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1.

API 570 covers inspection, repair alteration, and re-rating procedures for metallic piping systems that __________.

 
 
 
 

2.

API 570 was developed for the petroleum refining and chemical process industries.

 
 
 
 

3.

API 570 __________ be used as a substitute for the original construction requirements governing a piping system before it is placed in-service.

 
 
 
 

4.

API 570 applies to piping systems for process fluids, hydrocarbons, and similar flammable or toxic fluid services. Which of the following services is not specifically applicable?

 
 
 
 

5.

Some of the classes of piping systems that are excluded or optional for coverage under API 570 are listed below. Which one is a mandatory included class?

 
 
 
 

6.

The __________ shall be responsible to the owner-user for determining that the requirements of API 570 for inspection, examination, and testing are met.

 
 
 
 

7.

Who is responsible for the control of piping system inspection programs, inspection frequencies and maintenance of piping?

 
 
 
 

8.

An authorised piping inspector shall have the following qualifications. Pick the one that does not belong in this list:

 
 
 
 

9.

Risk based inspections include which of the following:

 
 
 
 

10.

An RBI assessment can be used to alter the inspection strategy provided:

 
 
 
 

11.

Which one of the following is not a specific type of an area of deterioration?

 
 
 
 

12.

Injection points subject to accelerated or localised corrosion may be treated as __________.

 
 
 
 

13.

The recommended upstream limit of inspection of an injection point is a minimum of:

 
 
 
 

14.

The recommended downstream limit of inspection of an injection point is a minimum of

 
 
 
 

15.

Select thickness measurement locations (TMLs) within injection point circuits subjected to localised corrosion according to the following guidelines. Select the one that does not belong.

 
 
 
 

16.

What are the preferred methods of inspecting injection points ?

 
 
 
 

17.

During periodic scheduled inspections, more extensive inspection should be applied to an area beginning __________ upstream of the
injection nozzle and continuing for at least __________ pipe diameters downstream of the injection point.

 
 
 
 

18.

Why should deadlegs in piping be inspected?

 
 
 
 

19.

Both the stagnant end and the connection to an active line of a deadleg should be monitored. In a hot piping system, why does the high point of a deadleg corrode and need to be inspected?

 
 
 
 

20.

What is the best thing to do with deadlegs that are no longer in service?

 
 
 
 

21. Note: Some questions in this section are true/false or essay type questions, instead of multiple choice. Historically, it has been shown that test questions on ASME V involve a good deal of theory that cannot adequately be explored through multiple choice questions (although multiple choice questions only will be on the test).

1. A film side penetrameter can be used for:

 
 
 
 

22.

A dark image of the “B” on a lighter background is:

 
 
 
 

23.

One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the processing details for :

 
 
 
 

24.

Non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.

 
 

25.

The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an ammeter shall be verified :

 
 
 
 

26.

When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at least ________ minutes prior to performing the examination.

 
 
 
 

27.

A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.

 
 

28.

Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on:

 
 
 
 

29.

The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as radiographic images.

 
 

30.

D.C. yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?

 
 

31.

How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?

 
 
 
 

32.

Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least _____ of the area to be examined.

 
 
 
 

33.

Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60 psi and 1000 F.

 
 

34.

The maximum emulsification time shall be:

 
 
 
 

35.

Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a calibrated:

 
 
 
 

36.

When using a hydrophillic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and intermediate step that must be taken is:

 
 
 
 

37.

A welded part is to be radiographed and is 1” thick, with 1/8” reinforcement. What ASTM wire set IQI should be used on these radiographs if a source side technique is used:

 
 
 
 

38.

When a PT test cannot be conducted between 500-1250 F, what must be done, per ASME V?

 
 
 
 

39.

All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with:

 
 
 
 

40. LATEST ASME B16.5 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (Closed Book)

1. ASME B 16.5 does not cover:

 
 
 
 

41.

The maximum hydrostatic test pressure permitted for a flange in a system hydrostatic test is:

 
 
 
 

42.

“High strength” bolting is described as equivalent to:

 
 
 
 

43.

The pressure class ratings covered by ASME B16.5 are:

 
 
 
 

44.

The standard finish for raised face flanges per ASME B16.5 is:

 
 
 
 

45.

Socket weld and threaded flanges are not recommended for service beyond the following temperatures if thermal cycles are involved:

 
 
 
 

46.

“Low strength bolting” is:

 
 
 
 

47.

Ring joint sidewall surfaces (gasket groove) must not exceed __________roughness.

 
 
 
 

48.

Which of the following items must be marked on all flanges or flanged fittings?

 
 
 
 

49.

When used above ________ °F, class 150 flanges may develop leakage unless special precautions are taken regarding loads or thermal gradients.

 
 
 
 

50.

The three basic parts to a flanged joint are:

 
 
 
 

51.

Class 600 flanged joints may develop leakage, unless special considerations for thermal gradients are applied at temperatures above ________°F.

 
 
 
 

52.

A Class 400 flanged fitting must be hydrotested at what pressure, if the 100°F rating is 800 psig?

 
 
 
 

53.

The maximum temperature for hydro testing a fitting is:

 
 
 
 

54.

The minimum duration for hydro testing on NPS 12 fitting shall be:

 
 
 
 

55.

The maximum depth and radial projection of an imperfection (deeper than the bottom of the serration) on a NPS 14 raised face flange is:

 
 
 
 

56.

On an NPS 24, 600 Class flange, the thickness of the flange (minimum) is:

 
 
 
 

57.

The allowable pressure (in psig) on a 100°F, Class 150 8” flange made from A182 Grade F2 material is:

 
 
 
 

58.

If a Class 1500 flange is to be made from A-182 F347 stainless steel and will be used at 280 psig with a carbon content of 0.09%, at what maximum temperature can this flange be used?

 
 
 
 

59.

What is the minimum wall thickness of a Class 900 fitting that is NPS 16?

 
 
 
 

60.

The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

 
 
 
 

61.

The WPS lists:

 
 
 
 

62.

The PQR must list:

 
 
 

63.

What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

 
 
 
 

64.

New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.

 
 
 
 

65.

Each ___________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.

 
 
 
 

66.

The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.

 
 
 
 

67.

A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

 
 
 
 

68.

A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the ____________ positions.

 
 
 
 

69.

A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:

 
 
 
 

70.

In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

 
 
 
 

71.

Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

 
 
 
 

72.

A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.

 
 

73.

When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

 
 
 
 

74.

Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

 
 
 
 

75.

When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

 
 
 
 

76.

A WPS must describe:

 
 
 
 

77.

A PQR must describe:

 
 
 
 

78.

The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

 
 
 
 

79.

For the SMAW process ____________ is an essential variables for the WPS.

 
 
 
 

80. Latest BASIC PIPING INSPECTION TERMINOLOGY & RP 574 Practice Questions and Answers

1. In the Barlow formula for determining pipe thickness, the term S stands for:

 
 
 
 

81.

At low pressures and temperatures, the thickness determined by the Barlow formula may be so small that the pipe would have _______ structural strength.

 
 
 
 

82.

A seamless NPS 12, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is 16000 psi. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions.

 
 
 
 

83.

A seamless NPS6, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is 16000 psi. The owner user specified that the pipe must have 0.1” allowed for corrosion allowance. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions:

 
 
 
 

84.

A seamless NPS 8, A-53 Grade B pipe operators at 700 degrees F and 700 psi. The allowable stress is 16500 psi. The pipe has been in service for 6 years. The original wall thickness of the pipe was 0.375”. The pipe wall now measures 0.30”. Considering no structural requirements, estimate how long the piping can continue to operate and not be below the minimum thickness.

 
 
 
 

85.

An Inspector finds a thin area in the body of a NPS 8 (8.625” O.D.) 600# gate valve. The valve’s body is made from ASTM A216 WCB material. The system operates at 700 psi and 750 degrees F. Using a corrosion allowance of 0.125”, what thickness must be present in order to continue to safely operate? Round to nearest hundredth.

 
 
 
 

86.

If corrosion or erosion is anticipated for a valve, what should be done prior to installing the valve?

 
 
 
 

87.

Which of the items listed below would NOT normally be contained in inspection records or piping?

 
 
 
 

88.

Accurate records of a piping system make possible an evaluation of __________ on any piping, valve or fitting:

 
 
 
 

89.

You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping in non-corrosive or very low corrosive service, you find the initial thickness reading of an inspection point to be 0.432” and marked nominal on a NPS 6 pipe. At the next inspection 12 months later you find a reading by ultrasonics of 0.378” at the same point. Twelve months later UT readings were taken and the thickness at the point was still 0.378”. What would this mean to you?

 
 
 
 

90.

You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping, you find the letter “C” marked under a column headed by the word METHOD. What does the “C” indicate?

 
 
 
 

91.

Which of the following is not an important function of an accurate sketch?

 
 
 
 

92.

As soon as possible after completing an inspection, the Inspector should:

 
 
 
 

93.

As soon as possible after completing an inspection, the Inspector should:

 
 
 
 

94.

The Wenner 4-Pin methods, the soil bar, and the soil box do not represent methods of determining:

 
 
 
 

95.

The total resistivity for a Wenner 4-Pin test that utilizes pins spaced 2 feet apart and a 6 “R” factor is:

 
 
 
 

96.

Which of the following is not a consideration when using a soil bar?

 
 
 
 

97.

Which of the following is a consideration when using a soil box:

 
 
 
 

98. API 570 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS– ALL QUESTIONS ARE CLOSE BOOK

1. API 570 covers inspection of :

 
 
 
 

99.

CUI is the acronym for :

 
 
 
 

100.

A person who assists the inspector by performing specific NDE on piping systems is defined as

 
 
 
 

101.

The response or evidence resulting from the application of a nondestructive evaluation technique is termed:

 
 
 
 

102.

The MAWP is:

 
 
 
 

103.

A selection of piping encompassed by flanges or other connecting fittings is called:

 
 
 
 

104.

If a person has a degree in engineering he is automatically qualified to be:

 
 
 
 

105.

A TML is:

 
 
 
 

106.

The result of excessive cyclic stresses that are often well below the static yield strength of the material is termed as:

 
 
 
 

107.

Thickness measurements may be taken by ultrasonic instruments or what other method:

 
 
 
 

108.

Thickness measurements may be taken by ultrasonic instruments or what other method:

 
 
 
 

109.

Which of the following tests are not normally conducted as part of a routine inspection:

 
 
 
 

110.

Thickness measurements are not routinely taken on in piping circuits.

 
 
 
 

111.

During the installation of a flanged connection, the bolts should:

 
 
 
 

112.

Services with the highest potential of resulting in an immediate emergency if a leak were to occur are in:

 
 
 
 

113.

The classification that includes the majority of unit process piping is labeled:

 
 
 
 

114.

Services that are flammable but do not significantly vaporize when they leak and are not located in high activity areas:

 
 
 
 

115.

What is the remaining life in years of a piping system whose corrosion rate is 0.074 inches per year, the actual wall thickness is 0.370 inches and the minimum required thickness is 0.1 inches?

 
 
 
 

116.

What is the long term corrosion rate of a piping circuit that started at 0.475 inches and is now 0.2 inch, the measurements were taken over a five year period?

 
 
 
 

117.

What is the short term corrosion rate for the above piping circuit in Question 18.

 
 
 
 

118.

A longitudinal crack in an existing piping circuit may be repaired by:

 
 
 
 

119. API 570 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS – ALL QUESTIONS ARE CLOSE BOOK
Question begins the closed book portion of this exam!
It is recommended that you take this portion without referring to the ASME Code or API books on your
first attempt, to assess your strengths and concentrate your studies on the most needed subject
areas. It is suggested that you write your answers on a separate sheet to keep this copy clean for
future studies.

When preparing to inspect a piping system inspection personnel should?

 
 
 
 

120.

As regards dead legs in piping circuits, what is recommended to be done by API 570 when ever possible?

 
 
 
 

121.

As regards dead legs in piping circuits, what is recommended to be done by API 570 when ever possible?

 
 
 
 

122.

When is it necessary to reevaluate the frequency of inspection for an existing piping system?

 
 
 
 

123.

Establish TMLs at both the upstream and downstream limits of the injection point circuit. What is the fourth consideration when selecting TMLs

 
 
 
 

124.

When the inspector suspects or is advised that specific circuits may be susceptible to environmental cracking, the inspector should schedule supplemental inspections. What types of inspections may this include?

 
 
 
 

125.

Supplemental inspection for piping systems are sometimes required. Which of the following may be considered supplements to normal inspection techniques?

 
 
 
 

126.

To what inspection requirements must be applied to small bore class I secondary piping?

 
 
 
 

127.

To what inspection requirements must be applied to small bore class I secondary piping?

 
 
 
 

128.

When is API 570 inspection code not permitted to be applied to a piping system?

 
 
 
 

129.

A 14” O.D. pipe has a corroded area on it. What is the maximum size of a small repair patch that maybe used to cover the corroded area?

 
 
 
 

130.

A NPS 4 Schedule 80 ( 0.337” wall) branch is welded into a NPS 12 Schedule 40 (.406” wall) header. What size cover fillet weld (tc) is required over the full penetration groove weld “ ( Express answer to nearest hundredth)

 
 
 
 

131.

A NPS 6 (6.6.25” od) seamless pipe made from ASTM A335 Grade P2 material operates at 800psi and 600 degrees F. The conditions require that corrosion allowance of 0.125” be maintained. Calculate the minimum required thickness for these conditions.

 
 
 
 

132.

A NPS 14 (14.00” od) seamless pipe made from ASTM A106 Grade. A material operates at 300 psi and 600 degrees F. The pipe must cross a small ditch and it must be capable of supporting itself without visible sag. A piping engineer states that the pipe must be at least 0.375” to support itself and the liquid product. He also states that a 0.125” corrosion allowance must be included. Calculate the minimum required thickness for the pipe.

 
 
 
 

133.

A 10’ long carbon steel pipe is welded to a 10’ 18-8 stainless pipe and is heated uniformly to 475 degrees F from degrees F. Determine its total length after heating.’

 
 
 
 

134.

A blank Is required between two NPS 10, 300 lb. class flanges. The maximum pressure in the system is 385 psi at 200 degrees F. A corrosion allowance of 0.175” is required. The inside diameter of the gasket surface is 9.25”. The blank is ASTM A516 Grade 70 material with no weld joint. Calculate the pressure design thickness required for the blank.

 
 
 
 

135.

1996, the thickness was measured to be 0.571”. What is the long-term corrosion rate of this system?

 
 
 
 

136.

Using the data in Question No. 8, calculate the short term corrosion rate in mils per year (MIP year)

 
 
 
 

137.

Using the information in Questions No. 8 and No. 9, determine the remaining life of the system, If service remains unchanged

 
 
 
 

138.

Using the information in Questions No. 10 and assuming an injection point in a Class 2 system with 7 years estimated until the next inspection what would the next interval be?

 
 
 
 

139.

A seamless NPS 10 pipe, ASTM A106 Grade B material operates at 750 psi and 700 degrees F maximum. Considering only pressure design thickness, what minimum thickness is required?

 
 
 
 

140. ASME B 31.3 — PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (CLOSED BOOK)

The requirements of the latest edition of ASME Code Section B 31.3 and any subsequent Addenda:

 
 
 
 

141.

Clauses in the B 31 code are not necessarily numbered consecutively. Such discontinuities result from:

 
 
 
 

142.

Who has the responsibility of determining which Code Section is applicable to piping installations, i.e. B31.1, B31.3 etc?

 
 
 
 

143.

Who has the overall responsibility for compliance with ASME B31.3?

 
 
 
 

144.

The intent of ASME B 31.3 is to set forth engineering requirements deemed necessary for __________ and __________ of piping installations.

 
 
 
 

145.

ASME Code is not intended to apply to piping:

 
 
 
 

146.

Compatibility of materials with the service and hazards from instability of contained fluids:

 
 
 
 

147.

ASME B31.3 applies to piping for all fluids except for which of the below?

 
 
 
 

148.

A pre-placed filter metal which is completely fused into the roof of a welded joint and becomes part of the weld is called:

 
 
 
 

149.

Define “face of weld”

 
 
 
 

150.

Fluid service that is non-flammable, nontoxic, and not damaging to human tissue and its gauge pressure does not exceed 150 psi and the design temperature is form 20 degrees through 366 degrees F is known as a category ________ fluid.

 
 
 
 

151.

A fluid service in which the potential for personnel exposure is judged to be significant and in which a single exposure to a very small quantity of a toxic fluid, caused, by leakage, can produce serious irreversible harm to persons on breatng or bodily contact, even when prompt restorative measures are taken is known as a category ______ fluid.

 
 
 
 

152.

A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the thinner member joined is called,

 
 
 
 

153.

The heating of metal to and holding at a suitable temperature and then cooling at a suitable rate for such purposes as; reducing hardness, improving machinability, facilitating cold working, producing a desired mechanical, physical, or other properties known as:

 
 
 
 

154.

Piping joint that for the purpose of mechanical strength or-leak resistance, or both, in which the mechanical strength is developed by threaded, grooved, rolled, flared, or flanged pipe ends; or by bolts, pins, toggles, or rings; and the leak resistance is developed by threads and compounds, gaskets, rolled ends, caulking, or machined and mated surfaces is known as

 
 
 
 

155.

The term NPS 6 refers to:

 
 
 
 

156.

A pipe produced by piercing a billet followed by rolling or drawing, or both is a:

 
 
 
 

157.

What is the “root opening”?

 
 
 
 

158.

A weld intended primarily to provide joint tightness against leakage in metallic piping is known as a:

 
 
 
 

159.

A weld made to hold parts of weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made is known as a:

 
 
 
 

160. LATEST ANSI B31.3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 12” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t=0.375”) 5 of 18

 
 
 
 

161.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 12” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is I/8”. (t= 0.375”)

 
 
 
 

162.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 12” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t= 0.375”)

 
 
 
 

163.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 20” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t=0.375”)

 
 
 
 

164.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 20” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32.” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t= 0.375”)

 
 
 
 

165.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a seam weld (longitudinal groove category) in 20” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see undercut that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 1/8”. (t= .375”)

 
 
 
 

166.

You are performing a visual inspection1on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t=0.218”)

 
 
 
 

167.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.218”)

 
 
 
 

168.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a socket weld in 2” diameter schedule 80 pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 category D fluid service. You see lack of fusion that is 1/32” at the deepest point. In addition, there is a crack in the toe of the weld 0.312” long. (t= 0.218”)

 
 
 
 

169.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 normal fluid service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16”. (t= 0.322”)

 
 
 
 

170.

You are performing a visual inspection on the final welded surface of a butt weld (girth & miter groove category) in 8” diameter standard wall pipe. The acceptance standard is ANSI B31.3 severe cyclic service. You see incomplete penetration that is 1/16” at the deepest point and 1.25” long. In addition, the height of reinforcement at the highest point is 3/16” (t= 0.322”)

 
 
 
 

171. LATEST ASME B 31.3 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

What is the minimum wall schedule that can be used in a male threaded joint in normal fluid service, carbon steel (notch-sensitive) and NPS 1.5 and smaller?

 
 
 
 

172.

What is an example of a straight-threaded joint?

 
 
 
 

173.

Determine the linear expansion (in/100ft) of a carbon steel pipe between 70°F. and 450°F.

 
 
 
 

174.

A 20’ long carbon steel pipe is heated uniformly to 450°F from 70°F. Determine its length after heating.

 
 
 
 

175.

If 4 materials, carbon steel, 18Chr-8Ni, Monel, Aluminium are heated from 70°F. to 550°F., which one will expand more?

 
 
 
 

176.

What is the modulus of elasticity of carbon steel material (carbon content ≤ 0.3) at 700°F?

 
 
 
 

177.

Poisson’s ratio may be taken as ________ at all temperatures for all metals.

 
 
 
 

178.

Stop valves are allowed on the inlet and outlet side of a pressure-relieving device, provided:

 
 
 
 

179.

For a liquid thermal expansion relief device which protects only a blocked-in portion of a piping system, the set pressure shall not exceed the lesser of the system test pressure or _________% of design pressure.

 
 
 
 

180.

An ASTM A53 Grade B pipe with a maximum wall thickness of 0.75” is being considered for use in a cold service. What minimum temperature can it be used and not have an impact test?

 
 
 
 

181.

Each set of impact test specimens shall consist of __________ specimen bars.

 
 
 
 

182.

A carbon steel ASTM A 53 Grade B material is being impact tested. What is the minimum energy requirement for this material (average for 3 specimens-fully deoxidized steel)?

 
 
 
 

183.

A thicker wall pipe is joined to a thinner wall pipe. The thicker pipe is taper bored to facilitate the fit up. What is the maximum slope of the taper bore?

 
 
 
 

184.

A NPS 2 schedule 80 (0.218” wall) is welded into a NPS 6 Schedule 40 (0.0.280” wall) header. What size cover fillet weld (tc) is required around the fully penetrated groove weld of the branch into the header? (Express answer to nearest hundredth)

 
 
 
 

185.

An NPS 8 schedule A NPS 8 Schedule 40 (0.322” wall), ASTM A 106 Grade B, is to be welded. The weather is clear. The sun is shining. The temperature is 30°F. What preheat temperature, if any, is required.

 
 
 
 

186.

The zone for preheat shall extend:

 
 
 
 

187.

An ASME A 106 Grade B, NPS 8, Schedule 40 (0.322” wall) pipe is to be welded to an ASME A335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 40 (0.322” wall) pipe. What preheat temperature is required?

 
 
 
 

188.

When components of a piping system are joined by welding, the thickness to be used in applying the heat treatment provisions of ASME B 31.3, Table 331.1.1 shall be:

 
 
 
 

189.

An NPS 4 Schedule 40 (0.237” wall) branch connection is welded into a NPS 6 Schedule 40 (0.0.280” wall) header. A ¼” reinforcing pad is used around the branch connection. The branch connection is inserted into the header. The material of the branch and the header is ASTM A 106 Grade B. What thickness would be used to determine whether heat treatment of this connection is required? (Express answer to nearest hundredth.)

 
 
 
 

190.

An ASME A335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 40(0.322” wall) pipe is to be welded to an ASME A335 Grade P9, NPS 8, Schedule 40 (0.322” wall) pipe. What Brinnell Hardness is required after post weld heat treatment?

 
 
 
 

191. API 570 Practice Exam
This is the “Open Book” portion, feel free to Contact us any of the following:
API 510, API 574, ASME B31.3, ASME B16.5(a), ASME Section V or
ASME Section IX

1. Determine the MAWP of the following piping system, at the next inspection, based on the following:
Design pressure/temperature: 100 psig1100°F
Pipe description: NPS 2, S180 A 106-B
Outside diameter of pipe, D: 2.375 in.
Thickness determined from inspection: .190 in.
Observed corrosion rate: .03 in/year
Next planned inspection: 5 years
MAWP =_________________

 
 
 
 

192.

What is the pressure design thickness of NPSIO, A516 Gr. 65 Type 22 pipe that operates at 1,200 psi/750 F?

 
 
 
 

193.

A leak test is an alternative to inspection of buried piping. What is the minimum liquid pressure to adequately conduct this test?

 
 
 
 

194.

For a single-wall material thickness, over 0.375‘ through 0.50”, what is the hole-type designation for a source side penetrameter?

 
 
 
 

195.

Give the corresponding ‘P” number for SA 414 Grade A material.

 
 
 
 

196.

On a Class 1500 NPS 4 blind flange, what is the minimum thickness permitted?

 
 
 
 

197.

For 1 ¼ inch thick carbon steel, what is the recommended preheat temperature?

 
 
 
 

198.

Determine the MAWP of the following piping system, at the next inspection, based on the following:
Design pressure/temperature: 100 psig/100°F
2 of 19
Pipe description: NPS 20, Std A 106-B
Outside diameter of pipe, D: 20 in.
Thickness determined from inspection: 0.280 in.
Observed corrosion rate: 0.02 in/year
Next planned inspection: 5 years
MAWP = ____________

 

 
 
 
 

199.

What is the inspection interval for buried piping without cathodic protection, if the soil resistivity is 6,500 ohm-cm?

 
 
 
 

200.

What is the maximum length allowed for individual slag trapped in a weld in a Severe Cyclic Conditions piping system?

 
 
 
 

201.

What is the design thickness of NPS 2 ½ A106B pipe that operates at 25psi/200’F?

 
 
 
 

202.

With respect to Category D service, what is the maximum allowable undercut for a branch connection?

 
 
 
 

203.

What is the test pressure of a metallic piping system whose design temperature is above – the test temperature using the following conditions? NPS 6, A106-13, 100psi/800°F

 
 
 
 

204.

Determine the MAWP of the following piping system, at the next inspection, based on the following:
Design pressure/temperature: 100 psig/750°F
Pipe description: NPS 6, Std 285c EFW, Straight Seam (No radiography)
Outside diameter of pipe, D: 6 5/8 in
Thickness determined from inspection: 0.280 in
Observed corrosion rate: 0.01 in/year
Next planned inspection: 5 years
MAWP =_______

 
 
 
 

205.

Impact testing of each form of material for any specification shall be done using procedures and apparatus in accordance with:

 
 
 
 

206.

In the AWS A5.1, what is the designation for a cellulose DC-RP electrode?

 
 
 
 

207.

With respect to a Class 400 NPS 12 slip-on raised face flange, whose edges of the gasket do not extend to the bolt, what is the outside diameter of the gasket?

 
 
 
 

208.

The base metal is P No. 8, the weld metal is A No. 8-9, and the wall thickness is 1”. What is the hold time for heat treatment?

 
 
 
 

209.

On a regularly furnished Class 300 raised face flange, what is the height of the raised face?

 
 
 
 

210.

During a welder qualification test on ½” plate in the horizontal position, how many guided bends are required?

 
 
 
 


*************************

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1. What old code used to build rivet tanks?

a. API Spec 12A
b. API 653
c. API 650
d. API 575

2. What code covers the safety precautions of entering a tank?

a. API 653
b. API 575
c. API 2015
d. API 2000
e. API Spec 12A

3. What code covers cathodic protections of tanks?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

4. What code covers tank lining?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

5. What code covers tank venting?

a. API RP 12R1
b. API Std 2015
c. API 653
d. API Std 2000
e. API Std 2006

6. What code covers design of low-pressure tanks?

a. API 650
b. API 620
c. API 653
d. API 575

7. When taking UT thickness readings, it is recommended to use digital meter that also has a___________________

a. Dual-element
b. Trace display
c. Digital output
d. Transducer

8. Dual-element transducer may give a false reading when the material thickness is less than__________ inch.

a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 0.1
d. 0.001

9. A Dual element transducers on a digital UT meter can effectively measure thickness between:____________ inch.

a. 0.05 – 0.10
b. 0.50 – 5.0
c. 0.05 – 1.0
d. 0.005 – 5.0

10. Which type of UT transducer is best for small diameter deep pits?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducer
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

11. Which of the statement is correct, when UT thickness checking over a paint or coating?

a. For such case Dual-element transducer will give correct thickness of steel
b. For such case single crystal transducer will give false reading
c. Epoxy coatings have a velocity approximately half that of the steel, so that UT tool will read the epoxy coating thickness as twice its actual thickness by Dual element transducer
d. All of the above

12. For coated tanks that have coatings that vary in thickness, which type of UT transducer is best?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducers
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

13. When performing a UT scan, the scans should overlap by __________ of the transducer diameter.

a. 100%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 5%

14. When performing a UT scan, a large diameter transducer may miss ________ diameter deep pits.

a. Small
b. Uneven
c. Even
d. Large

15. UT shear-wave is primarily used in tanks to find defects in _________ joints.

a. Butt welded
b. Groove welded
c. Lap welded
d. Corner

16. Ability to detect following are primary advantage of using the magnet-flux floor scanner, but not this one.

a. Even small size of under side pitting
b. Topside pitting
c. Underside corrosion
d. Holes on the tank floor

17. When using a magnet-flux scanner to inspect a tank floor, indications found are generally “proved-up” using __________.

a. Close monitoring by inspector
b. Ultrasonic examination
c. Further investigation by other tools
d. All of the above

18. When the product temperature in a tank increases, the vapor pressure of the product _______.

a. Decrease
b. No change
c. Increases
d. Small decreases

19. While in operation, which tank type roof is supported by internal members?

a. Cone roof
b. Dome roof
c. Floating roof
d. Umbrella

20. What is the primary reason(s) for using floating roof?

a. To minimize vapor space
b. To minimize time of fill and empty
c. To maximize outlet pressure
d. To prevent from contamination by external impurities

21. Which type of external floating roof is the most susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

22. Which type of external floating roof is the least susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

23. The most common type of floating roof seal are the __________.

a. Rubber seal
b. Tube type seal
c. Gasket seal
d. Mechanical seal

24. When are internal floating roof tanks used? Where liquid _________.

a. Vaporization is more
b. Level is more
c. Vaporization is less
d. Level is less

25. Low-pressure storage tanks are those with a design from ___________ Psig.

a. 5 to 50
b. 2.5 to 15
c. –5 to 15
d. 5 to 25

26. Low-pressure storage tanks are normally used for products that have a high _________ pressure.

a. Vapor
b. Product
c. Liquid
d. Internal

27. For pressure above ________ psig, the hemispheroidal, spheroidal, and nodded spheroidal tanks are commonly used.

a. 2.5
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

28. These type of tanks are usually built in areas where large snowfalls or rainfalls might sink an open top-floating roof.

a. Cone roof
b. Both fixed roof and an internal floating roof
c. Highly corrosive resistant roof structure
d. External floating roof

29. Tank pads with cinders that contain __________ compounds become corrosive when wet.

a. Water
b. Product
c. Sulfur
d. Alkaline

30. These items in a sand pad that may cause bottom-side corrosion, but not this one?

a. Clay
b. Wood
c. Gravel or crushed stone
d. Fine dust

31. Causes of severe external corrosion at the bottom of the lower shell course are _______ .

a. When soil movement has raised the grade level to cover lower portion of the shell
b. When external insulation wicks up ground water
c. When damaged or improperly sealed openings around nozzles and attachments allow water ingress
d. All of the above

32. Small depressions in the roof are susceptible to ___________ corrosion.

a. Atmospheric
b. Localized
c. External
d. All of the above

33. Concentration cell corrosion may occur in the many niches of ____________ tanks.

a. Low pressure
b. Riveted
c. External floating
d. Internal floating

34. What metallurgy is primary used when constructing crude oil tanks?

a. Carbon steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Alloy steel
d. All of the above

35. These are common vapors that corrosion in a tank’s vapor space, but not this one?

a. Oxygen
b. Water vapor
c. Hydrogen sulfide vapor
d. Any combination of above
e. None of the above

36. Generally in the liquid portion of a tank, internal corrosion is worse at the ______.

a. Bottom of tank
b. Top of tank
c. Welds
d. Shells

37. What type of tank failure results in a sudden loss of the product?

a. Crack
b. Brittle fracture
c. Full weld crack
d. When product spill out from the tank

38. The most likely points for cracks to occur are _________.

a. At the bottom to shell connections
b. Around nozzle connection
c. At manholes
d. Around rivet holes
e. All of the above

39. What welds are most susceptible to cracking in a hot tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

40. What is the most susceptible to cracking in a large diameter tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

41. What is the most likely problem when there is excessive uniform settlement?

a. Over stress in nozzle attachments.
b. Crack in shell plates
c. Severe service problem
d. When uniform settlement nothing will happened

42. What is the common problem with pressure-vacuum vents?

a. Fouling materials
b. Corrosion between moving parts and guides or seats
c. The deposits of foreign substance by birds or inserts
d. All of the above

43. A plugged floating roof drain can cause the roof to ________.

a. Inoperative
b. Damage easily
c. Guide to move smoothly
d. Additional supports

44. The inspection checklists in Appendix C are:

a. Mandatory for all tanks
b. Mandatory only on low-pressure tanks
c. Considered a “memory jogger” for the inspector
d. None of the above

45. The tanks made by wooden material are also attacked by _______.

a. Inserts
b. Moisture
c. Atmospheric corrosion on wood
d. Stress corrosion

46. After a significant rainfall the __________ on floating roofs should be checked.

a. Dents, because it leads corrosion easily
b. Water drains
c. Surface area
d. All of the above

47. Before entry or reentry any tank, appropriate safety precautions are necessary, generally such precautions are_______________.

a. Removal of hazardous gases
b. Blinding all toxic inlets
c. Checking of oxygen level
d. All of the above

48. Prior to conducting an external or internal inspection the inspector should review_____________ to become familiar with problems and recommendations noted in previous inspection and maintenance reports.

a. Previous inspection record
b. Inspection procedure
c. Present inspection procedure
d. Drawings, data sheet etc

49. What type of corrosion can happen between a bolt head and a steel plate?

a. Stress corrosion due to over tight
b. Crevice
c. Crack
d. Pitting
e. All of the above

50. When inspecting handrails pay particular attention to tubular members, because they corroded__________.

a. From inside
b. Outside
c. Easily, because of removal of coating will happen frequently
d. By regular touch by operation people

51. Low spot platforms that collect water are routine places for corrosion to occur. This can be solved by _________.

a. Cathodic production
b. Small hole should be drilled for drainage
c. Proper coating after cleaning
d. Raise the height of platform

52. Tank foundations made of ___________

a. Sand pads
b. Concrete piers
c. Ring walls
d. All of the above

53. For tanks on a concrete pad, the floor to pad joint should be ___________

a. Visually checked for washing out
b. Uneven settlement
c. Checked by using surveyor’s level
d. Checked for spilling, cracks and general deterioration

54. Corrosion below as anchor-bolt nut sometimes can be detected by__________

a. UT
b. RT
c. Hammer
d. MT

55. Pipe connected to tanks should be inspected. Where pipe enters soil, the soil should be dug away__________ inches to inspect for soil-to-air corrosion?

a. 12 to 24
b. 6 to 12
c. 24 to 36
d. 36 to 48

56. If distortion is found at the nozzles, the welds and shell area should be examined for __________

a. Cracks
b. Distortion
c. Corrosion
d. Bending

57. Ground connections should be ___________ checked.

a. Resistance
b. Visually
c. Thickness
d. Periodically

58. The resistance of the grounding connections should not exceed _______ ohms.

a. 15
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25

59. Which potential problem with coatings is most difficult to see?

a. Blisters
b. Rust spot
c. Film lifting
d. Even discolor

60. Paint blisters occur most often on the roof and on the shell area that receives most ________

a. Rail fall
b. Sun light
c. Product gases exposure
d. All of the above

61. The ___________ side of an insulated tank is most susceptible to CUI.

a. Shell
b. Shaded
c. Exposed to sun light
d. Bottom

62. CUI may be significant at the bottom of the tank, because the insulation may be in contact with______________.

a. Product always
b. Surface water
c. More stressed bottom
d. Open atmosphere because removal of insulation easily in bottom side

63. Inspectors should not walk on _____________ tank roofs

a. In-service
b. Insulated
c. Painted
d. Cleaned

64. The depth of a locally corroded area can best be measured with a long __________

a. Straight edge
b. Tape
c. Steel wire
d. Flexible scale

65. The depth of isolated pits are normally measured with a ___________

a. Depth gauge
b. UT
c. Pit gauge
d. Visually

66. What part of the shell of a floating roof tank usually corrodes at twice the rate of the rest of the shell?

a. Upper 24inch of uncoated shell
b. All exposed uncoated area
c. Twice rate of corrosion will not occur in any part of tank
d. Surface of floating roof

67. Stiffeners and wind girders are normally inspected visually and by _________testing.

a. PT or MT
b. Leak
c. Hammer
d. UT thickness
e. Outside calipers and steel rules

68. Caustic tanks may be subject to a corrosion mechanism called _________

a. Stress corrosion cracking
b. Caustic embrittlement
c. Temper embrittlement
d. All of the above

69. Where is caustic cracking most common?

a. Bottom of shell
b. Vapor space of the shell & roof
c. Heating coils
d. Nozzle inlet & outlet from tank

70. Caustic material seeping through cracks will usually form readily visible ___________

a. Salts
b. Layer of corrosion
c. Bulging
d. Powdery from outside through cracks

71. Prior to welding on a tank in caustic service the area should be thoroughly cleaned and checked with the _________ solution.

a. Solvent
b. Indicating
c. H2SO4 with 10% Nitric acid
d. HCL with 25% Nitric acid

72. Hydrogen blisters can be found using:

a. Visual examination with flash light
b. Touch with fingers
c. PT or MT
d. All of the above
e. ‘a’ and ‘b’

73. Tank shell distortions can be measured using a ___________

a. Plumb check
b. Straight edge
c. Steel wire
d. Tape

74. Hydrogen blistering mat be found on the shell near:

a. Bottom
b. Nozzles
c. Top of the tank
d. Weld seams

75. These are causes of tank shell distortion and not this one?

a. Severe corrosion of the shell
b. Movement of connecting piping
c. Improper welding method
d. A vacuum in the tank
e. None of the above

76. Tank shell distortions may cause welds to be highly stressed and results in a _________

a. Crack
b. Bending
c. Collapse
d. Corrosion

77. Rivet can be best checked for looseness by using a ____________

a. Light passing through rivets
b. Hammer
c. Scriber
d. UT for loosens and damage

78. The thickness of a tank roof can be checked by __________ or _____________.

a. Hammer test or UT
b. UT or RT
c. UT or ET
d. Scale or outside caliper

79. When walking on a cone-roof tank, planks can be used. Planks that are used should be long enough to span at least __________ should be laid and used as walkways.

a. Two roof rafters
b. All the area of roof
c. Cover one roof plate
d. Leg length of inspector to walk over it

80. Individuals on a tank roof should walk on the _____________.

a. Rafters
b. Weld joints
c. Blanks
d. Center of roof plates

81. When walking on a floating roof, the tank should always be in the _________ position.

a. Low position to reach top safely
b. High gauge position
c. Any where, but safe position
d. Correct level position

82. External corrosion on a tank roof will usually be most severe at __________

a. Coating removed area
b. Insulation removed area
c. Depression where water can remain until it evaporates
d. All of the above

83. What is the primary reason for periodically inspecting flame arrestors?

a. Performance Check
b. Cleanliness and corrosion
c. Plug on arrestors
d. None of the above

84. When tunneling under a tank to inspect the bottom (it is rarely done!) it is difficult to properly_____________ the tunnel.

a. Remove
b. Refill
c. Inspect
d. Access

85. Probably the most expensive way to inspect the bottom-side of the tank floor is to _______ the tank

a. Lift
b. Clean
c. Inspection hole
d. None of the above

86. Types of floating roof drain are_________.

a. Simple open drain
b. Swing joint
c. Flexible-hose drain
d. All of the above

87. When the tank is out-of-service, the floating roof drain piping can be checked by pressure testing. Drains with swing joints require testing at ___________

a. Working pressure
b. Design pressure
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Two pressure 

88. During the external inspection, float-type gauges should be checked to make sure they are not cracked or filled with ___________

a. Water
b. Liquid
c. Any corrosive medium
d. All of the above

89. In a tank you noticed distortion, what will be the immediate action?

a. Check for tolerance of distortion
b. Immediately inform to owner/ operator
c. Determine its cause
d. Ask to analysis for fitness for purpose

90. Before allowing individuals on a floating roof tank that is not in the high-gauge position, a______________ test shall be performed before personnel are allow on the roof.

a. Hammer test
b. Thickness test
c. Gas test
d. Oxygen test

91. Normally internal tank corrosion is most prevalent in:

a. Vapor space
b. Liquid level line
c. Bottom
d. All of the above

92. Dry pyrophoric material can cause:

a. Cracking
b. General metal loss
c. Ignition
d. Pitting

93. Pyrophoric material may accumulate on the tank bottom or on the top of the__________.

a. Bottom plate
b. Nozzles
c. Sump
d. Rafters

94. In source service, corrosion is often occurs in the ___________.

a. Unlined steel
b. Insulation
c. Liquid area
d. Bottom area

95. In source service, corrosive vapors are formed when the _________ mixes with moisture and air.

a. Vapor
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Water
d. Sulfur

96. Carbon steel that has slag inclusions and _______ is more susceptible to hydrogen blistering.

a. Crack
b. Un-coated
c. High temperature
d. Laminations

97. Caustic stress corrosion cracking is prevalent in carbon steel when the temperature is above________°F

a. 100
b. 400
c. 150
d. 350

98. Tank bottoms are normally inspected visually and with __________

a. MFL
b. Ultrasonic thickness or corrosion scan
c. Multi transducer ultrasonic inspection with digital or analog display
d. All of the above

For Question number 99 to 101 :
During the internal inspection, a tank floor can be 100% inspected or partially inspected when
using a statistical method. Based on the statistical method answer the following.

99. What percentage of the floor should be scanned?

a. 100%
b. 50 to 75%
c. 25 to 40%
d. 5 to 10%

100. What pattern across the tank is generally used?

a. Grid
b. ‘X’
c. Line
d. Circular

101. What part should be completely scanned?

a. Any corroded area
b. Center area
c. Outer circumference next to the shell
d. Suspected area

102. Corrosion on the tank bottom may be very ____________.

a. Rare
b. Aggressive
c. Slow
d. Uniform

103. What simple technique can be used to pop deposits out of pits, making the pits much easier to see?

a. Hammering
b. Scratching
c. Blow with air
d. All of the above

104. What tool can assist in measuring the depth of a localized corroded area?

a. Single point ultrasonic-thickness measurements
b. RT
c. UT, MFL & coupon removal
d. All of the above

105. Rivet seams can be checked with a________

a. Hammer
b. Scraper
c. Visual
d. All of the above

106. Depressions in the tank floor and in area around roof supports should be checked for accelerated_________.

a. Corrosion
b. Dent
c. Damage
d. Holes

107. One method to check for penetrations in the bottom is to clean the tank floor and check for_________.

a. Crack
b. Corrosion
c. Wicking
d. Visual

108. One method to check for bottom-side corrosion that is usually not effective is the _______

a. Coupon removal.
b. MFL
c. Ultrasonic computer mapping
d. UT

109. Tanks with bottom angle joining the bottom-to-shell should be checked for _________

a. Corrosion
b. Distortion
c. Crack
d. Leak

110. Tank that contain dilute acids often are lined with________.

a. Rubber lining
b. Asbestos lining
c. Refractory lining
d. Lead lining

111. An effective way to locate pinholes and cracks in lead is with___________

a. MT
b. PT
c. Visual
d. MFL

112. Bulges in a lead liner indicate _________ behind the liner and are likely places of deterioration of the liner.

a. Corrosion
b. CUI
c. Crack
d. Underneath damage in liner

113. What is good practice when examining suspect areas in lead lined tanks?

a. Grid blast and visual
b. Visual & MT
c. Scraping with knife
d. Hammer test

114. Rubber tanks linings can be checked with a __________

a. Holiday detector
b. Visual
c. PT & visual
d. Surface cleaning and visual

115. Holiday testing is used to test ________

a. Erosion and thickness of lining
b. Holes and cracks
c. Mechanical damage
d. All of the above

116. When using a holiday detector it is important that the voltage does not get high enough to_________ the lining.

a. Puncture.
b. Check defect in
c. Operator safety
d. Magnetize

117. Glass-lined tanks should never be _________________.

a. Holiday tested
b. Opened
c. Hammered
d. Leave without NDT after hammer test

118. What type of lined tanks should be painted a unique color to indicate they have a special lining?

a. Rubber lined
b. Lead lined
c. Refractory lined
d. Glass lined

119. If corrosion is noted on the roof and upper shell, the structural members will also usually__________ thinning of the roof or shell.

a. Twice
b. Same
c. Less
d. More

120. What is an effective inspection technique for checking whether there is corrosion behind a concrete lining?

a. Light hammer tapping
b. Rust on surface also evident of corrosion behind
c. If doubt exists cut a section of lining and inspect
d. All of the above 

121. When significant corrosion is seen on the roof during the internal inspection, it is important to erect scaffolding so that ____________

a. Close visual can do
b. NDT for further investigation can do
c. Measurement can taken
d. None of the above

122. If corrosion is found internally on the shell at a specific elevation in a cone roof tank, it is important to check the ______________ at the same elevation.

a. Out side of shell
b. Roof support column
c. Roof structure
d. Shell rings

123. What metallurgy should never be hammer-tested?

a. Carbon steel
b. Alloy steel
c. Cast iron
d. Stainless steel

124. What internal tank component should be hydrostatically tested during an internal inspection?

a. Coils
b. Nozzles & connections
c. Roof drain
d. Tank must hydrostatically tested if required

125. Steam heating coils should be inspected for __________ grooving in the bottom of the coil with either UT or RT.

a. Crack
b. Blockage
c. Condensation
d. Erosion

126. Pontoons on swing line should be visually examined and _________________ for cracks.

a. Cleaned
b. Hammer tapped
c. Conduct leak test
d. Air leak test

127. When hydro-testing a tank consideration should be given to the ________ of the shell material.

a. Stress limit
b. Notch toughness
c. Thickness
d. Type

128. If an atmospheric tank is air tested, the pressure should not exceed _____ inch of water.

a. 0.5
b. 5.0
c. 50
d. 2.0
e. 10

129. A pneumatic test of a tank is good for finding ________ but is not a good pressure test.

a. Leak
b. Defect
c. Strength
d. Bulging

130. What part(s) of the atmospheric tank a very low stress load?

a. Roof
b. Bottom of tank resting on pad
c. Bottom area away from the shell or annular plate
d. All of the above

131. The pressure exerted on the sides of a tank is greatest at the ____________ of the tank.

a. Bottom
b. Shell side
c. Top side
d. Outside, because atmospheric pressure

132. Which of following situations does not appreciably weaken the plate?

a. Crack
b. Locally thinned area
c. Notch
d. Pit

133. Dry pyrophoric accumulations that can’t be cleaned out prior to inspection should be kept__________ during inspection.

a. Dilute
b. Covered
c. Moist
d. Warned to inspection personnel

134. Hydrogen blistering, caustic stress corrosion cracking and mechanical cracking are less frequently occurs in ___________.

a. Roof & bottom
b. Outside of shells
c. Inside of shells
d. Nozzles and internals

135. How can leaking rivets and rivet seams be repaired?

a. Caulked
b. Re-riveted
c. Welded or abrasive blast and epoxy coated
d. All of the above

136. When riveted seams are seal-welded, all rivets and seams with in ______ inches from the weld should be caulked.

a. 4
b. 10
c. 3
d. 6

137. Defective rivets can also be replaced with __________________.

a. Another rivet
b. Welding
c. Tap bolts
d. Plugging

138. List specific requirements when performing weld repairs to rivet heads and seams

a. Use large size electrode to fill the rivet hole easily
b. Position machine at high amperage to melt large size electrode
c. Keep weld bead bigger to fill the hole
d. Use back-step bead application
e. All of the above

139. When installing a new floor over an existing floor at least ________ inches of clean sand, or metal grating or concrete should separate the two floors.

a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2

140. When installing a new floor over existing floor that is cathodically protected, the old floor should___________________.

a. Be removed
b. Not be removed
c. Also be protected
d. Be considered as bottom

141. When installing a new floor over an existing floor that is cathodically protected, and the old floor is not removed, _______________ should be placed between the old and new floors.

a. New cathodic protection
b. Ribbon anodes
c. Corrosion cells
d. Any of the above

142. Prior to gouging out a crack, what should be done?

a. NDT for locating exact propagation of crack
b. Drill hole in each end of crack
c. Grind surface deburr
d. Mark the area of crack for rechecking

143. Deep pits may be filled with _________________

a. Welding
b. Putty
c. Paint
d. Lining

144. Prior to repairing a pit with a coating, the pit should be thoroughly cleaned by____________

a. Abrasive blasting
b. Chemical
c. Any method to make pit free form contamination
d. Cleaner

145. Leaks in tank roofs are often repaired using a ______________

a. Patch plate
b. Welding
c. Coating
d. Soft patch

146. Good inspection records are the basis of ___________ inspection program.

a. Good
b. Effective
c. Complete
d. Proper

147. Tank records should be kept for the ____________ of the each tank.

a. Service life
b. Up to commissioning
c. Up to clearance from AI
d. 5 years from commissioning

148. Item should be documented when internal or external tank inspections are performed.

a. Date of next inspection
b. Name of person who performed the inspection
c. Location of the repair
d. All of the above

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ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers

Top 99 Latest ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers (Closed Book)

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists:

A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list:

A. Essential variables.
B. Qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.

A. 1962
B. Current
C. 1986
D. 1995

6. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.

A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.

A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _____________positions.

A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:

A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.

A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe:

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe:

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for the WPS.

A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable for the WPS.

A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’____________________________.

A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?

A. Yes
B. No

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.

A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the___________ variables specified.

A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing 1/2″ of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.

A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”

29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designate dusing:

A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process______________________ is an essential variable.

A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?

A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?

A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor.

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:

A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?

A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.

True
False

44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?

A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes.

Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonic?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are:

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production?

(Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?

A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?

A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will this test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable

54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?

A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?

A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?

A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above

60. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?

A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

61. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:

A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

62. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test.
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

63. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties.
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

64. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.

True
False

65. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:

A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

66. A non-essential variable may be changes without requalification because:

A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

67. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.

True
False

68. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :

A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

69. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.

True
False

70. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?

A. Pass
B. Fail

71. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.

True
False

72. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.

True
False

73. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

True
False

74. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.

True
False

75. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a_____________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

76. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an______________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

77. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.

True
False

78. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

79. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.

True
False

80. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.

True
False

81. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

True
False

82. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.

True
False

83. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.

True
False

84. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?

A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

85. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without requalification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:

A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

86. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when:

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

87. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?

A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

88. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that process?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

89. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

90. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:

A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

91. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:

A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

92. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:

A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

93. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses_______________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.

A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above

94. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

95. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR

True
False

96. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:

A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches

97. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?

A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above

98. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?

A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above

99. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?

A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

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