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1. Which of the following are least likely to experience corrosion under insulation (CUD)?
A. Areas subject to process spills, moisture, and/or acid vapors. B. Areas exposed to mist from cooling towers C. Piping systems that operate above 250 degrees F D. Areas exposed to steam vents
2. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the cracks expected in corrosion observed during a visual inspection for a chlorine leak that has been dripping on an austenitic pipe?
A. Following the grain boundaries B. Transgranular and branching C. Bright and faceted D. A pattern of carbon stringers
3. The preferred method for inspecting piping injection points involves:
A. visual inspection and ultrasonics B. ultrasonics and/or acoustic emission testing C. eddy current and/or radiography D. radiography and/or ultrasonics
4. When dial-type indicating and recording pressure gauges are used to monitor leak testing, the maximum gauge range shall not exceed which multiple of the expected test pressure?
A. 1 ½ times B. 2 ½ times C. 3 times D. 4 times
5. An NPS 1½ level bridle on a propane storage drum shall undergo thickness measurements.
A. At intervals not to exceed 10 years or half the remaining life, whichever is sooner B. At intervals not to exceed 5 years or half the remaining life, whichever is sooner C. Only when corrosion rates exceed 5 mils per year D. Optionally
6. Inspection records contain the following information for a particular thickness measurement location (TML) in a return bend. What is the long term corrosion rate for the location? Thickness year 0.500 0.425 0.400 0 5 10
a. 1½ mils per year b. 5 mils per year c. 10 mils per year d. 100 mils per year
7. Which of the following defines the term hold point?
a. A pipe hanger that utilizes springs and sliding shoes to accommodate expansion and contraction. b. A dog welded onto piping and used to align joints prior to welding c. A point beyond which work may not proceed until inspections have been performed and documented d. A trunnion, gimbal, or sliding shoe used for piping support
8. Heat treatment is required for all thickness of piping over ½ inch for which of the following material?
a. P Nos. 1 and 2 b. P Nos. 1 and 3 c. P Nos. 2 and 3 d. P Nos. 4 and 5
9. A welder has made 25 SMAW groove welds, but the guided bend test for the welder’s qualification was never performed. In order to avoid cutting out all of the production welds made by this welder, which of the following minimum steps would be taken to validate the qualification?
A. radiograph the welder’s first production weld and accept the qualification based on acceptable weld quality by radiography. B. There is no alternative to qualifying a welder by the guided bend test. C. Have the welder prepare a test coupon and have the bend test done on that. D. Radiograph all 25 welds, regardless of the governing specifications for sample selection.
10. Elbows are typically inspected on the outside and inside radius due to which of the following damage mechanism.
A. environmental cracking B. soil-to-air interface C. erosion/corrosion D. corrosion under insulation
11. A dead leg could best be described as_____
A. an intermediate piece of piping B. an inlet or outlet elbow next to a pump C. a dummy support leg D. a branch line with a blind or blank flange
12. The recommended method for thickness determination on piping 1” and smaller is
A. ultrasonics B. eddy current C. profile radiography D. none of the above are recommended
13. The temperature above which some form of compensation for ultrasonic thickness readings should be made is
A. 100 deg. C B. 150 deg. F C. 200 deg. F D. none of the above
14. When surveying the thickness measurement location, the minimum thickness should be obtained by
A. using a 1” diameter probe B. taking one reading at each TML C. scanning around the TML D. using profile radiography in two directions
15. When using a search unit on a hot surface, it is a good idea to try and cool the transducer because:
A. excessive heat will slow down the pulse rate. B. excessive heat will increase the pulse rate. C. excessive heat may de-polarize the piezoelectric diodes. D. excessive heat can de-polarize the piezoelectric element.
16. A material property which could cause a false thickness reading using a digital thickness meter is
A. small grain size B. widely scattered small inclusions C. irregular shaped pits D. rolling lamination
17. You are inspecting a vessel with an apparently heavy paint build-up. In many areas you are unable to obtain a back wall signal and you have not noticed any appreciable thinning. The most likely reason would be
A. the vessel wall is excessively thin. B. the instrument will not read through the thick paint. C. the couplant is bleeding into the paint the paint is not adhered well D. none of the above would cause the problem.
18. Many digital thickness meters contain a ‘button’ of steel used to calibrate the instrument. This button’ is typically used for
A. calibrating the instrument for thickness readings on steel B. testing the couplant adequacy C. calibrating the instrument for thickness readings on stainless D. adjusting the search unit to the instrument to compensate for faceplate wear
19. Digital thickness gages should be checked periodically for linearity and proper function.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
20 Where would the most likely area on a pipe elbow be that would be the thinnest after many years of service?
A. sides B. inside radius C. outside radius D. next to the welds
21. When taking thickness readings on small diameter piping, it is good practice to use a flat step wedge.
A. True B. False
22. Stagnant fluid, as opposed to flowing, in a pipe would affect the thickness reading.
A. True B. False
23. When calibrating the instrument:
A. the instrument pulse rate is adjusted to the velocity of the material being measured. B. the velocity of sound is changed in the test plate. C. the pulse length of the transducer is adjusted to the material thickness D. none of the above
24. When measuring thickness on hot material, errors can occur due to:
A. velocity changes in the material B. velocity changes in the dual transducer material C. de-polarization of the element material D. all of the above
25. Search units that operate at low frequencies are not usually used for measuring thin materials.
A. True B. False
26. Dual element search units typically have the piezoelectric elements mounted at some fixed angle to the axis of the housing. This is to provide:
A. a short pulse transit time B. compensation for the pulse repetition rate C. focus the sound beam at some point in the material D. ease of manufacture since they are difficult to build E. none of the above
27. Since digital thickness meters do not have a ‘range’ or material control, to compensate for material velocity as found on A-scan instruments, thickness readings can only be taken on carbon or stainless steels.
A. True B. False
28. Some digital thickness meters can measure velocity in the material.
A. True B. False
29. When performing short period inspections with digital thickness gages it is good practice to calibrate or check calibration
A. at the beginning of the inspection B. at the end of the inspection C. at frequent periods of usage, such as every 2 hours D. all of the above
30. Thickness readings should only be taken on thin wall piping or vessels when they are out of service because the liquid inside will transmit sound and could cause incorrect readings.
A. True B. False
31. When placing a dual element search unit on small diameter piping, the line which separates the elements should be aligned
A. across the curvature of the pipe B. with the length of the pipe C. at a 45 deg. angle to the curvature of the pipe D. at any convenient orientation
32. An inside surface condition of a pressure vessel which could cause the most inaccurate thickness reading is
A. epoxy lining B. thin clad material C. heavily pitted surface D. A and B
33. When performing thickness measurements on 2” diameter Sch. 40 pipe, which of the following transducers would be the best selection?
A. ¼” diameter, 2 MHz B. ¼” diameter, 5MHz C. ½” diameter, 2.25 MHz D. ¾” diameter, 1 MHz
34. You are measuring thickness on a steel tank. After completing the examination, you go inside the tank and notice that there is thick scale on the interior. Your measurements have included the thickness of the scale.
A. True B. False
35. You change from using Ultragel to Sonotech couplant. Is it necessary to perform a calibration check?
A. Yes B. No
36. There are three methods listed for calibration of instruments when using delay line transducers
A. True B. False
37. You are to take thickness readings on piping for a full 8-hour shift. How many calibrations or verifications should be performed as a minimum?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
38. An examination is to be performed on new plates for thickness and soundness evaluation. A thickness meter with a waveform display is available for use. Would this be acceptable?
A. Yes B. No
39. When performing thickness measurements in a range from 4” to 8” to this procedure the calibration block may be a:
A. basic calibration block (7” thick) B. type 2 IIW block (V1) C. step wedge (0.25”-1”) SD. a and b above
40. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 12” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t=0.375”)
A The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the undercut is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B & C are required
41. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 12” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is I/8”. (t= 0.375”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the undercut is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
42. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 12” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t= 0.375”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the undercut is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
43. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 20” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t=0.375”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the undercut is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
44. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 20” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32.” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t= 0.375”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the undercut is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
45. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 20” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t= .375”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the undercut is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
46. You are performing a visual inspection1on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t=0.218”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
47. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.218”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
48. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.218”)
a. The weld is acceptable as is b. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required c. Weld repair of the crack is required d. both B) &C) are required
49. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= 0.322”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
50. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16” (t= 0.322”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
51. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= 0.322”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
52. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 10” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16” (t=0.365”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
53. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 10” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long: In addition, the height of reinforcement at’ the highest point is 3/16” (t= 0.365”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
54. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 10” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI 831.3 category D fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16” (t= .365”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
55. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 40 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI 831.3 normal fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long (t= 0.154”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
56. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 40 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see lack of fusion that is 3/16” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long (t= 0.154”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
57. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 40 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point and 0.250” long. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.154”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
58. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter sch. 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. in addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16” (t= .500”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
59. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter sch. 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= .500”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
60. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter sch. 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. in addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= .500”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
61. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 10” diameter sch. 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16”. at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= .500”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
62. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 10” diameter sch. 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= 0.500”)
A. The weld is acceptable at is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
63. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 10” diameter sch. 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= 0.500”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the incomplete penetration is required C. blending down of the weld reinforcement is required D. both B) & C) are required
64. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter sch 10S pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.109”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
65. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter sch 10S pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see lack of fusion that is 3/16” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.109”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the lack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
66. You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter sch 10S pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point and 0.250” long. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.109”)
A. The weld is acceptable as is B. Weld repair of the Zack of fusion is required C. Weld repair of the crack is required D. both B) & C) are required
67. Which of the following weld discontinuities would most likely be detected by visual inspection?
a. Crater cracking b. Slag inclusion c. Tungsten inclusion d. Gas pores
68. Which of the following casting discontinuities would be most likely detected by VT?
a. Sand inclusions b. Gas pores c. Misrun d. Unfused chaplet
69. Which of the following are forging discontinuities that would be detectable visibly?
a. Lack of fusion b. Forging lap c. Internal forging burst d. Shrinkage cavities
70. A metal joining process carried out at a temperature of 900°F would be classified as:
a. soldering b. brazing c. welding d. casting
71. Which of the following are machining induced discontinuities that could be detected visibly?
a. heat treatment cracks b. plating cracks c. grinding cracks d. all of the above
72. How many “thousandths of an inch” are there in 1 mm approximately?
a. 1000 b. 25 c. 40 d. 50
73. The three categories of possible discontinuity introduction are
a. inherent, processing, and in-service b. primary processing, machining, and final heat treat c. inherent, primary processing, and secondary processing d. primary processing, secondary processing, and in-service
74. Corrosion is
a. an electrochemical reaction b. an electro mechanical reaction c. a chemical mechanical reaction d. an electrostatic reaction.
75. Corrosion relies on which chemical element?
a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen c. Nitrogen d. Sodium
76. What type of corrosion is most likely to be found at a joint of two dissimilar materials?
a. Grain boundary b. Pitting c. Galvanic d. Exfoliation
77. What type of corrosion is most likely to be detected on a riveted lap joint subjected to fatigue?
a. stress corrosion cracking b. galvanic corrosion c. exfoliation corrosion d. fretting corrosion
79. A dark fine line detected visibly at the root of a used flange mounting bolt thread, would probably indicate
a. fatigue crack b. hydrogen embrittlement c. a forging lap d. shrinkage cracking
80. A suspect crack indication is detected visually on an piping system manifold. The area is to be further investigated using other NDT methods. How should the suspect area be marked?
a. The extremities of the indication should be marked with a grease pencil b. The extremities of the indication should be marked with a lead pencil c. The extremities of the indication should be marked with a layout scriber d. The extremities of the indication should be marked with an Indian ink pen
81. The two main methods of producing threads on bolts are
a. rolling and machining b. casting and rolling c. machining and forging d. casting and machining
82. Typical corrosion types associated with fasteners are
a. galvanic, crevice fretting b. high temperature, exfoliation, fretting c. exfoliation, fretting, galvanic d. pitting, crevice, fretting
83. Loss of base metal on sliding surfaces due to abrasion is an example of:
A. Wear B. Distortion C. Fatigue D. Stress Corrosion
84. A discontinuity is
a. a flaw which renders the part defective b. always caused at the liquid/metal solidification stage c. an interruption in the normal physical structure of a part d. always cause for rejection
85. What is the meaning of “tolerance”?
a. A standard for degree of inspection needed. b. The two extremes within which an actual part dimension must lie c. The ideal dimension of a part feature d. The amount of material that must be removed for desired fit
86. Surface roughness is measured in units of:
a. mils b. micro inches c. inches d. feet
87. Visual acuity is the ability of the eye to:
a. resolve details. b. perceive light intensity. c. distinguish between different colors. d. retain images after the light source is removed.
88. A distinct advantage of a fiberscope over a borescope is that a fiberscope is:
a. lightweight b. rigid c. simpler to use d. flexible
89. Necessary lighting for visual examination:
a. is not a problem since most work spaces generally have adequate illumination b. is about the same as for reading c. must be provided by incandescent lamps d. must be provided by fluorescent lamps
90. Service induced discontinuities in fasteners could be caused by:
a. vibration. b. tension. c. corrosion. d. all of the above.
91. A variation or interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part is called a:
a. flaw b. discontinuity c. defect d. fault
92. A condition that is of such size, shape, type and location that it is detrimental to the useful service of the part is called:
a. flaw b. discontinuity c. defect d. fault
93. The forging process often causes laps which can sometimes be mistaken for:
a. bursts b. pipe c. cracks d. porosity
94. Loss of wall thickness can be caused by:
a. corrosion and erosion. b. pitting and wear c. galling and abrasion d. all of the-above.
95. Severe grinding cracks appear as:
a. wave-like patterns b. widely spaced cracks c. lattice work or checkerboard patterns d. deep crevices
96. Welding preheat and interpass temperatures are commonly measured by which of the following:
a. by observing the melting of a temperature indicating crayon b. by observing the color of the heated metal c. by contact pyrometers d. both a and c
98. Standard practices require that threads of bolts or studs project past the end of the nut to provide:
a. on the head b. under the head c. end of the bolt shank (opposite the head) d. just above the top thread
99. Which of the following discontinuities seldom discovered during a visual exam?
a. crack b. incomplete penetration c. undercut d. tungsten inclusion
100. Un-fused chaplets are associated with:
a. forging b. rolling c. extruding d. casting
101. Laminations are generally:
a. linear and parallel with the surfaces of a plate b. linear and perpendicular with the surfaces of a plate c. linear and randomly oriented in a plate d. characterized by containing inclusions
102. The term “creep” refers to:
a. low temperature embrittlement b. a progressive movement of a crack c. reduction of wall thickness by corrosion or erosion d. metal deformation under steady load at elevated temperatures
103. Indications caused by repeated loading, bending or by vibrating stresses are called:
A. Mass hardness B. Lamellar testing C. Hot tears D. Fatigue cracks
104. A group of joining processes which produces coalescence of materials by heating them to a suitable temperature and by using filler metal having a liquidus below 450°C (840°F) and below the solidus of the base metal is called:
a. Brazing b. Soldering c. Resistance welding d. Arc welding.
105. SCC is a synergistic action of.
a. Steel and cracks b. Stress and corrosion c. Structure and coatings d. Slag and craters.
106. Embrittlement is:
A. Affected by high temperatures B. Affected by low temperatures C. Affected by both high and low temperatures D. Not affected by temperatures
107. Pitting corrosion can be initiated by:
A. Restricted fluid access B. Cavitation C. Abrasive wear D. Stress.
108. Shrinkage cavities are normally found in:
a. Castings b. Forgings c. Plates d. Bars
109. Embrittlement is the severe loss of ductility of a metal resulting from:
a. Fatigue b. Erosion: c. In-service environments d. Cavitation
110. Laps in a forging can easily be mistaken for
A. Porosity B. Cracks C. Bursts D. Pipe
111. Laminations in rolled products are found on ______ of the finished shape:
a. The face b. The edge c. The corner d. Both the face and edge
112. Corrosion attack in the form of pits is called:
a. Localized corrosion. b. Galvanic corrosion. c. Erosion corrosion. d. Inter-granular corrosion
113. Cavitation usually occurs on or near the:
a. bearings b. impeller c. shaft d. rings
114. Cavitation:
a. Occurs only with the collapse of the gas-vapor bubble b. Begins with the bubble formation and extends to the collapse of the cavity c. Occurs when the system pressure adjacent to a flow boundary is reduce d below the vapor pressure of the liquid d. Is caused by a gradual drop in pressure
115. Necking-down” results front
a. Overloading b. Folding of metal c. Extrusion d. Insufficient ductility
116. Typical corrosion damage would not include:
A. Cracked welds. B. Frozen bearings. C. Deep pits. D. Rust.
117. Excessive pump vibration can be caused by:
a. Rotating element unbalance b. Worn or loose parts c. Misalignment d. All of the above
118. Which of the following is true?
a. all discontinuities are defects b. defects that affects the products usefulness are called discontinuities c. discontinuities that affect the product’s usefulness are called defects d. all discontinuities are unacceptable
119. Fatigue cracks often begin at:
A. section changes B. thread roots C. weld toes D. notches E. any of the above
120. Thermal fatigue is caused by:
a. fluctuating stress b. overheating c. fluctuating temperature d. overloading
121. To examine areas around bends in pipe sections, you might use a:
a. bore scope b. telescope c. fiberscope d. microscope
122. Burst can develop during rolling or:
a. casting b. drawing c. forging d. piercing
123. During the rolling process, nonmetallic inclusions can develop into:
a. stringers b. cold laps c. tears d. bursts
124. Surface roughness is measured in units of: REPEATED
a. mils. b. microinches c. inches. d. feet
125. The surface finish of a part may be described by:
a. length b. area c. roughness d. fit
126. The maximum diameter of a hole specified as 2.375”+/-0.005” is”
a. 2.375” b. 2.370” c. 2.390” d. 2.380”
127. Maximum and minimum value on a dimension are called:
a. diameters b. finishes c. tolerances d. fits
128. The symbol 125√ represents:
a. diameter b. surface finish c. part length d. angle of bend
129. How many 32nds are there in one inch?
a. 8 b. 32 c. 64 d. 100
130. An example of the permanent mold process is:
a. sand casting b. investment casting c. die casting d. shell mold casting
131. A lamination can result from rolling an ingot that contains piping or:
a. glass b. flaks c. inclusions d. seams
132. Which of the following is an example of an inherent discontinuity?
a. inclusion b. fatigue crack c. stress cracking d. grinding checks
133. Wrought products can be made:
a. only by rolling b. by the hot or cold working process c. only by the cold working process d. only by the hot working process
134. Porosity is:
a. gas entrapped below the surface of a metal b. gas entrapped below or at the surface of a material c. foreign crystalline material entrapped below the surface of a material d. material used during the welding process
135. Of those listed, the most accurate mechanical tool used to measure plate thickness is a:
a. steel tape b. micrometer c. feeler gauge d. steel ruler
136. The two types of examination mirrors are:
A. dental and industrial B. dental and moveable C. industrial and fixed D. fixed and dental
137. Light intensity for visual inspection is usually specified in units of:
A. angstroms B. photon energy C. foot candles D. watts
138. Which of the following discontinuities would you expect to find in weldments?
a. Blow holes b. Piping c. Bleed-out d. Transverse cracks
139. The thread pitch gage is used to determine:
a. the diameter of threads b. the number of threads per inch c. the thread pitch angle d. both B and C
140. Stress corrosion cracking is often found in:
a. carbon steel in caustics b. stainless steel in ammonia c. brass in high-purity water d. high-nickel alloys in halogens
141. A folded thin flap on a forging is called:
a. cold shut b. forging porosity. c. a crack d. a forging lap
142. Primary process discontinuities are caused during
a. machining b. rolling c. grinding d. heat treating
143. Shrinkage cavities may be present if the product was formed by:
a. explosive forming b. extrusion c. forging d. casting
144. Which of these optical aids can be used in direct visual examination?
a. Mirrors b. Fiber scopes c. Cameras d. All of the above
145. What type of drawing is three-dimensional?
A. isometric B. composite C. flow D. P& ID
146. which of the following is a discontinuity associated with visual examination of bolting?
A. Erosion B. Stripped threads C. Shearing tears near bolt head D. All of the above
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1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:
A. The welder is qualified B. The base metals are strong enough C. The weldment has the desired properties D. The skill of the welder
2. The WPS lists:
A. Non-essential variables B. Essential variables C. Ranges of a & b above D. All of the above
3. The PQR must list:
A. essential variables B. qualification test & examination results C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)
4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?
A. 1958 B. 1992 C. 1987 D. 1962
5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
A. 1962 B. current C. 1986 D. 1995
6. Each ___________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.
A. Welder or welding operator B. Manufacturer or contractor C. Inspector D. All of the above
7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.
A. Manufacturer B. Welder C. Authorised Inspector D. Foreman
8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.
A. Vertical B. Flat & horizontal C. Flat & overhead D. Horizontal
9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the ____________ positions.
A. Flat only B. Flat and horizontal C. Flat and vertical D. None of the above
10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:
A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position D. None of the above
11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:
A. Stud welds B. Overhand welds C. Fillet welds D. All of the above
12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s
A. Tensile strength B. Ductility C. Notch toughness D. All of above
13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.
A. True B. False
14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.
A. 3.5% B. 0.5% C. 5% D. All of the above
15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.
A. 1/16” B. 3/32” C. 1/8” D. None of the above
16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:
A. ASME Section V B. ASME Section IX C. ASME Section VII D. The referencing code
17. A WPS must describe:
A. Essential variables B. Nonessential variables C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness D. All of the above
18. A PQR must describe:
A. Nonessential variables B. Essential variables C. Results of Welder Qualification tests D. Project description & NDE methods
19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.
A. Inspector B. Manufacturer or contractor C. Welder D. All of the above
20. For the SMAW process ____________ is an essential variables for the WPS.
A. Groove design B. Post Weld Heat Treatment C. Root spacing D. Method of cleaning
21. For the SAW process ______________ is an essential variable for the WPS.
A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used) B. Filler metal diameter C. Preheat maintenance D. Addition or deletion of peening
22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s _____________.
A. Knowledge of welding requirements B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment D. General attitude toward welding inspectors
23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.
A. PQR B. WQR C. WPS D. WPQ
24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1, 1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?
A. Yes B. No.
25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.
A. Without backing B. With all base metals C. With backing only D. With P1 backing only
26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:
A. Must use the same method B. May use any method C. Are not allowed D. Require Inspector approval
27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the ___________ variables specified.
A. Essential & nonessential B. Nonessential C. Essential D. Brazing
28. A welder depositing ½” of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.
A. 8” B. Max to be welded C. 1” D. ½”
29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:
A. Electrodes B. Flux C. Base metals D. Joints
30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:
A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11 B. P-8 – P8 C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25 D. P21 to P21 only
31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:
A. AWS class B. ASME specification C. SFA D. “F” number
32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using:
A. “P” number B. Welder I.D. C. “A” number D. Page number
33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process _________ is an essential variable.
A. Base metal thickness B. Peening C. P-number D. Electrode diameter
34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):
A. P number B. Unique identifier C. Hood & gloves D. Inspector
35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information provided D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1
36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?
A. GMAW uses a continuously fed filler metal as electrode and GTAW a tungsten electrode B. The SFA specification of the filler metal C. The F-number of the filler metal D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW
37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information provided D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld.
38. May a welder who qualified using a doublegroove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information provided D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder
39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information provided D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F22 fillers
40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?
A. The Inspector B. The A.I. C. The Shop Foreman D. The Manufacturer of Contractor
41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:
A. Flat position only B. Horizontal position only C. All positions D. Only good for heat treated welds
42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?
A. Yes, welder can be used B. No welder cannot be used C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc) D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing
43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.
A. True B. False
44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3
45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?
A. 3G and 4G B. 2G and 5G C. 3G and 1G D. 4G and 5G
46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?
A. ASME IX B. ASME VIII C. ASME B31.1 D. ASME II Part C
47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information given D. Yes, if properly heat treated
48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using realtime ultrasonics?
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information given D. Yes, provided bend tests are done
49. Three arc-welding processes are:
A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW B. FCAW, SAW, ESW C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW
50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production? (Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information provided D. None of the above
51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?
A. Yes B. No, must be re-qualified C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only
52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?
A. 1G B. 3G C. 4G D. All of the above
53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following: No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory Will this test qualify the welder?
A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information given D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable
54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?
A. Side and Transverse B. Face and Root C. Transverse and Longitudinal D. Side and Face
55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?
A. F,H,OH B. F,V,OH C. V,OH,SP D. H,V,OH
56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?
A. E6010 B. E7018 C. E9028 D. All of the above
57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?
A. The WPS B. The PQR C. The WPQ D. All of the above
58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?
A. 5G and 6G B. 2G and 4F C. 4G and 5G D. None of the above
59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?
A. Porosity, underfill B. Lack of penetration/fusion C. Slag, overlap D. Any of the above
60. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:
A. Essential variable B. Non-essential variable C. Supplementary essential variable D. All of the above
61. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:
A. Notch Toughness Test B. Tension Test C. Fillet Weld Test D. Guided-Bend Test
62. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:
A. The skill of the welder B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment D. None of the above
63. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-qualification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.
A. True B. False
64. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:
A. 5X B. 2X C. 10X D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only
65. A non-essential variable may be changes without re-qualification because:
A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification
66. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.
A. True B. False
67. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :
A. The AI approves B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR. C. The API 510 inspector approves D. The date of the WPS is changed
68. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.
A. True B. False
69. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
A. Pass B. Fail
70. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.
A. True B. False
71. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.
A. True B. False
72. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?
A. True B. False
73. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.
A. yes B. No
74. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a ___________ variable.
A. Essential B. Non-essential C. Supplemental essential D. None of the above
75. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an ____________variable.
A. Essential B. Non-Essential C. Supplemental essential D. None of the above
76. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.
A. True B. False
77. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.
A. Essential B. Non-essential C. Supplemental essential D. None of the above
78. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.
A. True B. False
79. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.
A. True B. False
80. A WPS must address all applicable nonessential variables.
A. True B. False
81. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.
A. True B. False
82. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.
A. True B. False
83. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?
A. 1G B. 2G C. 5G D. 6G E. All of the above
84. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-qualification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:
A. 500F B. 1000F C. 1250F D. 1500F E. None of the above
85. A welder is qualified to weld all thicknesses of material when:
A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch B. The test thickness was ½ inch C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches
86. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?
A. ¼ inch B. 1/8 inch C. 1/16 inch D. 3/16 inch E. No defects are allowed
87. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to requalify in that process?
A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 12 months E. As stated by the AI
88. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:
A. For heat treated metals B. For quenched and tempered metals C. For hardened and tempered metals D. For annealed and tempered metals E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section
89. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:
A. E7015 B. E6011 C. E6010 D. E7024 E. All of the above
90. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root. B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths D. All of the above E. Both B and C above
91. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:
A. Designer or architect B. Designer or installer C. Architect or installer D. Installer or assembler E. Assembler or designer
92. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thicknesses ___________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.
A. Less than 5/8 inch B. 5/8 inch C. 1 inch D. 1 ¼ inches E. None of the above
93. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:
A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor B. Allowed by ASME V C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown
94. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR
A. True B. False
95. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches B. 21/2 inches C. 3 inches D. 31/2 inches E. 4 inches
96. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?
A. Only bend tests B. Only radiography C. Both radiography and bend tests D. Either bend tests or radiography E. None of the above
97. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?
A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12” length of weld C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length D. None of the above
98. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows: Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?
A. 51,668 & 46,445 B. 67,453 & 56,443 C. 78,524 & 77,654 D. None of the above
99. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?
