Latest ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers (Closed Book)
Below is the corrected and reformatted version of the uploaded 99-question set. ASME currently identifies BPVC Section IX, 2025 Edition as the latest edition, so candidates should always confirm which edition their examination or project references
Q1. What is the primary purpose of qualifying a Welding Procedure Specification using a Procedure Qualification Record?
A. To demonstrate that the proposed weldment can provide the required mechanical properties
B. To determine the welder’s manual skill
C. To confirm that the base metal was properly designed
D. To obtain the Authorized Inspector’s approval of every production weld
Correct Answer: A. To demonstrate that the proposed weldment can provide the required mechanical properties
Explanation: A WPS supported by a PQR demonstrates that the proposed welding procedure can produce a weldment having the mechanical properties required for the intended application. Welder skill is evaluated separately through performance qualification.
Q2. Which statement correctly describes the variables shown on a WPS?
A. It records only the actual values used during the qualification test
B. It specifies applicable essential, nonessential, and supplementary essential variables, including permitted ranges
C. It contains only essential variables
D. It contains only variables selected by the welder
Correct Answer: B. It specifies applicable essential, nonessential, and supplementary essential variables, including permitted ranges
Explanation: A WPS provides directions for production welding. It must address all applicable essential and nonessential variables and supplementary essential variables when notch-toughness qualification is required.
Q3. A PQR must record which of the following?
A. Only the manufacturer’s recommended welding ranges
B. Only nonessential variables
C. Actual essential variables, applicable supplementary essential variables, and qualification test results
D. Only the welder’s identification and test position
Correct Answer: C. Actual essential variables, applicable supplementary essential variables, and qualification test results
Explanation: The PQR is a factual record of what occurred during procedure qualification. It records actual values rather than the broad ranges normally shown on a WPS.
Q4. Procedures qualified under which earliest ASME Section IX edition may generally continue to be used, subject to the applicable construction code?
A. 1958 Edition
B. 1987 Edition
C. 1992 Edition
D. 1962 Edition
Correct Answer: D. 1962 Edition
Explanation: Section IX has historically permitted continued use of procedures qualified under the 1962 Edition or later editions, provided the procedure remains valid and complies with the referencing construction code.
Q5. A newly prepared WPS must comply with which edition of Section IX?
A. The edition and addenda adopted by the applicable construction code or governing contract
B. Any edition selected by the welder
C. Only the edition used for the company’s oldest PQR
D. The 1962 Edition in every case
Correct Answer: A. The edition and addenda adopted by the applicable construction code or governing contract
Explanation: New qualifications must comply with the Code edition legally or contractually applicable to the work. This is commonly the current edition adopted by the referencing construction code.
Q6. Who is responsible for conducting the tests required to qualify the WPSs used by an organization?
A. The Authorized Inspector
B. The manufacturer or contractor
C. The individual welder alone
D. The electrode manufacturer
Correct Answer: B. The manufacturer or contractor
Explanation: Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding performed by its organization and for qualifying the welding procedures it uses.
Q7. Qualification records must be made available for review by whom?
A. Any production employee
B. The filler-metal supplier
C. The Authorized Inspector
D. Only the welding supervisor
Correct Answer: C. The Authorized Inspector
Explanation: WPSs, PQRs, and welder or welding-operator qualification records must be available to the Authorized Inspector when required by the applicable construction code.
Q8. A welder who qualifies on a plate groove weld in the 4G position is qualified for which plate groove-welding positions?
A. Flat and vertical
B. Horizontal and vertical
C. Vertical and overhead
D. Flat and overhead
Correct Answer: D. Flat and overhead
Explanation: The 4G position is the overhead plate-groove position. Under the position qualification ranges, it qualifies the welder for flat and overhead groove welds.
Q9. A welder qualifies using plate fillet welds in both the 3F and 4F positions. Which plate groove-welding positions are qualified?
A. None; fillet-weld qualification does not qualify the welder for groove welds
B. Flat position only
C. Flat and horizontal positions
D. All groove-welding positions
Correct Answer: A. None; fillet-weld qualification does not qualify the welder for groove welds
Explanation: Fillet-weld performance qualification qualifies the welder for applicable fillet welds only. A groove-weld qualification is required before performing production groove welds.
Q10. A welder qualifies on a 3/4-inch outside-diameter pipe in the 5G position. Which production weld is within the qualified range?
A. A 1/2-inch outside-diameter pipe in the overhead position
B. A 6-inch outside-diameter pipe in the vertical position
C. A 3/4-inch pipe in the 2G horizontal position
D. A 1/2-inch pipe in the horizontal position
Correct Answer: B. A 6-inch outside-diameter pipe in the vertical position
Explanation: A 5G qualification covers flat, vertical, and overhead welding but not the 2G horizontal circumferential position. The smaller 1/2-inch pipe is below the diameter qualified by a 3/4-inch coupon.
Q11. Qualification on a groove-weld performance test normally also qualifies the welder to make:
A. Stud welds only
B. Brazed joints
C. Fillet welds
D. Resistance welds only
Correct Answer: C. Fillet welds
Explanation: A successful groove-weld performance qualification generally qualifies the welder to make fillet welds within the applicable process, position, diameter, and variable limitations.
Q12. Charpy V-notch testing is primarily used to determine a weldment’s:
A. Ultimate tensile strength
B. Surface hardness
C. Chemical composition
D. Notch toughness
Correct Answer: D. Notch toughness
Explanation: Charpy V-notch testing measures the energy absorbed when a notched specimen fractures. It is used to evaluate resistance to brittle fracture at a specified temperature.
Q13. May a welder using the SAW process on an eligible material be qualified by a permitted volumetric examination instead of guided-bend testing?
A. Yes, when the applicable Section IX requirements for volumetric examination are satisfied
B. No, SAW welders must always be qualified by bend testing
C. Only when the pipe is less than 1 inch in diameter
D. Only when the test coupon is a fillet weld
Correct Answer: A. Yes, when the applicable Section IX requirements for volumetric examination are satisfied
Explanation: Welders using eligible processes, including SAW, may be qualified by an allowed volumetric examination method when all requirements and material limitations are satisfied.
Q14. A procedure-qualification tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside the weld or fusion line. How far below the specified minimum tensile strength may the result be and still be accepted?
A. 3.5%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. No reduction is permitted
Correct Answer: B. 5%
Explanation: A specimen that breaks in the base metal outside the weld or fusion line may be accepted when its tensile strength is not more than 5% below the specified minimum tensile strength of the base metal.
Q15. What is the maximum permitted open discontinuity on the convex surface of a guided-bend specimen, excluding applicable corner-crack provisions?
A. 1/16 inch
B. 3/32 inch
C. 1/8 inch
D. 1/4 inch
Correct Answer: C. 1/8 inch
Explanation: No open discontinuity exceeding 1/8 inch, measured in any direction, is permitted in the weld or heat-affected zone on the convex surface after bending.
Q16. Where are the acceptance standards for radiographic or other permitted volumetric examination of a welder qualification test found?
A. Only in ASME Section V
B. Only in the filler-metal specification
C. Only in the manufacturer’s quality manual
D. ASME Section IX
Correct Answer: D. ASME Section IX
Explanation: Section V provides examination methods, but Section IX establishes the applicable acceptance criteria for welder performance qualification.
Q17. A complete WPS must address:
A. Essential, nonessential, and applicable supplementary essential variables
B. Essential variables only
C. Nonessential variables only
D. Welder-performance variables only
Correct Answer: A. Essential, nonessential, and applicable supplementary essential variables
Explanation: All applicable variables must be addressed on the WPS. Supplementary essential variables become applicable when notch-toughness qualification is required.
Q18. Which statement correctly distinguishes a PQR from a WPS?
A. A PQR provides broad production ranges, while a WPS records only test results
B. A PQR records the actual variables used and qualification results
C. A PQR contains only nonessential variables
D. A PQR is prepared individually for every production welder
Correct Answer: B. A PQR records the actual variables used and qualification results
Explanation: The PQR documents the actual qualification test. The WPS translates that qualification into permitted production-welding ranges and instructions.
Q19. Who must certify that a PQR is accurate?
A. The production welder
B. The Authorized Inspector alone
C. The manufacturer or contractor
D. The filler-metal manufacturer
Correct Answer: C. The manufacturer or contractor
Explanation: The organization that conducted and controlled the procedure qualification is responsible for certifying that the PQR accurately represents the test.
Q20. Which of the following is an essential variable for an SMAW procedure qualification?
A. Method of interpass cleaning
B. Groove-detail drafting style
C. Electrode-holder manufacturer
D. Postweld heat treatment condition
Correct Answer: D. Postweld heat treatment condition
Explanation: A change in the specified PWHT condition can significantly affect weld-metal and heat-affected-zone properties and may require procedure requalification.
Q21. Which change is an essential variable for an SAW procedure?
A. Addition, deletion, or a change exceeding the permitted amount of supplemental filler metal
B. Changing the welder’s helmet
C. Changing the wire-reel location
D. Changing the method used to mark the joint
Correct Answer: A. Addition, deletion, or a change exceeding the permitted amount of supplemental filler metal
Explanation: QW-404.24 addresses changes in supplemental filler metal. For SAW, this is treated as an essential procedure variable.
Q22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s:
A. Knowledge of every Section IX paragraph
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Ability to design a pressure vessel
D. General attitude toward inspection personnel
Correct Answer: B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
Explanation: Performance qualification evaluates the welder’s ability to produce an acceptable weld while following a qualified WPS.
Q23. What is the record of a welder’s performance qualification commonly called?
A. WPS
B. PQR
C. WPQ
D. MDR
Correct Answer: C. WPQ
Explanation: WPQ means Welder Performance Qualification or Welder/Welding Operator Performance Qualification. Form QW-484 is a suggested format.
Q24. A welder qualified with SMAW on January 1 and last used SMAW on March 15. Is the qualification still valid on October 7 of the same year if no intervening SMAW welding occurred?
A. Yes, because qualifications remain valid for one year
B. Yes, because the original test was completed successfully
C. Yes, provided the welder used another arc-welding process
D. No, because the welder did not use SMAW for more than six months
Correct Answer: D. No, because the welder did not use SMAW for more than six months
Explanation: A welder’s qualification expires for a process when the welder has not used that process for a period of six months or more.
Q25. A welder qualifies with a groove weld made from both sides. What backing condition is qualified?
A. Welding with backing only
B. Welding without backing only
C. Both with and without backing automatically
D. Open-root welding only
Correct Answer: A. Welding with backing only
Explanation: For welder performance qualification, a double-welded groove weld is considered a weld made with backing. It does not qualify the welder for welding without backing.
Q26. When an immediate retest follows a failed welder qualification test, which principle generally applies?
A. The welder may select any unrelated test method
B. The retest follows the applicable requirements for the failed qualification method and requires the prescribed additional successful tests
C. Only one abbreviated coupon is required
D. The original failed result is ignored without further testing
Correct Answer: B. The retest follows the applicable requirements for the failed qualification method and requires the prescribed additional successful tests
Explanation: Immediate retesting is permitted, but Section IX requires additional successful test coupons or examination lengths according to the method originally failed.
Q27. A welder-performance qualification record must document:
A. Every nonessential WPS variable
B. Only the employer’s production schedule
C. All applicable performance essential variables
D. The complete design calculations for the component
Correct Answer: C. All applicable performance essential variables
Explanation: A WPQ must show the essential variables that establish the welder’s qualified process, position, progression, backing, diameter, thickness, and filler-metal ranges.
Q28. A welder deposits 1/2 inch of weld metal with SMAW during qualification. What maximum deposited weld-metal thickness is normally qualified?
A. Exactly 1/2 inch
B. 3/4 inch
C. 1 inch
D. Unlimited, or the maximum thickness to be welded
Correct Answer: D. Unlimited, or the maximum thickness to be welded
Explanation: When the deposited weld-metal thickness for a process is at least 1/2 inch, the welder is generally qualified for the maximum deposited thickness to be welded.
Q29. P-Numbers are used to group:
A. Base metals having comparable qualification characteristics
B. Welding positions
C. Joint configurations
D. Nondestructive examination methods
Correct Answer: A. Base metals having comparable qualification characteristics
Explanation: P-Numbers reduce the number of procedure qualifications by grouping base metals with similar welding and qualification characteristics.
Q30. A welder qualifies by welding P-No. 21 material to P-No. 21 material. What base-metal range is generally qualified within that performance group?
A. P-No. 1 through P-No. 15F only
B. P-No. 21 through P-No. 26, subject to applicable Section IX limitations
C. P-No. 8 only
D. P-No. 21 only in every circumstance
Correct Answer: B. P-No. 21 through P-No. 26, subject to applicable Section IX limitations
Explanation: Performance qualification groups the applicable aluminum P-Numbers together. The governing edition and any special process or material restrictions must still be reviewed.
Q31. Welding electrodes and filler metals are grouped for qualification purposes primarily by:
A. P-Number
B. Group Number
C. F-Number
D. Position Number
Correct Answer: C. F-Number
Explanation: F-Numbers group filler metals according to usability characteristics that affect a welder’s ability to make a satisfactory weld.
Q32. The chemical composition classification of ferrous weld-metal deposits may be designated by:
A. P-Number
B. F-Number
C. S-Number
D. A-Number
Correct Answer: D. A-Number
Explanation: A-Numbers classify ferrous weld-metal deposits according to their nominal chemical composition.
Q33. Which thickness-related item is an essential variable for SMAW welder performance qualification?
A. Deposited weld-metal thickness for the process
B. Total component design thickness only
C. Thickness of the welder’s gloves
D. Thickness of the electrode coating only
Correct Answer: A. Deposited weld-metal thickness for the process
Explanation: The amount of weld metal deposited during qualification establishes the thickness range the welder may deposit in production.
Q34. Each qualified welder or welding operator must be assigned:
A. A separate P-Number
B. A unique identification symbol, number, or mark
C. A separate WPS for every weld
D. An Authorized Inspector’s identification number
Correct Answer: B. A unique identification symbol, number, or mark
Explanation: A unique identifier allows completed production welds and qualification records to be traced to the individual who performed the welding.
Q35. A welder qualifies on 1/4-inch plate in the 2G position. May the welder make a circumferential groove weld on 1-inch outside-diameter pipe in the 2G position without additional qualification?
A. Yes, because plate qualifies every pipe diameter
B. Yes, if the material is P-No. 1
C. No, because plate qualification does not qualify pipe of that small diameter
D. No, because 2G never qualifies horizontal welding
Correct Answer: C. No, because plate qualification does not qualify pipe of that small diameter
Explanation: Plate qualification normally qualifies pipe only above the applicable large-diameter threshold. A 1-inch outside-diameter pipe requires a pipe qualification within the appropriate diameter range.
Q36. What is a fundamental difference between GMAW and GTAW?
A. GTAW cannot use shielding gas
B. GMAW always uses a nonconsumable tungsten electrode
C. Both processes use an identical electrode system
D. GMAW uses a continuously fed consumable electrode, while GTAW uses a nonconsumable tungsten electrode
Correct Answer: D. GMAW uses a continuously fed consumable electrode, while GTAW uses a nonconsumable tungsten electrode
Explanation: In GMAW, the continuously fed wire serves as both electrode and filler metal. GTAW uses a nonconsumable tungsten electrode, with filler metal added separately when required.
Q37. A welder qualifies in 6G on 6-inch Schedule 160 pipe. May the welder weld a 2-inch nominal pipe connection having a 2.375-inch outside diameter without additional diameter qualification?
A. No, because the production pipe is below the minimum diameter qualified by the 6-inch coupon
B. Yes, because a 6G test qualifies every pipe diameter
C. Yes, provided the joint has backing
D. Yes, provided both materials are P-No. 1
Correct Answer: A. No, because the production pipe is below the minimum diameter qualified by the 6-inch coupon
Explanation: A test coupon with an outside diameter of 2-7/8 inches or greater generally qualifies a minimum production diameter of 2-7/8 inches. A 2.375-inch outside-diameter pipe is below that range.
Q38. May a welder qualified using a double-groove weld make a single-V groove weld without backing?
A. Yes, because groove design is always nonessential for welders
B. No, because a double-welded groove is treated as welding with backing
C. Yes, if the same electrode classification is used
D. Yes, if the base metal has the same P-Number
Correct Answer: B. No, because a double-welded groove is treated as welding with backing
Explanation: Deletion of backing is a performance-essential variable. Qualification with a double-welded joint does not qualify the welder for an open-root weld without backing.
Q39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography or ultrasonic examination when welding P-No. 22 material if that material is excluded from volumetric performance qualification?
A. Yes, without restriction
B. Yes, if an F-No. 22 filler metal is used
C. No; the required mechanical performance tests must be completed
D. No, because GTAW welders can never be volumetrically qualified
Correct Answer: C. No; the required mechanical performance tests must be completed
Explanation: Certain nonferrous material groups, including applicable P-No. 21 through P-No. 26 materials, are excluded from the volumetric-examination alternative for welder qualification.
Q40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders, and welding operators used by an organization?
A. The Authorized Inspector
B. The welding foreman personally
C. The purchaser
D. The manufacturer or contractor
Correct Answer: D. The manufacturer or contractor
Explanation: The manufacturer or contractor retains responsibility for qualifying the procedures and personnel used by its organization, even when some testing work is subcontracted.
Q41. In the SMAW electrode classification E6010, what does the digit “1” indicate?
A. The electrode is suitable for all welding positions
B. The electrode is limited to flat welding
C. The electrode is limited to horizontal fillet welds
D. The electrode must be used only after PWHT
Correct Answer: A. The electrode is suitable for all welding positions
Explanation: In this AWS electrode classification, the third digit identifies the welding-position capability. The digit 1 indicates all-position use.
Q42. May an FCAW welder qualified by ultrasonic examination be used for production welding?
A. No, ultrasonic examination is never permitted
B. Yes, when the qualification satisfies the applicable QW-302 and QW-304 requirements
C. Only when the welder changes to GMAW short-circuiting transfer
D. Only for fillet welds
Correct Answer: B. Yes, when the qualification satisfies the applicable QW-302 and QW-304 requirements
Explanation: Current editions permit eligible welders using FCAW to be qualified by an allowed volumetric examination, including UT, when the applicable examination length, procedure, acceptance, and material requirements are satisfied.
Q43. A welder may independently deviate from a WPS requirement merely because the requirement is classified as a nonessential variable.
A. True, without documentation
B. True, provided the welder informs another welder
C. False; production welding must follow the WPS unless the WPS is properly revised
D. False only when impact testing is required
Correct Answer: C. False; production welding must follow the WPS unless the WPS is properly revised
Explanation: A nonessential variable may be changed without requalifying the procedure, but the change must still be incorporated into a revised or amended WPS.
Q44. How many guided-bend specimens are normally required for a 6G pipe welder qualification when mechanical testing is used?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: D. Four
Explanation: A 6G pipe coupon is sampled at multiple locations around the circumference. Depending on coupon thickness, the required specimens are normally face-and-root bends or side bends.
Q45. Which combination of pipe positions qualifies a welder for all-position groove welding on pipe?
A. 2G and 5G
B. 1G and 2G
C. 3G and 4G plate only
D. 1G and 5G
Correct Answer: A. 2G and 5G
Explanation: The combination of 2G and 5G covers the horizontal, flat, vertical, and overhead pipe-welding positions. A 6G qualification can also provide broad all-position coverage.
Q46. Where should mandatory electrode storage, conditioning, and exposure requirements be determined?
A. Section IX alone
B. The applicable construction code, project specification, quality program, filler-metal specification, and manufacturer’s instructions
C. The WPQ form only
D. The P-Number table
Correct Answer: B. The applicable construction code, project specification, quality program, filler-metal specification, and manufacturer’s instructions
Explanation: Section IX primarily addresses qualification. Electrode storage and conditioning controls must be established from the applicable construction requirements, procurement specifications, quality program, and filler-metal manufacturer’s instructions.
Q47. A P-No. 8 procedure qualification uses E308 filler metal. May the supporting WPS list E308, E308L, E309, and E316 electrodes when they remain within all applicable qualified F-Number, A-Number, specification, toughness, and chemistry limitations?
A. No, a PQR qualifies only one exact trade name
B. No, every electrode classification requires a separate PQR
C. Yes, when all applicable Section IX variable limitations are satisfied
D. Yes, without reviewing F-Numbers or A-Numbers
Correct Answer: C. Yes, when all applicable Section IX variable limitations are satisfied
Explanation: A WPS may include filler metals covered by the ranges established by the supporting PQR. Applicable F-Number, A-Number, classification, chemistry, toughness, and construction-code requirements must be checked.
Q48. May a GMAW short-circuiting-transfer procedure be qualified solely by real-time ultrasonic examination?
A. Yes, when the weld looks acceptable
B. Yes, for P-No. 1 material only
C. Yes, if the welder already holds a WPQ
D. No; procedure qualification requires the applicable mechanical tests and cannot be replaced solely by UT
Correct Answer: D. No; procedure qualification requires the applicable mechanical tests and cannot be replaced solely by UT
Explanation: Procedure qualification generally requires tension and guided-bend tests, plus any additional tests required by the referencing code. NDE alone does not establish the required mechanical properties.
Q49. Which group contains three recognized arc-welding processes?
A. SMAW, GTAW, and PAW
B. OAW, brazing, and soldering
C. Resistance spot welding, brazing, and adhesive bonding
D. Friction welding, soldering, and torch brazing
Correct Answer: A. SMAW, GTAW, and PAW
Explanation: Shielded metal arc welding, gas tungsten arc welding, and plasma arc welding are all arc-welding processes recognized by Section IX.
Q50. A welder qualifies with SMAW using an E7018 electrode on P-No. 1 material. May the welder use an E8028 electrode on P-No. 4 material with backing when both electrodes are within the applicable qualified F-Number range and a valid WPS exists?
A. No, because any change in electrode classification requires welder requalification
B. Yes, subject to the applicable F-Number, backing, thickness, position, and base-metal performance ranges
C. No, because P-No. 4 can never be welded by an SMAW welder qualified on P-No. 1
D. Yes, even if no qualified WPS exists
Correct Answer: B. Yes, subject to the applicable F-Number, backing, thickness, position, and base-metal performance ranges
Explanation: Welder qualification is governed mainly by the applicable performance variables, including F-Number and base-metal group limitations. Production welding must still be performed under a qualified WPS.
Q51. May a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 Edition of Section IX continue to be used?
A. No, all old procedures automatically expired
B. Only for repair work
C. Yes, provided it remains valid and is permitted by the applicable construction code
D. Only for vessels constructed in 1965
Correct Answer: C. Yes, provided it remains valid and is permitted by the applicable construction code
Explanation: Section IX generally permits continued use of properly qualified legacy procedures dating from the recognized editions, unless the procedure is changed beyond its qualified range or the referencing code requires otherwise.
Q52. Which are recognized plate groove-weld test positions?
A. 1G only
B. 3G only
C. 4G only
D. 1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G
Correct Answer: D. 1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G
Explanation: Plate groove-weld positions include flat 1G, horizontal 2G, vertical 3G, and overhead 4G.
Q53. A purported 6G WPQ contains two tensile tests and only one root bend and one face bend. One tensile specimen breaks in the weld below the base-metal minimum tensile strength. Does the record establish an acceptable 6G welder qualification?
A. No
B. Yes, because one tensile specimen broke in the base metal
C. Yes, because tensile tests always replace all required bends
D. Yes, provided the Authorized Inspector signs the record
Correct Answer: A. No
Explanation: Tensile testing is not the standard substitute for the required welder-performance bend testing. The listed testing is incomplete for a typical 6G mechanical qualification, and the deficient tensile result would not support acceptance in any event.
Q54. What are the two principal orientations of guided-bend specimens?
A. Face and root
B. Transverse and longitudinal
C. Side and face
D. Root and side
Correct Answer: B. Transverse and longitudinal
Explanation: Guided-bend specimens may be oriented transversely or longitudinally to the weld. Face, root, and side identify the surface placed in tension during bending.
Q55. A welder qualified in the 5G pipe position is qualified for which plate groove-welding positions?
A. Flat, horizontal, and vertical
B. Horizontal, vertical, and overhead
C. Flat, vertical, and overhead
D. Flat and horizontal only
Correct Answer: C. Flat, vertical, and overhead
Explanation: During a 5G test, the fixed horizontal pipe requires the welder to weld through flat, vertical, and overhead regions.
Q56. Which of the following is a covered SMAW electrode?
A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Each designation represents a classified covered electrode intended for shielded metal arc welding.
Q57. Applicable essential variables are documented on which qualification documents?
A. The WPS, PQR, and WPQ, as applicable to each document
B. The WPS only
C. The PQR only
D. The WPQ only
Correct Answer: A. The WPS, PQR, and WPQ, as applicable to each document
Explanation: The WPS states permitted ranges, the PQR records actual procedure variables, and the WPQ records applicable performance essential variables.
Q58. Why are multiple bend specimens removed from 5G and 6G pipe-performance coupons?
A. To determine base-metal chemistry
B. To evaluate weld quality from several locations around the pipe circumference
C. To calculate the pipe’s design pressure
D. To establish the electrode’s AWS classification
Correct Answer: B. To evaluate weld quality from several locations around the pipe circumference
Explanation: Welding conditions and welder technique change around a fixed pipe. Multiple specimens evaluate representative flat, vertical, and overhead regions of the completed weld.
Q59. Which visual condition may cause rejection of a welder’s test coupon?
A. Incomplete penetration or incomplete fusion
B. Unacceptable overlap or underfill
C. Any listed unacceptable discontinuity
D. Only discoloration
Correct Answer: C. Any listed unacceptable discontinuity
Explanation: Cracks, incomplete fusion, incomplete penetration where full penetration is required, unacceptable undercut, overlap, excessive reinforcement, and other prohibited conditions can result in visual rejection.
Q60. Where does Section IX identify Standard Welding Procedure Specifications accepted for use?
A. QW-484
B. Section V, Article 2
C. Section II, Part D
D. The applicable Section IX appendix listing accepted SWPSs
Correct Answer: D. The applicable Section IX appendix listing accepted SWPSs
Explanation: Only SWPSs accepted and listed by Section IX may be adopted under Article V. The governing edition should be checked because appendix organization and listings may change.
Q61. A variable whose change may affect the mechanical properties of a weldment is called:
A. An essential variable
B. A nonessential variable
C. An administrative variable
D. A welder-identification variable
Correct Answer: A. An essential variable
Explanation: Changing an essential variable beyond the qualified limitation requires requalification of the welding procedure.
Q62. Which test determines the ultimate tensile strength of a groove-weld joint?
A. Charpy impact test
B. Tension test
C. Fillet-weld fracture test
D. Visual examination
Correct Answer: B. Tension test
Explanation: A transverse or longitudinal tension specimen is loaded until failure to determine the tensile strength of the welded joint.
Q63. What does a successful procedure-qualification test demonstrate?
A. That every welder is automatically qualified
B. That the production component has passed final inspection
C. That the proposed welding procedure can produce a weldment with the required properties
D. That no production NDE will be necessary
Correct Answer: C. That the proposed welding procedure can produce a weldment with the required properties
Explanation: Procedure qualification evaluates the proposed welding variables and resulting weld properties. It does not qualify every welder or replace production inspection.
Q64. When notch toughness is required, a change beyond the qualified limit of a supplementary essential variable requires procedure requalification.
A. False, because supplementary variables are always optional
B. False, unless the welder requests it
C. True only for fillet welds
D. True
Correct Answer: D. True
Explanation: Supplementary essential variables are treated as essential variables when the referencing construction code requires notch-toughness qualification.
Q65. What must an acceptable fillet-weld macro-examination demonstrate?
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks
B. A perfectly equal weld-leg length under all circumstances
C. A minimum tensile strength of 70,000 psi
D. Complete absence of all visible weld ripples
Correct Answer: A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks
Explanation: The etched cross-section must demonstrate acceptable fusion at the weld root and fusion boundaries and must be free from cracks. Other dimensional acceptance criteria also apply.
Q66. Why may a nonessential procedure variable be changed without repeating the procedure qualification test?
A. Because nonessential variables do not need to appear on the WPS
B. Because the change is not considered to affect the required mechanical or notch-toughness properties
C. Because the welder may select any value
D. Because the Authorized Inspector assumes responsibility for the change
Correct Answer: B. Because the change is not considered to affect the required mechanical or notch-toughness properties
Explanation: The WPS must still be revised to reflect the change, but a new PQR is not required solely because a nonessential variable changed.
Q67. Which type of WPS variable may be revised without requalifying the supporting PQR?
A. An essential variable changed beyond its qualified range
B. A supplementary essential variable when toughness is required
C. A nonessential variable
D. Any variable selected by the welder
Correct Answer: C. A nonessential variable
Explanation: A nonessential variable may be revised without procedure requalification. However, the revised condition must be properly recorded on the WPS.
Q68. Which statement about changing noneditorial qualification data on a PQR is correct?
A. It may be changed whenever the WPS is revised
B. It may be changed with verbal approval from the welder
C. It may be changed when an Authorized Inspector initials it
D. Actual qualification data must not be altered; materially different data require a new qualification
Correct Answer: D. Actual qualification data must not be altered; materially different data require a new qualification
Explanation: A PQR is a record of what actually occurred. Editorial corrections may be made and properly recertified, but qualification data cannot be rewritten to represent conditions that were not used.
Q69. May tension tests be used by themselves in place of the required guided-bend tests for routine welder performance qualification?
A. No
B. Yes, without restriction
C. Yes, when the welder uses SMAW
D. Yes, when the tensile strength exceeds 70,000 psi
Correct Answer: A. No
Explanation: Welder performance qualification is normally based on the prescribed mechanical performance tests or a permitted volumetric-examination alternative. Procedure-qualification tensile tests do not independently replace the required performance tests.
Q70. A guided-bend specimen has one linear indication measuring exactly 1/8 inch on the convex surface. No other rejectable indications are present. What is the result?
A. Fail, because all indications are prohibited
B. Pass
C. Fail, because the limit is 1/16 inch
D. Retest is mandatory
Correct Answer: B. Pass
Explanation: The criterion prohibits an open discontinuity exceeding 1/8 inch. An indication measuring exactly 1/8 inch does not exceed the limit.
Q71. Unless a position-related supplementary essential variable applies because notch toughness is required, a welding procedure qualified in one position may generally be used in other positions.
A. False in every case
B. True only for welding operators
C. True, subject to applicable progression and variable requirements
D. True only for flat-position welding
Correct Answer: C. True, subject to applicable progression and variable requirements
Explanation: Position is generally a nonessential procedure variable. However, vertical progression and supplementary essential position requirements must be reviewed where applicable.
Q72. Which qualification specifically evaluates an individual welder’s ability to deposit sound weld metal?
A. WPS
B. PQR
C. Material test report
D. WPQ
Correct Answer: D. WPQ
Explanation: A WPQ evaluates the welder’s or welding operator’s performance. A WPS and PQR qualify and document the welding procedure.
Q73. Welders using P-No. 61 or P-No. 62 materials may always be qualified by radiography instead of mechanical testing.
A. False
B. True
C. True only for fillet welds
D. True only when no filler metal is used
Correct Answer: A. False
Explanation: Section IX restricts use of the volumetric-examination alternative for certain material groups. The exact restrictions in the governing edition must be checked before selecting the qualification method.
Q74. An organization may subcontract the welding of a procedure-qualification coupon and exercise no supervision or control over that welding.
A. True
B. False
C. True when the testing laboratory is accredited
D. True when the Authorized Inspector witnesses the final test only
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: Preparation and testing activities may be subcontracted under permitted conditions, but the qualifying organization must maintain the required supervision and control over the qualification welding.
Q75. For an SMAW procedure qualification under Section IX, deletion of backing under QW-402.4 is normally classified as:
A. A supplementary essential variable
B. An essential variable in every Section IX application
C. A nonessential procedure variable
D. A base-metal variable
Correct Answer: C. A nonessential procedure variable
Explanation: Under the general Section IX SMAW procedure-variable table, deletion of backing is a nonessential WPS variable. It is, however, an essential variable for SMAW welder performance qualification. Other governing codes may impose additional requirements.
Q76. For an SAW procedure qualification, QW-404.24 concerning supplemental filler metal is classified as:
A. A nonessential variable
B. A supplementary essential variable only
C. A performance variable only
D. An essential variable
Correct Answer: D. An essential variable
Explanation: Addition, deletion, or a change beyond the permitted amount of supplemental filler metal can affect deposited weld-metal composition and properties and therefore requires procedure requalification.
Q77. The manufacturer or contractor must certify that the information recorded on a PQR is true and correct.
A. True
B. False
C. Only when the PQR is witnessed by the purchaser
D. Only for impact-tested procedures
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: Certification confirms that the organization controlled the qualification and that the recorded variables and test results accurately represent what occurred.
Q78. For SMAW welder performance qualification, the welding-position variable in QW-405.1 is:
A. Nonessential
B. Essential
C. Supplementary essential only
D. Not applicable
Correct Answer: B. Essential
Explanation: The position used during the test determines the production positions for which the welder is qualified.
Q79. Which document records the actual variables used while welding a procedure-qualification coupon and the resulting test results?
A. WPQ
B. WPS
C. PQR
D. Material requisition
Correct Answer: C. PQR
Explanation: The PQR is the permanent factual record of the procedure-qualification test. The WPS contains the production ranges supported by that record.
Q80. Qualification in the 4G plate position qualifies a welder for all plate groove-welding positions.
A. True
B. True when P-No. 1 material is used
C. True when the electrode is F-No. 4
D. False
Correct Answer: D. False
Explanation: A 4G qualification covers flat and overhead plate groove positions. It does not independently qualify horizontal or vertical groove welding.
Q81. Which document must specify all applicable nonessential procedure variables?
A. WPS
B. PQR only
C. WPQ only
D. Material test report
Correct Answer: A. WPS
Explanation: Although changing a nonessential variable does not require procedure requalification, all applicable nonessential variables must be addressed in the WPS.
Q82. Groove-weld procedure-qualification coupons are routinely accepted solely through macro-examination.
A. True
B. False
C. True when the coupon is P-No. 1
D. True when the coupon is less than 3/8 inch thick
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: Groove-weld procedure qualification normally requires the prescribed tension and guided-bend tests, plus any additional tests required by the referencing code.
Q83. Impact testing of a welding procedure is required when the applicable construction code or design requirements impose notch-toughness qualification.
A. False
B. True only for stainless steel
C. True
D. True only for fillet welds
Correct Answer: C. True
Explanation: Section IX supplies the qualification rules, but the referencing construction code determines when notch-toughness testing is required.
Q84. A welder already qualified in the 2G pipe position needs which additional position to obtain all-position pipe groove-weld coverage?
A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 4G plate
D. 5G
Correct Answer: D. 5G
Explanation: Combining 2G and 5G pipe qualifications covers horizontal, flat, vertical, and overhead welding positions.
Q85. Under the general preheat essential-variable rule, what is the maximum decrease from the qualified minimum preheat temperature that does not exceed the 100°F requalification threshold?
A. 100°F
B. 50°F
C. 125°F
D. 150°F
Correct Answer: A. 100°F
Explanation: A decrease of more than 100°F, or 55°C, from the qualified preheat temperature is generally an essential-variable change. Additional construction-code requirements may be more restrictive.
Q86. A welder is generally qualified to deposit unlimited weld-metal thickness with a process when the deposited weld-metal thickness during qualification is:
A. At least 1/4 inch
B. At least 1/2 inch
C. At least 3/8 inch
D. Any measurable thickness
Correct Answer: B. At least 1/2 inch
Explanation: When at least 1/2 inch of weld metal is deposited with a process during qualification, the maximum qualified deposited thickness is generally unlimited.
Q87. When may a corner crack on a guided-bend specimen be disregarded?
A. Whenever it exceeds 1/4 inch
B. Whenever it is located in weld metal
C. When there is no definite evidence that it resulted from incomplete fusion, slag, or another internal discontinuity
D. Corner cracks must always be rejected regardless of their cause
Correct Answer: C. When there is no definite evidence that it resulted from incomplete fusion, slag, or another internal discontinuity
Explanation: Corner cracks caused by the testing geometry may be disregarded when they do not show evidence of an internal weld discontinuity. Cracks associated with fusion defects, slag, or other internal flaws are rejectable.
Q88. Besides process inactivity, what can cause a welder’s qualification to be revoked?
A. Changing employers in every case
B. Welding a different component thickness within the qualified range
C. Using a different approved WPS within the qualified variables
D. A specific reason to question the welder’s ability to make sound welds
Correct Answer: D. A specific reason to question the welder’s ability to make sound welds
Explanation: The applicable qualification may be revoked when there is a specific reason to question the welder’s ability. Renewal requires demonstrating the required welding ability again.
Q89. When do notch-toughness requirements become mandatory for procedure qualification?
A. When required by the referencing construction code or design specification
B. Whenever PWHT is performed
C. For every P-No. 1 weld
D. Only when requested by the welder
Correct Answer: A. When required by the referencing construction code or design specification
Explanation: Section IX does not independently require impact testing for every weld. The applicable construction code, service condition, or design specification triggers the requirement.
Q90. A welder qualifies with SMAW using an E7018 electrode classified as F-No. 4. Which electrode is also within the same commonly applicable F-Number qualification range?
A. E6010
B. E7015
C. E6011
D. E7024
Correct Answer: B. E7015
Explanation: E7015 and E7018 are low-hydrogen electrodes assigned to F-No. 4. E6010 and E6011 belong to a different F-Number group.
Q91. Which result is required for acceptance of an etched fillet-weld performance macro specimen?
A. Any amount of incomplete fusion is acceptable
B. Weld-leg lengths must be exactly equal
C. Complete fusion, freedom from cracks, and compliance with the permitted weld-leg difference
D. Concavity must exceed 1/8 inch
Correct Answer: C. Complete fusion, freedom from cracks, and compliance with the permitted weld-leg difference
Explanation: The section must show complete fusion and no cracks. The difference between the fillet-weld leg lengths must also remain within the permitted limit.
Q92. When Section IX uses the terms “manufacturer” or “contractor,” they may also include an:
A. Architect or designer
B. Authorized Inspector or regulator
C. Electrode supplier or testing machine operator
D. Installer or assembler
Correct Answer: D. Installer or assembler
Explanation: Section IX uses manufacturer and contractor broadly to include organizations such as installers and assemblers that perform Code welding under their control.
Q93. For applicable P-No. 11 materials, weld grooves of what thickness are required to be prepared by thermal processes during qualification when those processes will be used during fabrication?
A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. Exactly 1 inch only
C. More than 2 inches only
D. Every thickness without exception
Correct Answer: A. Less than 5/8 inch
Explanation: The variable addresses the effect of thermally prepared edges on applicable thin P-No. 11 materials. The precise P-Number designation and wording in the governing edition must be checked.
Q94. When may an accepted SWPS be used instead of a manufacturer-qualified WPS?
A. Whenever the welder verbally approves it
B. When the organization complies with Article V, demonstrates the SWPS as required, and uses an SWPS accepted in the applicable appendix
C. Only when the Authorized Inspector writes the SWPS
D. Only for non-Code welding
Correct Answer: B. When the organization complies with Article V, demonstrates the SWPS as required, and uses an SWPS accepted in the applicable appendix
Explanation: The organization must complete and document the required demonstration before adopting an accepted Standard Welding Procedure Specification.
Q95. Changing a nonessential WPS variable requires recertification or requalification of the supporting PQR.
A. True
B. True when the welder requests it
C. False
D. True for all SMAW procedures
Correct Answer: C. False
Explanation: The WPS must be revised, but a change to a nonessential variable does not require a new procedure qualification or alteration of the PQR.
Q96. Reduced-section tensile specimens conforming to QW-462.1(b) may be used for all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches
B. 2-1/2 inches
C. 4 inches
D. 3 inches
Correct Answer: D. 3 inches
Explanation: For pipe over 3 inches outside diameter, reduced-section tensile specimens may be used for the applicable procedure-qualification testing.
Q97. Which methods may be used to evaluate an eligible groove-weld welder-performance qualification?
A. The prescribed mechanical tests or a permitted volumetric examination such as RT or UT
B. Tension testing only
C. Macro-examination only
D. Visual examination without any additional testing
Correct Answer: A. The prescribed mechanical tests or a permitted volumetric examination such as RT or UT
Explanation: Section IX permits mechanical testing or an approved volumetric-examination alternative for eligible processes and materials. Visual examination remains part of the qualification requirements.
Q98. Under which condition may a welder be qualified using a production groove weld?
A. Any 1-inch length may be visually examined
B. At least the required production-weld length, commonly 6 inches, is examined by a permitted volumetric method and meets Section IX requirements
C. The first weld pass is dye-penetrant tested only
D. The production weld is accepted by the foreman without examination
Correct Answer: B. At least the required production-weld length, commonly 6 inches, is examined by a permitted volumetric method and meets Section IX requirements
Explanation: Eligible welders may be qualified on production work when the required weld length is examined using an approved volumetric method and satisfies the applicable acceptance criteria.
Q99. Two tensile specimens have the following dimensions and ultimate tensile stresses:
Specimen 1: Width 0.752 inch, thickness 0.875 inch, tensile stress 78,524 psi
Specimen 2: Width 0.702 inch, thickness 0.852 inch, tensile stress 77,654 psi
What ultimate loads were applied?
A. 67,453 lbf and 56,443 lbf
B. 78,524 lbf and 77,654 lbf
C. Approximately 51,669 lbf and 46,445 lbf
D. Approximately 42,500 lbf and 39,800 lbf
Correct Answer: C. Approximately 51,669 lbf and 46,445 lbf
Explanation: Ultimate load equals cross-sectional area multiplied by ultimate tensile stress.
Specimen 1: 0.752 × 0.875 × 78,524 = approximately 51,669 lbf.
Specimen 2: 0.702 × 0.852 × 77,654 = approximately 46,445 lbf.
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