) Fillet welded patches (lap patches) shall be designed by

a) An engineer
b) The inspector
c) The piping engineer
d) The repair organisation

131) Fillet welded lap patches (overlay patches) shall leave:

a) No membrane stresses
b) Right-angle corners
c) Rounded corners
d) Burnished corners

132) Materials used in making welding repairs or alterations __________ be of known weldable quality:

a) May
b) Shall
c) Should
d) Can

133) Acceptance of a welded repair or alteration shall include __________ in accordance with the applicable code and the owner-user’s specification, unless otherwise specified in API 570.

a) Nominal Pragmatic Sizing (NPS)
b) NBE
c) Safeguards
d) Nondestructive examination

134) After welding is completed on a repair or alteration, __________ in accordance with API 570 shall be performed if practical and deemed necessary by the inspector.

a) NPS
b) Safety sanctions
c) BE
d) A pressure test

135) When are pressure tests normally required?

a) Pressure tests are normally required after alterations and any repair
b) Pressure tests are normally required after alterations and major repairs
c) Pressure tests are normally required after major and minor repairs
d) Pressure tests are normally required only as specified by the owner-user

136) When a pressure test is not necessary or practical, what shall be utilised in lieu of a pressure test?

a) NPS
b) Nondestructive examination
c) Vacuum visual examination
d) NBE

137) Special procedure in place of a pressure test after an alteration or repair may be done only after consultation with :-

a) The operations and the repair organisation
b) The inspector and the piping engineer
c) The jurisdiction
d) The examiner and the inspector

138) When it is not practical to perform a pressure test of a final closure weld that joins a new or replacement section of piping to an existing system, several requirements shall be satisfied. Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements?

a) The closure weld is a full-penetration fillet weld between a weld neck flange and standard piping component or straight sections of pipe of equal diameter and thickness, axially aligned, and or equivalent materials. For design cases up to Class 150 and 500oF, slipon flanges are acceptable alternates.
b) MT or PT shall be performed on the root pass and the completed butt weld. Fillet welds must have PT / MT on the completed weld.
c) The new or replacement piping is pressure tested.
d) Any final closure butt weld shall be of 100 % radiographic quality; or angle-beam UT may be used, provide the appropriate acceptance criteria is established.

139) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for re-rating a piping system by changing the temperature or the MAWP:

a) The existing pressure relieving devices are still in place and set as they were originally
b) Calculations are performed by the piping engineer or the inspector
c) Piping flexibility is adequate for design temperature changes
d) A decrease in minimum operating temperature is justified by impact test results, if required by the applicable code.

140) Why is the inspector of buried process piping (not regulated by DOT) different from other process piping inspection ?

a) The insulating effect of the soil increases the possibility of more internal combustion
b) Internal corrosion has to be controlled by cathodic protection
c) Significant external deterioration can be caused by corrosive soil conditions
d) Internal corrosion must be controlled by internal coatings.

141) Indications of leaks in buried piping may include several indications. Which of the ones listed below is NOT one of the indications ?

a) A change in the surface contour of the ground.
b) Water standing on the pipeline right-of-way
c) Discoloration of the soil
d) Notice odour

142) Corrosion cells can form on both bare and coated pipe where bare steel contacts the soil. How can these cells be detected ?

a) Run an acoustic emission test on the piping
b) Visually survey the route of buried piping
c) The potential at the area of corrosion will be measurable different than other areas and a close-interval potential survey can detect the location of corrosion
d) Run an internal survey of the piping using a video camera

143) A pipe coating holiday survey is used to locate coating defects on coated pipes. It can be used on newly constructed pipe systems to ensure that the coating is intact and holidayfree. More often, it is used on buried pipe to:

a) Show the measurable differences in electrical potential in corroded areas
b) Evaluate coating serviceability for buried piping that has been in-service for along time.
c) Determine the depth of the piping for resistivity testing
d) Evaluate the cathodic protection components of the under-ground pipe

144) Cathodically protected buried piping should be monitored __________ to assure adequate levels of protection:

a) Regularly
b) Intermittently
c) Erratically
d) Frequently

145) If an “intelligent pigging” system is used to inspect buried piping, what type of bends are usually required in the piping system ?

a) Five diameter bends
b) 90 degree pipe ells
c) Ten diameter bends
d) Three diameter bends

146) How often should above-grade visual surveillance of a buried pipeline right-of-way be made?

a) Once a month
b) Approximately 6 month intervals
c) Once a year
d) Once every 3 months

 

147) How often should poorly coated pipes with inconsistent cathodic protection potentials have a pipe-to-soil potential survey made ?

a) Yearly
b) Every 2 years
c) Every 5 years
d) Every 7 years

148) On buried piping, what is the frequency of pipe coating holiday surveys?

a) The frequency is governed by the leak test interval of the pipe
b) It is usually based on indications that other forms of corrosion control are ineffective.
c) Surveys are normally made every 5 years
d) Pipe coating holiday surveys are made when the pipe is excavated.

149) For a piping buried in lengths greater than __________ feet and not cathodically protected, evaluation of soil corrosivity should be performed at 5-year intervals.

a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150

150) If buried piping is cathodically protected, the system should be monitored at intervals in accordance with Section 10 of NACE RP0169 or Section 90 of API RP 651. API RP 651 specifies __________ interval.

a) Annual
b) Biannual
c) Biennial
d) Trennial

151) Buried piping inspected periodically by excavation shall be inspected in lengths of __________ feet at one or more locations judged to be most susceptible to corrosion

a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10

152) After excavation of buried piping, if inspection reveals damaged coating or corroded piping:

a) The condition should be noted in the records and the inspection interval shortened
b) The complete piping system must be daylighted (excavated) for repair or replacement.
c) The damaged coating or corroded piping must be repaired or replaced
d) Additional piping shall be excavated until the extent of the condition is identified.

153) If buried piping is contained inside a casing pipe, the casing should be:

 

a) Capable of carrying the same pressure as the product pipe
b) Checked to see if its protective coating is intact and serviceable
c) Pressure tested to make sure it is serviceable
d) Inspected to determine if water and / or soil has entered the casing

154) An alternative or supplement to inspection of buried piping is leak testing with liquid at a pressure at least __________ % greater than the maximum operating pressure at intervals ½ the length of those shown in Table 9-1 of API 570 for piping NOT cathodically protected and at the same intervals as shown in Table 9-1 for cathodically protected piping.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 25
d) 50

155) The leak test for buried piping should be for a period of __________ hours.

a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 24

156) The leak test for a 8” diameter buried piping system is 300 psi. After 7 hours, the pressure reacts 273 psi. What should the inspector do?

a) Nothing is required. The loss of pressure is negligible and will not affect the test. The loss can be disregarded.
b) The system should be re-pressurised to the original leak test pressure and the test should begin again.
c) The test charts and the temperature should be reviewed to determine if any change in temperature caused the pressure drop.
d) The piping should be visually inspected externally and / or inspected internally to find the leak and assess the extent of corrosion.

157) A buried piping system that is not cathodically protected has to have an inspection interval set. The soil resistivity is checked and found to be 3400 ohm/cm. As the inspector, what interval would you set?

a) 2.5 years
b) 7.5 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years

158) Buried piping also may be surveyed for integrity by removing the line from service and performing a leak test. This inspection method typically involves pressurising the line with a __________, allowing time for the __________ to diffuse to the surface and surveying the buried line with a gas-specific detector to detect the __________

a) Tracer gas (such as helium or sulphur hexafluoride)
b) Light hydrocarbon (such as butane)
c) Smoke type material (such as chemical smoke)
d) Water vapour (such as steam)

159) Repairs to coating on buried piping may be tested using

a) A low-voltage holiday detector
b) Light taps with an inspection hammer
c) A flaw indicator fluid
d) A high-voltage holiday detector

160) If buried piping leaks are clamped and reburied:

a) No further action is required unless the piping leaks again
b) The date of installation shall be marked on the clamp for future identification
c) A record of the location and the date of installation shall be maintained
d) The clamped line shall be leak tested.

161) A 10” diameter piping system with 4” diameter and 6” diameter reinforced branch connections is to have changes made to it. Which of the following is considered an alteration?

a) A new 1” diameter un-reinforced nipple is installed
b) A new 8” diameter reinforced branch connection is installed
c) A new 4” diameter reinforced branch connection is installed
d) A new 3” diameter reinforced branch connection is installed

162) Which of the following would not be classified as an applicable code to which a piping system was built?

a) ASME B31.3
b) ASME B31.1
c) ASA B31.1-1955, Section 3
d) ASTM A-20

163) Which of the inspection agencies listed below is NOT an Authorised Inspection Agency as defined in API 570.

a) Jurisdictional inspection organisation
b) Owner-user inspection organisation
c) ASTM inspection organisation
d) Independent inspection organisation

164) An authorised piping inspector is an employee of an authorised inspection agency who is qualified to perform the functions specified in API 570. Which individual listed below is not usually an authorised piping inspector.

a) An owner-user inspector.
b) A jurisdictional inspector
c) An NDE examiner
d) An insurance inspector

165) Which of the following qualifies as auxiliary piping ?

a) Control valve manifolds
b) Bypass lines around exchangers
c) Pump seal oil lines
d) Orifice runs

166) CUI stands for:

a) Control unit inspector
b) Corrosion under insulation
c) Corrected unobtrusive inserts
d) Corroded underground installation

167) Deadlegs legs of a piping system are:

a) The upstream piping of control valve manifolds
b) Supports attached to a pipeline that has no product in them
c) The upstream part of an orifice runs
d) Sections that normally have no significant flow

168) A defect is an imperfection of a type or magnitude exceeding the __________ criteria.

a) Non-specific
b) Imprecise
c) General
d) Acceptable

169) The design temperature of a piping system component is the temperature at which, under the coincident pressure, the __________ is required.

a) Smallest thickness or highest component rating
b) Greatest thickness or highest component rating
c) Maximum thickness or lowest component rating
d) Minimum thickness or minimum component rating

170) An examiner is a person who __________ the inspector

a) Supplants
b) Assists
c) Supervises
d) Directs

171) Hold point is a point in the repair or alteration process beyond which work may not proceed until the __________ has been performed and documented

a) PWHT required
b) Required inspection
c) RT required
d) Ultrasonic testing

172) What is an imperfection?

a) It is a flaw or discontinuity noted during inspection that may be subject to acceptance.
b) It is a defect noted during inspection that is unacceptable.
c) It is a weld flaw noted during an inspection that may be subject to repair
d) It is a blemish that is only cosmetic and acceptable under all conditions.

173) __________ is a response or evidence resulting from the application of a nondestructive evaluation technique

a) Indication
b) Imperfection
c) Breach
d) Division

174) What are points where chlorine is introduced in reformers, water is added in overhead systems, etc. called

a) Primary process points
b) Level bridle points
c) Injection points
d) Test points

175) What is the loss of ductility and notch toughness in susceptible low-alloy steels such as 1.25 and 2.5 Cr., due to prolonged exposure to high-temperature service called?

a) Creep
b) Temper embrittlement
c) Incipient melting
d) Graphitisation

176) Secondary process piping is small-bore (less than or equal to _____) process piping downstream of normally closed block valves.

a) NPS ¾
b) NPS 1
c) NPS 2
d) NPS 3

177) A test point is an area defined by a circle having a diameter not greater than __________ inches for a line diameter not exceeding 10 inches or not greater than __________ inches for larger lines.

a) 3, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) ¾, 1

178) When making a repair utilising a welded full encirclement repair sleeve and the sleeve material is different from the pipe material, you should:

a) Consult the piping engineer.
b) Use a weld rod matching the higher strength material
c) Use a weld rod matching the lower strength material
d) Use an alloy weld rod such as Inco-A

179) What type of electrode should be used when welding a full encirclement repair sleeve?

a) Low-hydrogen electrode.
b) Low-phosphorous electrode
c) Low-chrome electrode
d) Low-nitrogen electrode

180) Which of the following welding electrodes is low-hydrogen?

a) E6010
b) E7016.
c) E7011
d) E7014

181) When welding a small repair patch, the diameter of electrodes used should not exceed

a) 1/8”
b) 3/16”
c) 5/32”.
d) ¼”

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1. What old code used to build rivet tanks?

a. API Spec 12A
b. API 653
c. API 650
d. API 575

2. What code covers the safety precautions of entering a tank?

a. API 653
b. API 575
c. API 2015
d. API 2000
e. API Spec 12A

3. What code covers cathodic protections of tanks?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

4. What code covers tank lining?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

5. What code covers tank venting?

a. API RP 12R1
b. API Std 2015
c. API 653
d. API Std 2000
e. API Std 2006

6. What code covers design of low-pressure tanks?

a. API 650
b. API 620
c. API 653
d. API 575

7. When taking UT thickness readings, it is recommended to use digital meter that also has a___________________

a. Dual-element
b. Trace display
c. Digital output
d. Transducer

8. Dual-element transducer may give a false reading when the material thickness is less than__________ inch.

a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 0.1
d. 0.001

9. A Dual element transducers on a digital UT meter can effectively measure thickness between:____________ inch.

a. 0.05 – 0.10
b. 0.50 – 5.0
c. 0.05 – 1.0
d. 0.005 – 5.0

10. Which type of UT transducer is best for small diameter deep pits?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducer
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

11. Which of the statement is correct, when UT thickness checking over a paint or coating?

a. For such case Dual-element transducer will give correct thickness of steel
b. For such case single crystal transducer will give false reading
c. Epoxy coatings have a velocity approximately half that of the steel, so that UT tool will read the epoxy coating thickness as twice its actual thickness by Dual element transducer
d. All of the above

12. For coated tanks that have coatings that vary in thickness, which type of UT transducer is best?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducers
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

13. When performing a UT scan, the scans should overlap by __________ of the transducer diameter.

a. 100%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 5%

14. When performing a UT scan, a large diameter transducer may miss ________ diameter deep pits.

a. Small
b. Uneven
c. Even
d. Large

15. UT shear-wave is primarily used in tanks to find defects in _________ joints.

a. Butt welded
b. Groove welded
c. Lap welded
d. Corner

16. Ability to detect following are primary advantage of using the magnet-flux floor scanner, but not this one.

a. Even small size of under side pitting
b. Topside pitting
c. Underside corrosion
d. Holes on the tank floor

17. When using a magnet-flux scanner to inspect a tank floor, indications found are generally “proved-up” using __________.

a. Close monitoring by inspector
b. Ultrasonic examination
c. Further investigation by other tools
d. All of the above

18. When the product temperature in a tank increases, the vapor pressure of the product _______.

a. Decrease
b. No change
c. Increases
d. Small decreases

19. While in operation, which tank type roof is supported by internal members?

a. Cone roof
b. Dome roof
c. Floating roof
d. Umbrella

20. What is the primary reason(s) for using floating roof?

a. To minimize vapor space
b. To minimize time of fill and empty
c. To maximize outlet pressure
d. To prevent from contamination by external impurities

21. Which type of external floating roof is the most susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

22. Which type of external floating roof is the least susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

23. The most common type of floating roof seal are the __________.

a. Rubber seal
b. Tube type seal
c. Gasket seal
d. Mechanical seal

24. When are internal floating roof tanks used? Where liquid _________.

a. Vaporization is more
b. Level is more
c. Vaporization is less
d. Level is less

25. Low-pressure storage tanks are those with a design from ___________ Psig.

a. 5 to 50
b. 2.5 to 15
c. –5 to 15
d. 5 to 25

26. Low-pressure storage tanks are normally used for products that have a high _________ pressure.

a. Vapor
b. Product
c. Liquid
d. Internal

27. For pressure above ________ psig, the hemispheroidal, spheroidal, and nodded spheroidal tanks are commonly used.

a. 2.5
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

28. These type of tanks are usually built in areas where large snowfalls or rainfalls might sink an open top-floating roof.

a. Cone roof
b. Both fixed roof and an internal floating roof
c. Highly corrosive resistant roof structure
d. External floating roof

29. Tank pads with cinders that contain __________ compounds become corrosive when wet.

a. Water
b. Product
c. Sulfur
d. Alkaline

30. These items in a sand pad that may cause bottom-side corrosion, but not this one?

a. Clay
b. Wood
c. Gravel or crushed stone
d. Fine dust

31. Causes of severe external corrosion at the bottom of the lower shell course are _______ .

a. When soil movement has raised the grade level to cover lower portion of the shell
b. When external insulation wicks up ground water
c. When damaged or improperly sealed openings around nozzles and attachments allow water ingress
d. All of the above

32. Small depressions in the roof are susceptible to ___________ corrosion.

a. Atmospheric
b. Localized
c. External
d. All of the above

33. Concentration cell corrosion may occur in the many niches of ____________ tanks.

a. Low pressure
b. Riveted
c. External floating
d. Internal floating

34. What metallurgy is primary used when constructing crude oil tanks?

a. Carbon steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Alloy steel
d. All of the above

35. These are common vapors that corrosion in a tank’s vapor space, but not this one?

a. Oxygen
b. Water vapor
c. Hydrogen sulfide vapor
d. Any combination of above
e. None of the above

36. Generally in the liquid portion of a tank, internal corrosion is worse at the ______.

a. Bottom of tank
b. Top of tank
c. Welds
d. Shells

37. What type of tank failure results in a sudden loss of the product?

a. Crack
b. Brittle fracture
c. Full weld crack
d. When product spill out from the tank

38. The most likely points for cracks to occur are _________.

a. At the bottom to shell connections
b. Around nozzle connection
c. At manholes
d. Around rivet holes
e. All of the above

39. What welds are most susceptible to cracking in a hot tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

40. What is the most susceptible to cracking in a large diameter tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

41. What is the most likely problem when there is excessive uniform settlement?

a. Over stress in nozzle attachments.
b. Crack in shell plates
c. Severe service problem
d. When uniform settlement nothing will happened

42. What is the common problem with pressure-vacuum vents?

a. Fouling materials
b. Corrosion between moving parts and guides or seats
c. The deposits of foreign substance by birds or inserts
d. All of the above

43. A plugged floating roof drain can cause the roof to ________.

a. Inoperative
b. Damage easily
c. Guide to move smoothly
d. Additional supports

44. The inspection checklists in Appendix C are:

a. Mandatory for all tanks
b. Mandatory only on low-pressure tanks
c. Considered a “memory jogger” for the inspector
d. None of the above

45. The tanks made by wooden material are also attacked by _______.

a. Inserts
b. Moisture
c. Atmospheric corrosion on wood
d. Stress corrosion

46. After a significant rainfall the __________ on floating roofs should be checked.

a. Dents, because it leads corrosion easily
b. Water drains
c. Surface area
d. All of the above

47. Before entry or reentry any tank, appropriate safety precautions are necessary, generally such precautions are_______________.

a. Removal of hazardous gases
b. Blinding all toxic inlets
c. Checking of oxygen level
d. All of the above

48. Prior to conducting an external or internal inspection the inspector should review_____________ to become familiar with problems and recommendations noted in previous inspection and maintenance reports.

a. Previous inspection record
b. Inspection procedure
c. Present inspection procedure
d. Drawings, data sheet etc

49. What type of corrosion can happen between a bolt head and a steel plate?

a. Stress corrosion due to over tight
b. Crevice
c. Crack
d. Pitting
e. All of the above

50. When inspecting handrails pay particular attention to tubular members, because they corroded__________.

a. From inside
b. Outside
c. Easily, because of removal of coating will happen frequently
d. By regular touch by operation people

51. Low spot platforms that collect water are routine places for corrosion to occur. This can be solved by _________.

a. Cathodic production
b. Small hole should be drilled for drainage
c. Proper coating after cleaning
d. Raise the height of platform

52. Tank foundations made of ___________

a. Sand pads
b. Concrete piers
c. Ring walls
d. All of the above

53. For tanks on a concrete pad, the floor to pad joint should be ___________

a. Visually checked for washing out
b. Uneven settlement
c. Checked by using surveyor’s level
d. Checked for spilling, cracks and general deterioration

54. Corrosion below as anchor-bolt nut sometimes can be detected by__________

a. UT
b. RT
c. Hammer
d. MT

55. Pipe connected to tanks should be inspected. Where pipe enters soil, the soil should be dug away__________ inches to inspect for soil-to-air corrosion?

a. 12 to 24
b. 6 to 12
c. 24 to 36
d. 36 to 48

56. If distortion is found at the nozzles, the welds and shell area should be examined for __________

a. Cracks
b. Distortion
c. Corrosion
d. Bending

57. Ground connections should be ___________ checked.

a. Resistance
b. Visually
c. Thickness
d. Periodically

58. The resistance of the grounding connections should not exceed _______ ohms.

a. 15
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25

59. Which potential problem with coatings is most difficult to see?

a. Blisters
b. Rust spot
c. Film lifting
d. Even discolor

60. Paint blisters occur most often on the roof and on the shell area that receives most ________

a. Rail fall
b. Sun light
c. Product gases exposure
d. All of the above

61. The ___________ side of an insulated tank is most susceptible to CUI.

a. Shell
b. Shaded
c. Exposed to sun light
d. Bottom

62. CUI may be significant at the bottom of the tank, because the insulation may be in contact with______________.

a. Product always
b. Surface water
c. More stressed bottom
d. Open atmosphere because removal of insulation easily in bottom side

63. Inspectors should not walk on _____________ tank roofs

a. In-service
b. Insulated
c. Painted
d. Cleaned

64. The depth of a locally corroded area can best be measured with a long __________

a. Straight edge
b. Tape
c. Steel wire
d. Flexible scale

65. The depth of isolated pits are normally measured with a ___________

a. Depth gauge
b. UT
c. Pit gauge
d. Visually

66. What part of the shell of a floating roof tank usually corrodes at twice the rate of the rest of the shell?

a. Upper 24inch of uncoated shell
b. All exposed uncoated area
c. Twice rate of corrosion will not occur in any part of tank
d. Surface of floating roof

67. Stiffeners and wind girders are normally inspected visually and by _________testing.

a. PT or MT
b. Leak
c. Hammer
d. UT thickness
e. Outside calipers and steel rules

68. Caustic tanks may be subject to a corrosion mechanism called _________

a. Stress corrosion cracking
b. Caustic embrittlement
c. Temper embrittlement
d. All of the above

69. Where is caustic cracking most common?

a. Bottom of shell
b. Vapor space of the shell & roof
c. Heating coils
d. Nozzle inlet & outlet from tank

70. Caustic material seeping through cracks will usually form readily visible ___________

a. Salts
b. Layer of corrosion
c. Bulging
d. Powdery from outside through cracks

71. Prior to welding on a tank in caustic service the area should be thoroughly cleaned and checked with the _________ solution.

a. Solvent
b. Indicating
c. H2SO4 with 10% Nitric acid
d. HCL with 25% Nitric acid

72. Hydrogen blisters can be found using:

a. Visual examination with flash light
b. Touch with fingers
c. PT or MT
d. All of the above
e. ‘a’ and ‘b’

73. Tank shell distortions can be measured using a ___________

a. Plumb check
b. Straight edge
c. Steel wire
d. Tape

74. Hydrogen blistering mat be found on the shell near:

a. Bottom
b. Nozzles
c. Top of the tank
d. Weld seams

75. These are causes of tank shell distortion and not this one?

a. Severe corrosion of the shell
b. Movement of connecting piping
c. Improper welding method
d. A vacuum in the tank
e. None of the above

76. Tank shell distortions may cause welds to be highly stressed and results in a _________

a. Crack
b. Bending
c. Collapse
d. Corrosion

77. Rivet can be best checked for looseness by using a ____________

a. Light passing through rivets
b. Hammer
c. Scriber
d. UT for loosens and damage

78. The thickness of a tank roof can be checked by __________ or _____________.

a. Hammer test or UT
b. UT or RT
c. UT or ET
d. Scale or outside caliper

79. When walking on a cone-roof tank, planks can be used. Planks that are used should be long enough to span at least __________ should be laid and used as walkways.

a. Two roof rafters
b. All the area of roof
c. Cover one roof plate
d. Leg length of inspector to walk over it

80. Individuals on a tank roof should walk on the _____________.

a. Rafters
b. Weld joints
c. Blanks
d. Center of roof plates

81. When walking on a floating roof, the tank should always be in the _________ position.

a. Low position to reach top safely
b. High gauge position
c. Any where, but safe position
d. Correct level position

82. External corrosion on a tank roof will usually be most severe at __________

a. Coating removed area
b. Insulation removed area
c. Depression where water can remain until it evaporates
d. All of the above

83. What is the primary reason for periodically inspecting flame arrestors?

a. Performance Check
b. Cleanliness and corrosion
c. Plug on arrestors
d. None of the above

84. When tunneling under a tank to inspect the bottom (it is rarely done!) it is difficult to properly_____________ the tunnel.

a. Remove
b. Refill
c. Inspect
d. Access

85. Probably the most expensive way to inspect the bottom-side of the tank floor is to _______ the tank

a. Lift
b. Clean
c. Inspection hole
d. None of the above

86. Types of floating roof drain are_________.

a. Simple open drain
b. Swing joint
c. Flexible-hose drain
d. All of the above

87. When the tank is out-of-service, the floating roof drain piping can be checked by pressure testing. Drains with swing joints require testing at ___________

a. Working pressure
b. Design pressure
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Two pressure 

88. During the external inspection, float-type gauges should be checked to make sure they are not cracked or filled with ___________

a. Water
b. Liquid
c. Any corrosive medium
d. All of the above

89. In a tank you noticed distortion, what will be the immediate action?

a. Check for tolerance of distortion
b. Immediately inform to owner/ operator
c. Determine its cause
d. Ask to analysis for fitness for purpose

90. Before allowing individuals on a floating roof tank that is not in the high-gauge position, a______________ test shall be performed before personnel are allow on the roof.

a. Hammer test
b. Thickness test
c. Gas test
d. Oxygen test

91. Normally internal tank corrosion is most prevalent in:

a. Vapor space
b. Liquid level line
c. Bottom
d. All of the above

92. Dry pyrophoric material can cause:

a. Cracking
b. General metal loss
c. Ignition
d. Pitting

93. Pyrophoric material may accumulate on the tank bottom or on the top of the__________.

a. Bottom plate
b. Nozzles
c. Sump
d. Rafters

94. In source service, corrosion is often occurs in the ___________.

a. Unlined steel
b. Insulation
c. Liquid area
d. Bottom area

95. In source service, corrosive vapors are formed when the _________ mixes with moisture and air.

a. Vapor
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Water
d. Sulfur

96. Carbon steel that has slag inclusions and _______ is more susceptible to hydrogen blistering.

a. Crack
b. Un-coated
c. High temperature
d. Laminations

97. Caustic stress corrosion cracking is prevalent in carbon steel when the temperature is above________°F

a. 100
b. 400
c. 150
d. 350

98. Tank bottoms are normally inspected visually and with __________

a. MFL
b. Ultrasonic thickness or corrosion scan
c. Multi transducer ultrasonic inspection with digital or analog display
d. All of the above

For Question number 99 to 101 :
During the internal inspection, a tank floor can be 100% inspected or partially inspected when
using a statistical method. Based on the statistical method answer the following.

99. What percentage of the floor should be scanned?

a. 100%
b. 50 to 75%
c. 25 to 40%
d. 5 to 10%

100. What pattern across the tank is generally used?

a. Grid
b. ‘X’
c. Line
d. Circular

101. What part should be completely scanned?

a. Any corroded area
b. Center area
c. Outer circumference next to the shell
d. Suspected area

102. Corrosion on the tank bottom may be very ____________.

a. Rare
b. Aggressive
c. Slow
d. Uniform

103. What simple technique can be used to pop deposits out of pits, making the pits much easier to see?

a. Hammering
b. Scratching
c. Blow with air
d. All of the above

104. What tool can assist in measuring the depth of a localized corroded area?

a. Single point ultrasonic-thickness measurements
b. RT
c. UT, MFL & coupon removal
d. All of the above

105. Rivet seams can be checked with a________

a. Hammer
b. Scraper
c. Visual
d. All of the above

106. Depressions in the tank floor and in area around roof supports should be checked for accelerated_________.

a. Corrosion
b. Dent
c. Damage
d. Holes

107. One method to check for penetrations in the bottom is to clean the tank floor and check for_________.

a. Crack
b. Corrosion
c. Wicking
d. Visual

108. One method to check for bottom-side corrosion that is usually not effective is the _______

a. Coupon removal.
b. MFL
c. Ultrasonic computer mapping
d. UT

109. Tanks with bottom angle joining the bottom-to-shell should be checked for _________

a. Corrosion
b. Distortion
c. Crack
d. Leak

110. Tank that contain dilute acids often are lined with________.

a. Rubber lining
b. Asbestos lining
c. Refractory lining
d. Lead lining

111. An effective way to locate pinholes and cracks in lead is with___________

a. MT
b. PT
c. Visual
d. MFL

112. Bulges in a lead liner indicate _________ behind the liner and are likely places of deterioration of the liner.

a. Corrosion
b. CUI
c. Crack
d. Underneath damage in liner

113. What is good practice when examining suspect areas in lead lined tanks?

a. Grid blast and visual
b. Visual & MT
c. Scraping with knife
d. Hammer test

114. Rubber tanks linings can be checked with a __________

a. Holiday detector
b. Visual
c. PT & visual
d. Surface cleaning and visual

115. Holiday testing is used to test ________

a. Erosion and thickness of lining
b. Holes and cracks
c. Mechanical damage
d. All of the above

116. When using a holiday detector it is important that the voltage does not get high enough to_________ the lining.

a. Puncture.
b. Check defect in
c. Operator safety
d. Magnetize

117. Glass-lined tanks should never be _________________.

a. Holiday tested
b. Opened
c. Hammered
d. Leave without NDT after hammer test

118. What type of lined tanks should be painted a unique color to indicate they have a special lining?

a. Rubber lined
b. Lead lined
c. Refractory lined
d. Glass lined

119. If corrosion is noted on the roof and upper shell, the structural members will also usually__________ thinning of the roof or shell.

a. Twice
b. Same
c. Less
d. More

120. What is an effective inspection technique for checking whether there is corrosion behind a concrete lining?

a. Light hammer tapping
b. Rust on surface also evident of corrosion behind
c. If doubt exists cut a section of lining and inspect
d. All of the above 

121. When significant corrosion is seen on the roof during the internal inspection, it is important to erect scaffolding so that ____________

a. Close visual can do
b. NDT for further investigation can do
c. Measurement can taken
d. None of the above

122. If corrosion is found internally on the shell at a specific elevation in a cone roof tank, it is important to check the ______________ at the same elevation.

a. Out side of shell
b. Roof support column
c. Roof structure
d. Shell rings

123. What metallurgy should never be hammer-tested?

a. Carbon steel
b. Alloy steel
c. Cast iron
d. Stainless steel

124. What internal tank component should be hydrostatically tested during an internal inspection?

a. Coils
b. Nozzles & connections
c. Roof drain
d. Tank must hydrostatically tested if required

125. Steam heating coils should be inspected for __________ grooving in the bottom of the coil with either UT or RT.

a. Crack
b. Blockage
c. Condensation
d. Erosion

126. Pontoons on swing line should be visually examined and _________________ for cracks.

a. Cleaned
b. Hammer tapped
c. Conduct leak test
d. Air leak test

127. When hydro-testing a tank consideration should be given to the ________ of the shell material.

a. Stress limit
b. Notch toughness
c. Thickness
d. Type

128. If an atmospheric tank is air tested, the pressure should not exceed _____ inch of water.

a. 0.5
b. 5.0
c. 50
d. 2.0
e. 10

129. A pneumatic test of a tank is good for finding ________ but is not a good pressure test.

a. Leak
b. Defect
c. Strength
d. Bulging

130. What part(s) of the atmospheric tank a very low stress load?

a. Roof
b. Bottom of tank resting on pad
c. Bottom area away from the shell or annular plate
d. All of the above

131. The pressure exerted on the sides of a tank is greatest at the ____________ of the tank.

a. Bottom
b. Shell side
c. Top side
d. Outside, because atmospheric pressure

132. Which of following situations does not appreciably weaken the plate?

a. Crack
b. Locally thinned area
c. Notch
d. Pit

133. Dry pyrophoric accumulations that can’t be cleaned out prior to inspection should be kept__________ during inspection.

a. Dilute
b. Covered
c. Moist
d. Warned to inspection personnel

134. Hydrogen blistering, caustic stress corrosion cracking and mechanical cracking are less frequently occurs in ___________.

a. Roof & bottom
b. Outside of shells
c. Inside of shells
d. Nozzles and internals

135. How can leaking rivets and rivet seams be repaired?

a. Caulked
b. Re-riveted
c. Welded or abrasive blast and epoxy coated
d. All of the above

136. When riveted seams are seal-welded, all rivets and seams with in ______ inches from the weld should be caulked.

a. 4
b. 10
c. 3
d. 6

137. Defective rivets can also be replaced with __________________.

a. Another rivet
b. Welding
c. Tap bolts
d. Plugging

138. List specific requirements when performing weld repairs to rivet heads and seams

a. Use large size electrode to fill the rivet hole easily
b. Position machine at high amperage to melt large size electrode
c. Keep weld bead bigger to fill the hole
d. Use back-step bead application
e. All of the above

139. When installing a new floor over an existing floor at least ________ inches of clean sand, or metal grating or concrete should separate the two floors.

a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2

140. When installing a new floor over existing floor that is cathodically protected, the old floor should___________________.

a. Be removed
b. Not be removed
c. Also be protected
d. Be considered as bottom

141. When installing a new floor over an existing floor that is cathodically protected, and the old floor is not removed, _______________ should be placed between the old and new floors.

a. New cathodic protection
b. Ribbon anodes
c. Corrosion cells
d. Any of the above

142. Prior to gouging out a crack, what should be done?

a. NDT for locating exact propagation of crack
b. Drill hole in each end of crack
c. Grind surface deburr
d. Mark the area of crack for rechecking

143. Deep pits may be filled with _________________

a. Welding
b. Putty
c. Paint
d. Lining

144. Prior to repairing a pit with a coating, the pit should be thoroughly cleaned by____________

a. Abrasive blasting
b. Chemical
c. Any method to make pit free form contamination
d. Cleaner

145. Leaks in tank roofs are often repaired using a ______________

a. Patch plate
b. Welding
c. Coating
d. Soft patch

146. Good inspection records are the basis of ___________ inspection program.

a. Good
b. Effective
c. Complete
d. Proper

147. Tank records should be kept for the ____________ of the each tank.

a. Service life
b. Up to commissioning
c. Up to clearance from AI
d. 5 years from commissioning

148. Item should be documented when internal or external tank inspections are performed.

a. Date of next inspection
b. Name of person who performed the inspection
c. Location of the repair
d. All of the above

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