Take A Free API 580 Exam Practice Test -Quiz Course

1.

Deterioration susceptibility and rate can be done

 
 
 

2.

………….. Is Not A Substitute For A Process Hazards Analysis (PHA) Or HAZOP

 
 
 
 

3.

Deterioration for specific process equipment is not available, this can be sourced from

 
 
 
 

4.

Small Hole, Crack Or Rupture Are Examples Of

 
 
 

5.

Failure mode can primarily affect the

 
 
 

6.

Termination Of The Ability Of A System, Structure, Or Component To Perform Its Required Function Of Containment Of Fluid (Le Loss Of Containment).

 
 
 

7.

No deterioration was found in the inspection program but still failure can occur under the following conditions.

 
 
 

8.

Occurrence of a Particular Set of Circumstances. Is Called An

 
 
 

9.

Aqueous chloride solution is carried into a sensitized stainless steel vessel, the following cracking mechanism takes very rapidly depending on temperature.

 
 
 

10.

The Risk Assessment Programme Which Focuses On Process Unit Design And Operating Practices And Their Adequacy Given The Unit’s Current Or Anticipated Operating Conditions

 
 
 
 

11.

If operating condition have changed, deterioration rates based on inspection data from the previous operating conditions

 
 
 

12.

The Reduction in the Ability of a Component to Provide Its Intended Purpose of Containment of Fluids.

 
 
 
 

13.

Effective inspection program can be derived for RBI from

 
 
 
 

14.

RBI As An Integrated Management Tool That Complements…………….

 
 
 
 

15.

In the RBI program discrimination between equipment items on the basis of the significance of potential failures.

 
 
 
 

16.

RP 580 Significantly Targeted At The Application Of RBI In The ……………..And………….Industry

 
 
 
 

17.

Consequence side of the risk equation is normally managed by.

 
 
 
 

18.

Consequence analysis will aid in the preparation of

 
 
 

19.

The method used for consequence analysis should demonstrate the ability to provide

 
 
 

20.

Loss of containment is

 
 
 
 

21.

Which of the following measures are not covered under consequence analysis?

 
 
 
 
 

22.

The affected area in the consequence analysis is

 
 
 
 

23.

RBI program typically focuses on

 
 
 

24.

RBI program will not consider the following release of common liquids such as

 
 
 
 

25.

The main Production consequences for RBI are

 
 
 

26.

Out Come Of An Event

 
 
 

27.

Maintenance impact in RBI program will be generally be measured in monitory terms and typically includes

 
 
 

28.

The Primary Audience For RP 580 Is

 
 
 
 

29.

Risk is calculated as the product of

 
 
 

30.

Users across the world will refer for more information on Risk acceptance.

 
 
 
 

31.

Utilization of RBI Provides A Vehicle for ………………….

 
 
 
 

32.

Inspection and maintenance planning using risk assessment will follow

 
 
 
 

33.

The sensitive analysis will help in improving the risk analysis.

 
 
 

34.

The general way of communicating the risk analysis is

 
 
 

35.

RBI Requires The Commitment And Cooperation Of The

 
 
 
 

36.

Different weighting is given to consequence category than probability

 
 
 

37.

RBI Is Based On

 
 
 
 

38.

Risks that are judged acceptable during RBI analysis

 
 
 

39.

Following are the ways of risk mitigation during RBI Management

 
 
 
 

40.

RP 580 Is Intended To Promote Consistency And Quality In Identification, Assessment And Management Of Risks Pertaining To………………, Which Could Lead To……………..

 
 
 
 

41.

The Program That Is Focused On Understanding Failure Modes, Addressing The Modes And Therefore Improving The Reliability Of Equipment And Process Facilities.

 
 
 
 

42.

The Primary Work Products Of The RBI Assessment And Management Approach And Implementation Of RBI Provides

 
 
 
 

43.

The Programme That Focused On Maintaining the Mechanical Integrity of Pressure Equipment Items and Minimizing the Risk of Loss of Containment Due To Deterioration.

 
 
 
 

44.

………….. Produces Inspection And Maintenance Plans For Equipment That Should Be Implemented To Provide…………… And …………….

 
 
 
 

45.

The Following Types Of Pressurized Equipment And Associated Components Covered By RBI

 
 
 

46.

Consequence Are Always…………. For Safety Aspects

 
 
 

47.

The Event May Be

 
 
 
 

48.

An Analytical Tool That Organizes And Characterizes Potential Accidents In A Logical And Graphical Manner

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 48

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Take A Free API 578 Exam Practice Test -Quiz Course

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Take A Free API 653 Exam Practice Test with Study Guide

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API 653 Practice Test or Exam Training Course Aboveground Storage Tank Inspector Syllabus Contents:

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 1: Interpreting API and ASME Codes

  • 1.1 Codes and the real world
  • 1.2 ASME construction codes
  • 1.3 API inspection codes
  • 1.4 Code revisions
  • 1.5 Code illustrations
  • 1.6 New construction versus repair activity
  • 1.7 Conclusion: interpreting API and ASME codes 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 2: An Introduction to API 653: 2009 and its Related Codes

  • 2.1 Section 1: scope
  • 2.2 Section 3: definitions
  • 2.3 API 653 scope and definitions: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 3: An Introduction to API RP 575

  • 3.1 Scope
  • 3.2 API 575 sections 1 and 2: scope and references
  • 3.3 API 575 section 3: definitions
  • 3.4 API 575 section 4: types of storage tanks
  • 3.5 API RP 575: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 4: Reasons for Inspection: Damage Mechanisms

  • 4.1 The approach to damage mechanisms (DMs)
  • 4.2 API 575 section 5: reasons for inspection
  • 4.3 API 571: introduction
  • 4.4 The first group of DMs
  • 4.5 API 571 practice questions (set 1)
  • 4.6 The second group of DMs
  • 4.7 API 571 practice questions (set 2)
  • 4.8 The third group of API 571 DMs
  • 4.9 API 571 practice questions (set 3) 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 5: Inspection Practices and Frequency

  • 5.1 API 653 section 6: inspection
  • 5.2 API 653 section 6: view of RBI
  • 5.3 API 575 section 6: inspection frequency and scheduling
  • 5.4 API RP 575: inspection practices
  • 5.5 API 653: inspection intervals: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 6: Evaluation of Corroded Tanks

  • 6.1 Introduction
  • 6.2 The contents of API 653 section 4: suitability for service
  • 6.3 Tank roof evaluation
  • 6.4 Shell evaluation
  • 6.5 API 653 (4.4): tank bottom evaluation
  • 6.6 Foundation evaluation: API 653 (4.5)
  • 6.7 Bottom settlement: API 653 Annex B
  • 6.8 API 653 section 4: evaluation: practice questions (set 1)
  • 6.9 API 653 appendix B: tank bottom settlement: practice questions (set 2) 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 7: API 650: Tank Design

  • 7.1 Reminder: the API 653 body of knowledge (BOK)
  • 7.2 API 650: material allowable stresses
  • 7.3 API 650: material toughness requirements
  • 7.4 Tank component arrangement and sizes
  • 7.5 Some tips on exam questions
  • 7.6 Finally: bits and pieces from the API 650 appendices 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 8: Tank Non-destructive Examination

  • 8.1 The ideas behind API 653 section 12:examination and testing
  • 8.2 Weld leak testing
  • 8.3 How much RT does API 650 require?
  • 8.4 How much RT does API 653 require?
  • 8.5 Tank NDE: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 9: Tank Repairs and Alterations

  • 9.1 Repairs or alterations? 
  • 9.2 Hydrotest requirements
  • 9.3 Repair and alterations – practical requirements
  • 9.4 Repair of shell plates
  • 9.5 Shell penetrations
  • 9.6 Adding an additional bottom through an existing tombstone plate (9.9.4)
  • 9.7 Repair of tank bottoms
  • 9.8 Repair of tank roofs
  • 9.9 Hot tapping: API 653 (9.14)
  • 9.10 Tank repair and alteration – other requirements
  • 9.11 Repair and alterations: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 10: Tank Reconstruction

  • 10.1 Code requirements for tank reconstruction
  • 10.2 Reconstruction responsibilities
  • 10.3 API 653 section 10: structure
  • 10.4 Reconstruction (10.4 and 10.5)
  • 10.5 API 653 section 10: dismantling and reconstruction: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 11: Hydrostatic Testing and Brittle Fracture

  • 11.1 What is the subject about?
  • 11.2 Why? The objectives of a hydrotest
  • 11.3 When is a hydrotest required?
  • 11.4 Avoiding brittle fracture
  • 11.5 Is a hydrotest needed? API 653 flowchart (Fig. 5-1)
  • 11.6 API 653: hydrotesting: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 12: Tank Linings: API RP 652

  • 12.1 Introduction
  • 12.2 Linings and their problems, problems, problems
  • 12.3 So where does API 652 fit in?
  • 12.4 European surface preparation standards
  • 12.5 Tank linings: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 13: Introduction to Welding/API RP 577

  • 13.1 Module introduction
  • 13.2 Welding processes
  • 13.3 Welding consumables
  • 13.4 Welding process familiarization questions
  • 13.5 Welding consumables familiarization questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 14: Welding Qualifications and ASME IX

  • 14.1 Module introduction
  • 14.2 Formulating the qualification requirements
  • 14.3 Welding documentation reviews: the exam questions
  • 14.4 ASME IX article I
  • 14.5 Section QW-140 types and purposes of tests and examinations
  • 14.6 ASME IX article II
  • 14.7 ASME IX articles I and II familiarization questions
  • 14.8 ASME IX article III
  • 14.9 ASME IX article IV
  • 14.10ASME IX articles III and IV familiarization questions
  • 14.11The ASME IX review methodology
  • 14.12ASME IX WPS/PQR review: worked example 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 15: Cathodic Protection: API RP 651

  • 15.1 Cathodic protection – what’s it all about?
  • 15.2 The content of API 651
  • 15.3 Determination of the need for cathodic protection (API 651 section 5)
  • 15.4 Criteria for cathodic protection (API 651 section 8)
  • 15.5 Operation and maintenance of CP systems (API 651 section 11)
  • 15.6 API 651: cathodic protection: practice questions

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 16: The NDE Requirements of ASME V

  • 16.1 Introduction
  • 16.2 ASME V article 1: general requirements
  • 16.3 ASME V article 2: radiographic examination
  • 16.4 ASME V article 6: penetrant testing (PT)
  • 16.5 ASME V articles 1, 2 and 6: familiarization questions
  • 16.6 ASME V article 7: magnetic testing (MT)
  • 16.7 ASME V article 23: ultrasonic thickness checking 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 14: Welding Qualifications and ASME IX

  • 14.1 Module introduction
  • 14.2 Formulating the qualification requirements
  • 14.3 Welding documentation reviews: the exam questions
  • 14.4 ASME IX article I
  • 14.5 Section QW-140 types and purposes of tests and examinations
  • 14.6 ASME IX article II
  • 14.7 ASME IX articles I and II familiarization questions
  • 14.8 ASME IX article III
  • 14.9 ASME IX article IV
  • 14.10ASME IX articles III and IV familiarization questions
  • 14.11The ASME IX review methodology
  • 14.12ASME IX WPS/PQR review: worked example 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 15: Cathodic Protection: API RP 651

  • 15.1 Cathodic protection – what’s it all about?
  • 15.2 The content of API 651
  • 15.3 Determination of the need for cathodic protection (API 651 section 5)
  • 15.4 Criteria for cathodic protection (API 651 section 8)
  • 15.5 Operation and maintenance of CP systems (API 651 section 11)
  • 15.6 API 651: cathodic protection: practice questions 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 16: The NDE Requirements of ASME V

  • 16.1 Introduction
  • 16.2 ASME V article 1: general requirements
  • 16.3 ASME V article 2: radiographic examination
  • 16.4 ASME V article 6: penetrant testing (PT)
  • 16.5 ASME V articles 1, 2 and 6: familiarization questions
  • 16.6 ASME V article 7: magnetic testing (MT)
  • 16.7 ASME V article 23: ultrasonic thickness checking 

Click Here to Read and Take a Practice Test of API 653 Exam Chapter 17: Thirty Open-book Sample Questions

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  • API RP 578 Material verification program for new and existing alloy piping systems
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  • ASME B 31.3 Process piping
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API 575 Questions and Answers

Latest Top 148 API 575 Questions and Answers (Closed Book)

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1. What old code used to build rivet tanks?

a. API Spec 12A
b. API 653
c. API 650
d. API 575

2. What code covers the safety precautions of entering a tank?

a. API 653
b. API 575
c. API 2015
d. API 2000
e. API Spec 12A

3. What code covers cathodic protections of tanks?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

4. What code covers tank lining?

a. API 653
b. API 651
c. API 652
d. API 575

5. What code covers tank venting?

a. API RP 12R1
b. API Std 2015
c. API 653
d. API Std 2000
e. API Std 2006

6. What code covers design of low-pressure tanks?

a. API 650
b. API 620
c. API 653
d. API 575

7. When taking UT thickness readings, it is recommended to use digital meter that also has a___________________

a. Dual-element
b. Trace display
c. Digital output
d. Transducer

8. Dual-element transducer may give a false reading when the material thickness is less than__________ inch.

a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 0.1
d. 0.001

9. A Dual element transducers on a digital UT meter can effectively measure thickness between:____________ inch.

a. 0.05 – 0.10
b. 0.50 – 5.0
c. 0.05 – 1.0
d. 0.005 – 5.0

10. Which type of UT transducer is best for small diameter deep pits?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducer
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

11. Which of the statement is correct, when UT thickness checking over a paint or coating?

a. For such case Dual-element transducer will give correct thickness of steel
b. For such case single crystal transducer will give false reading
c. Epoxy coatings have a velocity approximately half that of the steel, so that UT tool will read the epoxy coating thickness as twice its actual thickness by Dual element transducer
d. All of the above

12. For coated tanks that have coatings that vary in thickness, which type of UT transducer is best?

a. Single element transducers
b. Dual element transducers
c. Large diameter transducers
d. Transducers made with pure quartz

13. When performing a UT scan, the scans should overlap by __________ of the transducer diameter.

a. 100%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 5%

14. When performing a UT scan, a large diameter transducer may miss ________ diameter deep pits.

a. Small
b. Uneven
c. Even
d. Large

15. UT shear-wave is primarily used in tanks to find defects in _________ joints.

a. Butt welded
b. Groove welded
c. Lap welded
d. Corner

16. Ability to detect following are primary advantage of using the magnet-flux floor scanner, but not this one.

a. Even small size of under side pitting
b. Topside pitting
c. Underside corrosion
d. Holes on the tank floor

17. When using a magnet-flux scanner to inspect a tank floor, indications found are generally “proved-up” using __________.

a. Close monitoring by inspector
b. Ultrasonic examination
c. Further investigation by other tools
d. All of the above

18. When the product temperature in a tank increases, the vapor pressure of the product _______.

a. Decrease
b. No change
c. Increases
d. Small decreases

19. While in operation, which tank type roof is supported by internal members?

a. Cone roof
b. Dome roof
c. Floating roof
d. Umbrella

20. What is the primary reason(s) for using floating roof?

a. To minimize vapor space
b. To minimize time of fill and empty
c. To maximize outlet pressure
d. To prevent from contamination by external impurities

21. Which type of external floating roof is the most susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

22. Which type of external floating roof is the least susceptible to sinking?

a. Cone roof
b. Pan type
c. Annular-pontoon
d. Double deck

23. The most common type of floating roof seal are the __________.

a. Rubber seal
b. Tube type seal
c. Gasket seal
d. Mechanical seal

24. When are internal floating roof tanks used? Where liquid _________.

a. Vaporization is more
b. Level is more
c. Vaporization is less
d. Level is less

25. Low-pressure storage tanks are those with a design from ___________ Psig.

a. 5 to 50
b. 2.5 to 15
c. –5 to 15
d. 5 to 25

26. Low-pressure storage tanks are normally used for products that have a high _________ pressure.

a. Vapor
b. Product
c. Liquid
d. Internal

27. For pressure above ________ psig, the hemispheroidal, spheroidal, and nodded spheroidal tanks are commonly used.

a. 2.5
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

28. These type of tanks are usually built in areas where large snowfalls or rainfalls might sink an open top-floating roof.

a. Cone roof
b. Both fixed roof and an internal floating roof
c. Highly corrosive resistant roof structure
d. External floating roof

29. Tank pads with cinders that contain __________ compounds become corrosive when wet.

a. Water
b. Product
c. Sulfur
d. Alkaline

30. These items in a sand pad that may cause bottom-side corrosion, but not this one?

a. Clay
b. Wood
c. Gravel or crushed stone
d. Fine dust

31. Causes of severe external corrosion at the bottom of the lower shell course are _______ .

a. When soil movement has raised the grade level to cover lower portion of the shell
b. When external insulation wicks up ground water
c. When damaged or improperly sealed openings around nozzles and attachments allow water ingress
d. All of the above

32. Small depressions in the roof are susceptible to ___________ corrosion.

a. Atmospheric
b. Localized
c. External
d. All of the above

33. Concentration cell corrosion may occur in the many niches of ____________ tanks.

a. Low pressure
b. Riveted
c. External floating
d. Internal floating

34. What metallurgy is primary used when constructing crude oil tanks?

a. Carbon steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Alloy steel
d. All of the above

35. These are common vapors that corrosion in a tank’s vapor space, but not this one?

a. Oxygen
b. Water vapor
c. Hydrogen sulfide vapor
d. Any combination of above
e. None of the above

36. Generally in the liquid portion of a tank, internal corrosion is worse at the ______.

a. Bottom of tank
b. Top of tank
c. Welds
d. Shells

37. What type of tank failure results in a sudden loss of the product?

a. Crack
b. Brittle fracture
c. Full weld crack
d. When product spill out from the tank

38. The most likely points for cracks to occur are _________.

a. At the bottom to shell connections
b. Around nozzle connection
c. At manholes
d. Around rivet holes
e. All of the above

39. What welds are most susceptible to cracking in a hot tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

40. What is the most susceptible to cracking in a large diameter tank?

a. Corner weld
b. Lower shell to sketch plate weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Bottom weld

41. What is the most likely problem when there is excessive uniform settlement?

a. Over stress in nozzle attachments.
b. Crack in shell plates
c. Severe service problem
d. When uniform settlement nothing will happened

42. What is the common problem with pressure-vacuum vents?

a. Fouling materials
b. Corrosion between moving parts and guides or seats
c. The deposits of foreign substance by birds or inserts
d. All of the above

43. A plugged floating roof drain can cause the roof to ________.

a. Inoperative
b. Damage easily
c. Guide to move smoothly
d. Additional supports

44. The inspection checklists in Appendix C are:

a. Mandatory for all tanks
b. Mandatory only on low-pressure tanks
c. Considered a “memory jogger” for the inspector
d. None of the above

45. The tanks made by wooden material are also attacked by _______.

a. Inserts
b. Moisture
c. Atmospheric corrosion on wood
d. Stress corrosion

46. After a significant rainfall the __________ on floating roofs should be checked.

a. Dents, because it leads corrosion easily
b. Water drains
c. Surface area
d. All of the above

47. Before entry or reentry any tank, appropriate safety precautions are necessary, generally such precautions are_______________.

a. Removal of hazardous gases
b. Blinding all toxic inlets
c. Checking of oxygen level
d. All of the above

48. Prior to conducting an external or internal inspection the inspector should review_____________ to become familiar with problems and recommendations noted in previous inspection and maintenance reports.

a. Previous inspection record
b. Inspection procedure
c. Present inspection procedure
d. Drawings, data sheet etc

49. What type of corrosion can happen between a bolt head and a steel plate?

a. Stress corrosion due to over tight
b. Crevice
c. Crack
d. Pitting
e. All of the above

50. When inspecting handrails pay particular attention to tubular members, because they corroded__________.

a. From inside
b. Outside
c. Easily, because of removal of coating will happen frequently
d. By regular touch by operation people

51. Low spot platforms that collect water are routine places for corrosion to occur. This can be solved by _________.

a. Cathodic production
b. Small hole should be drilled for drainage
c. Proper coating after cleaning
d. Raise the height of platform

52. Tank foundations made of ___________

a. Sand pads
b. Concrete piers
c. Ring walls
d. All of the above

53. For tanks on a concrete pad, the floor to pad joint should be ___________

a. Visually checked for washing out
b. Uneven settlement
c. Checked by using surveyor’s level
d. Checked for spilling, cracks and general deterioration

54. Corrosion below as anchor-bolt nut sometimes can be detected by__________

a. UT
b. RT
c. Hammer
d. MT

55. Pipe connected to tanks should be inspected. Where pipe enters soil, the soil should be dug away__________ inches to inspect for soil-to-air corrosion?

a. 12 to 24
b. 6 to 12
c. 24 to 36
d. 36 to 48

56. If distortion is found at the nozzles, the welds and shell area should be examined for __________

a. Cracks
b. Distortion
c. Corrosion
d. Bending

57. Ground connections should be ___________ checked.

a. Resistance
b. Visually
c. Thickness
d. Periodically

58. The resistance of the grounding connections should not exceed _______ ohms.

a. 15
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25

59. Which potential problem with coatings is most difficult to see?

a. Blisters
b. Rust spot
c. Film lifting
d. Even discolor

60. Paint blisters occur most often on the roof and on the shell area that receives most ________

a. Rail fall
b. Sun light
c. Product gases exposure
d. All of the above

61. The ___________ side of an insulated tank is most susceptible to CUI.

a. Shell
b. Shaded
c. Exposed to sun light
d. Bottom

62. CUI may be significant at the bottom of the tank, because the insulation may be in contact with______________.

a. Product always
b. Surface water
c. More stressed bottom
d. Open atmosphere because removal of insulation easily in bottom side

63. Inspectors should not walk on _____________ tank roofs

a. In-service
b. Insulated
c. Painted
d. Cleaned

64. The depth of a locally corroded area can best be measured with a long __________

a. Straight edge
b. Tape
c. Steel wire
d. Flexible scale

65. The depth of isolated pits are normally measured with a ___________

a. Depth gauge
b. UT
c. Pit gauge
d. Visually

66. What part of the shell of a floating roof tank usually corrodes at twice the rate of the rest of the shell?

a. Upper 24inch of uncoated shell
b. All exposed uncoated area
c. Twice rate of corrosion will not occur in any part of tank
d. Surface of floating roof

67. Stiffeners and wind girders are normally inspected visually and by _________testing.

a. PT or MT
b. Leak
c. Hammer
d. UT thickness
e. Outside calipers and steel rules

68. Caustic tanks may be subject to a corrosion mechanism called _________

a. Stress corrosion cracking
b. Caustic embrittlement
c. Temper embrittlement
d. All of the above

69. Where is caustic cracking most common?

a. Bottom of shell
b. Vapor space of the shell & roof
c. Heating coils
d. Nozzle inlet & outlet from tank

70. Caustic material seeping through cracks will usually form readily visible ___________

a. Salts
b. Layer of corrosion
c. Bulging
d. Powdery from outside through cracks

71. Prior to welding on a tank in caustic service the area should be thoroughly cleaned and checked with the _________ solution.

a. Solvent
b. Indicating
c. H2SO4 with 10% Nitric acid
d. HCL with 25% Nitric acid

72. Hydrogen blisters can be found using:

a. Visual examination with flash light
b. Touch with fingers
c. PT or MT
d. All of the above
e. ‘a’ and ‘b’

73. Tank shell distortions can be measured using a ___________

a. Plumb check
b. Straight edge
c. Steel wire
d. Tape

74. Hydrogen blistering mat be found on the shell near:

a. Bottom
b. Nozzles
c. Top of the tank
d. Weld seams

75. These are causes of tank shell distortion and not this one?

a. Severe corrosion of the shell
b. Movement of connecting piping
c. Improper welding method
d. A vacuum in the tank
e. None of the above

76. Tank shell distortions may cause welds to be highly stressed and results in a _________

a. Crack
b. Bending
c. Collapse
d. Corrosion

77. Rivet can be best checked for looseness by using a ____________

a. Light passing through rivets
b. Hammer
c. Scriber
d. UT for loosens and damage

78. The thickness of a tank roof can be checked by __________ or _____________.

a. Hammer test or UT
b. UT or RT
c. UT or ET
d. Scale or outside caliper

79. When walking on a cone-roof tank, planks can be used. Planks that are used should be long enough to span at least __________ should be laid and used as walkways.

a. Two roof rafters
b. All the area of roof
c. Cover one roof plate
d. Leg length of inspector to walk over it

80. Individuals on a tank roof should walk on the _____________.

a. Rafters
b. Weld joints
c. Blanks
d. Center of roof plates

81. When walking on a floating roof, the tank should always be in the _________ position.

a. Low position to reach top safely
b. High gauge position
c. Any where, but safe position
d. Correct level position

82. External corrosion on a tank roof will usually be most severe at __________

a. Coating removed area
b. Insulation removed area
c. Depression where water can remain until it evaporates
d. All of the above

83. What is the primary reason for periodically inspecting flame arrestors?

a. Performance Check
b. Cleanliness and corrosion
c. Plug on arrestors
d. None of the above

84. When tunneling under a tank to inspect the bottom (it is rarely done!) it is difficult to properly_____________ the tunnel.

a. Remove
b. Refill
c. Inspect
d. Access

85. Probably the most expensive way to inspect the bottom-side of the tank floor is to _______ the tank

a. Lift
b. Clean
c. Inspection hole
d. None of the above

86. Types of floating roof drain are_________.

a. Simple open drain
b. Swing joint
c. Flexible-hose drain
d. All of the above

87. When the tank is out-of-service, the floating roof drain piping can be checked by pressure testing. Drains with swing joints require testing at ___________

a. Working pressure
b. Design pressure
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Two pressure 

88. During the external inspection, float-type gauges should be checked to make sure they are not cracked or filled with ___________

a. Water
b. Liquid
c. Any corrosive medium
d. All of the above

89. In a tank you noticed distortion, what will be the immediate action?

a. Check for tolerance of distortion
b. Immediately inform to owner/ operator
c. Determine its cause
d. Ask to analysis for fitness for purpose

90. Before allowing individuals on a floating roof tank that is not in the high-gauge position, a______________ test shall be performed before personnel are allow on the roof.

a. Hammer test
b. Thickness test
c. Gas test
d. Oxygen test

91. Normally internal tank corrosion is most prevalent in:

a. Vapor space
b. Liquid level line
c. Bottom
d. All of the above

92. Dry pyrophoric material can cause:

a. Cracking
b. General metal loss
c. Ignition
d. Pitting

93. Pyrophoric material may accumulate on the tank bottom or on the top of the__________.

a. Bottom plate
b. Nozzles
c. Sump
d. Rafters

94. In source service, corrosion is often occurs in the ___________.

a. Unlined steel
b. Insulation
c. Liquid area
d. Bottom area

95. In source service, corrosive vapors are formed when the _________ mixes with moisture and air.

a. Vapor
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Water
d. Sulfur

96. Carbon steel that has slag inclusions and _______ is more susceptible to hydrogen blistering.

a. Crack
b. Un-coated
c. High temperature
d. Laminations

97. Caustic stress corrosion cracking is prevalent in carbon steel when the temperature is above________°F

a. 100
b. 400
c. 150
d. 350

98. Tank bottoms are normally inspected visually and with __________

a. MFL
b. Ultrasonic thickness or corrosion scan
c. Multi transducer ultrasonic inspection with digital or analog display
d. All of the above

For Question number 99 to 101 :
During the internal inspection, a tank floor can be 100% inspected or partially inspected when
using a statistical method. Based on the statistical method answer the following.

99. What percentage of the floor should be scanned?

a. 100%
b. 50 to 75%
c. 25 to 40%
d. 5 to 10%

100. What pattern across the tank is generally used?

a. Grid
b. ‘X’
c. Line
d. Circular

101. What part should be completely scanned?

a. Any corroded area
b. Center area
c. Outer circumference next to the shell
d. Suspected area

102. Corrosion on the tank bottom may be very ____________.

a. Rare
b. Aggressive
c. Slow
d. Uniform

103. What simple technique can be used to pop deposits out of pits, making the pits much easier to see?

a. Hammering
b. Scratching
c. Blow with air
d. All of the above

104. What tool can assist in measuring the depth of a localized corroded area?

a. Single point ultrasonic-thickness measurements
b. RT
c. UT, MFL & coupon removal
d. All of the above

105. Rivet seams can be checked with a________

a. Hammer
b. Scraper
c. Visual
d. All of the above

106. Depressions in the tank floor and in area around roof supports should be checked for accelerated_________.

a. Corrosion
b. Dent
c. Damage
d. Holes

107. One method to check for penetrations in the bottom is to clean the tank floor and check for_________.

a. Crack
b. Corrosion
c. Wicking
d. Visual

108. One method to check for bottom-side corrosion that is usually not effective is the _______

a. Coupon removal.
b. MFL
c. Ultrasonic computer mapping
d. UT

109. Tanks with bottom angle joining the bottom-to-shell should be checked for _________

a. Corrosion
b. Distortion
c. Crack
d. Leak

110. Tank that contain dilute acids often are lined with________.

a. Rubber lining
b. Asbestos lining
c. Refractory lining
d. Lead lining

111. An effective way to locate pinholes and cracks in lead is with___________

a. MT
b. PT
c. Visual
d. MFL

112. Bulges in a lead liner indicate _________ behind the liner and are likely places of deterioration of the liner.

a. Corrosion
b. CUI
c. Crack
d. Underneath damage in liner

113. What is good practice when examining suspect areas in lead lined tanks?

a. Grid blast and visual
b. Visual & MT
c. Scraping with knife
d. Hammer test

114. Rubber tanks linings can be checked with a __________

a. Holiday detector
b. Visual
c. PT & visual
d. Surface cleaning and visual

115. Holiday testing is used to test ________

a. Erosion and thickness of lining
b. Holes and cracks
c. Mechanical damage
d. All of the above

116. When using a holiday detector it is important that the voltage does not get high enough to_________ the lining.

a. Puncture.
b. Check defect in
c. Operator safety
d. Magnetize

117. Glass-lined tanks should never be _________________.

a. Holiday tested
b. Opened
c. Hammered
d. Leave without NDT after hammer test

118. What type of lined tanks should be painted a unique color to indicate they have a special lining?

a. Rubber lined
b. Lead lined
c. Refractory lined
d. Glass lined

119. If corrosion is noted on the roof and upper shell, the structural members will also usually__________ thinning of the roof or shell.

a. Twice
b. Same
c. Less
d. More

120. What is an effective inspection technique for checking whether there is corrosion behind a concrete lining?

a. Light hammer tapping
b. Rust on surface also evident of corrosion behind
c. If doubt exists cut a section of lining and inspect
d. All of the above 

121. When significant corrosion is seen on the roof during the internal inspection, it is important to erect scaffolding so that ____________

a. Close visual can do
b. NDT for further investigation can do
c. Measurement can taken
d. None of the above

122. If corrosion is found internally on the shell at a specific elevation in a cone roof tank, it is important to check the ______________ at the same elevation.

a. Out side of shell
b. Roof support column
c. Roof structure
d. Shell rings

123. What metallurgy should never be hammer-tested?

a. Carbon steel
b. Alloy steel
c. Cast iron
d. Stainless steel

124. What internal tank component should be hydrostatically tested during an internal inspection?

a. Coils
b. Nozzles & connections
c. Roof drain
d. Tank must hydrostatically tested if required

125. Steam heating coils should be inspected for __________ grooving in the bottom of the coil with either UT or RT.

a. Crack
b. Blockage
c. Condensation
d. Erosion

126. Pontoons on swing line should be visually examined and _________________ for cracks.

a. Cleaned
b. Hammer tapped
c. Conduct leak test
d. Air leak test

127. When hydro-testing a tank consideration should be given to the ________ of the shell material.

a. Stress limit
b. Notch toughness
c. Thickness
d. Type

128. If an atmospheric tank is air tested, the pressure should not exceed _____ inch of water.

a. 0.5
b. 5.0
c. 50
d. 2.0
e. 10

129. A pneumatic test of a tank is good for finding ________ but is not a good pressure test.

a. Leak
b. Defect
c. Strength
d. Bulging

130. What part(s) of the atmospheric tank a very low stress load?

a. Roof
b. Bottom of tank resting on pad
c. Bottom area away from the shell or annular plate
d. All of the above

131. The pressure exerted on the sides of a tank is greatest at the ____________ of the tank.

a. Bottom
b. Shell side
c. Top side
d. Outside, because atmospheric pressure

132. Which of following situations does not appreciably weaken the plate?

a. Crack
b. Locally thinned area
c. Notch
d. Pit

133. Dry pyrophoric accumulations that can’t be cleaned out prior to inspection should be kept__________ during inspection.

a. Dilute
b. Covered
c. Moist
d. Warned to inspection personnel

134. Hydrogen blistering, caustic stress corrosion cracking and mechanical cracking are less frequently occurs in ___________.

a. Roof & bottom
b. Outside of shells
c. Inside of shells
d. Nozzles and internals

135. How can leaking rivets and rivet seams be repaired?

a. Caulked
b. Re-riveted
c. Welded or abrasive blast and epoxy coated
d. All of the above

136. When riveted seams are seal-welded, all rivets and seams with in ______ inches from the weld should be caulked.

a. 4
b. 10
c. 3
d. 6

137. Defective rivets can also be replaced with __________________.

a. Another rivet
b. Welding
c. Tap bolts
d. Plugging

138. List specific requirements when performing weld repairs to rivet heads and seams

a. Use large size electrode to fill the rivet hole easily
b. Position machine at high amperage to melt large size electrode
c. Keep weld bead bigger to fill the hole
d. Use back-step bead application
e. All of the above

139. When installing a new floor over an existing floor at least ________ inches of clean sand, or metal grating or concrete should separate the two floors.

a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2

140. When installing a new floor over existing floor that is cathodically protected, the old floor should___________________.

a. Be removed
b. Not be removed
c. Also be protected
d. Be considered as bottom

141. When installing a new floor over an existing floor that is cathodically protected, and the old floor is not removed, _______________ should be placed between the old and new floors.

a. New cathodic protection
b. Ribbon anodes
c. Corrosion cells
d. Any of the above

142. Prior to gouging out a crack, what should be done?

a. NDT for locating exact propagation of crack
b. Drill hole in each end of crack
c. Grind surface deburr
d. Mark the area of crack for rechecking

143. Deep pits may be filled with _________________

a. Welding
b. Putty
c. Paint
d. Lining

144. Prior to repairing a pit with a coating, the pit should be thoroughly cleaned by____________

a. Abrasive blasting
b. Chemical
c. Any method to make pit free form contamination
d. Cleaner

145. Leaks in tank roofs are often repaired using a ______________

a. Patch plate
b. Welding
c. Coating
d. Soft patch

146. Good inspection records are the basis of ___________ inspection program.

a. Good
b. Effective
c. Complete
d. Proper

147. Tank records should be kept for the ____________ of the each tank.

a. Service life
b. Up to commissioning
c. Up to clearance from AI
d. 5 years from commissioning

148. Item should be documented when internal or external tank inspections are performed.

a. Date of next inspection
b. Name of person who performed the inspection
c. Location of the repair
d. All of the above

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ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers

Top 99 Latest ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers (Closed Book)

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists:

A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list:

A. Essential variables.
B. Qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.

A. 1962
B. Current
C. 1986
D. 1995

6. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.

A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.

A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _____________positions.

A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:

A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.

A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe:

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe:

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for the WPS.

A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable for the WPS.

A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’____________________________.

A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.

A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?

A. Yes
B. No

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.

A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the___________ variables specified.

A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing 1/2″ of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.

A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”

29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designate dusing:

A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process______________________ is an essential variable.

A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?

A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?

A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor.

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:

A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?

A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.

True
False

44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?

A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes.

Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonic?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are:

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production?

(Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?

A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?

A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will this test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable

54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?

A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?

A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?

A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above

60. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?

A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

61. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:

A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

62. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test.
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

63. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties.
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

64. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.

True
False

65. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:

A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

66. A non-essential variable may be changes without requalification because:

A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

67. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.

True
False

68. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :

A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

69. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.

True
False

70. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?

A. Pass
B. Fail

71. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.

True
False

72. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.

True
False

73. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

True
False

74. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.

True
False

75. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a_____________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

76. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an______________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

77. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.

True
False

78. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.

A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

79. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.

True
False

80. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.

True
False

81. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

True
False

82. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.

True
False

83. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.

True
False

84. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?

A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

85. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without requalification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:

A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

86. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when:

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

87. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?

A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

88. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that process?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

89. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

90. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:

A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

91. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:

A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

92. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:

A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

93. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses_______________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.

A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above

94. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

95. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR

True
False

96. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:

A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches

97. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?

A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above

98. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?

A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above

99. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?

A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

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