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1.

Acoustic Emission Testing Level II
1. When detecting impulsive acoustic emission signals on large objects, the peak of the signals normally decreases with increasing distance from the source.
This alteration, dependent on distance, cannot be explained by:

 a. Absorption: the elastic pulse gradually converts into heat

 b. Dispersion: the pulse gradually spreads out in time because the different waves involved travel with different velocities

 c. The geometric factor: the energy in the pulse is distributed into ever-larger volumes

 d. Density: the more dense (hard) the material, the harder it is to move sound through the object

2.

Which of the following factors will tend to produce a low-amplitude acoustic emission response during a tensile test?

 a. Low-temperature

 b. High strain rate

 c. Plastic deformation

 d. Crack propagation

3.

The kaiser effect is:

 a. valid only when testing composites

 b. a physical law of nature that is never violated

 c. not applicable when an RMS recording is being made

 d. the absence of detectable acoustic emission until previously applied stress levels are exceeded

4.

Electromagnetic Testing Level II
Alternating Current Field Measurement Technique
During an ACFM weld inspection, the measurement of crack depth is NOT dependent on:

 a. the frequency of the inspection

 b. the length of the crack

 c. the depth of penetration of the alternating current field

 d. contact with the part

5.

What effect would you expect if the coils in an ACFM probe were smaller and closer together?

 a. No effect

 b. improved detection of smaller defects

 c. Improved sizing on larger defects

 d. Improved signal-to-noise ratio

6.

The Bx magnetic field can best be described as:

 a. parallel to the plate surface and perpendicular to the current flow

 b. perpendicular to the weld

 c. parallel to the plate surface and parallel to the current flow

 d. perpendicular to the plate surface and parallel to the current flow

7.

Eddy Current Level II
The fill factor when a 1.26 cm (0.5 in.) diameter bar is inserted in a 2.54 cm (1 in.) diameter coil is:

 a. 0.5 (50 percent)

 b. 0.75 (75 percent)

 c. I.O (100 percent)

 d. 0.25 (25 percent)

8.

If the characteristic frequency (FG) of a material is 125 Hz, the test frequency required to give an f/fg ratio of 10 would be:

 a. 1.25 Hz

 b. 12.5 Hz

 c. 1.25 kHz

 d. 12.5 kHz

9.

For age-hardened aluminum and titanium alloys, changes in hardness are indicated by changes in:

 a. retentivity

 b. permeability

 c. conductivity

 d. magnetostriction

10.

Remote Field Testing Level II
In the remote field zone with distance, the magnetic field distribution decays:

 a. linearly

 b. exponentially

 c. logarithmically

 d. and then increases with distance

11.

The exciter and the receiver coil/ coils in a remote field probe are separated by a distance greater than _____ the tube diameter.

 a. twice

 b. three times

 c. one-time

 d. four times

12.

Frequencies selected for RFT inspection are:

 a. higher than used in eddy current

 b. lower than used in eddy current

 c. carefully selected and must never be changed during an inspection

 d. higher than used in ultrasonic testing

13.

Ground Penetrating Radar Level ll
The ratio of the largest receivable signal and the minimal detectable signal is called the:

 a. system detection factor

 b. peak performance ratio

 c. dynamic range

 d. maximum depth of detection

14.

What is gating?

 a. A method of expanding the depth of penetration by viewing only a portion of the total signal

 b. The ability to control the shape of the transmitted signal

 c. A method of reducing the signal bandwidth

 d. Timing the transmit and receive signals to avoid detrimental effects from strong signals

15.

Why is deworming important?

 a. It acts as a biomonitor

 b. It helps to produce a stable image of unstable soils

 c. It allows the positive and negative color filling to be used in the recorded trace

 d. It is generally used to improve section resolution and create more spatial realistic

16.

Guided Wave Testing Level ll
How are guided wave testing results typically calibrated?

 a. Using a target reflector (flat-bottomed hole) machined in a calibration pipe of the same diameter and thickness

 b. Calibration is not required for GW

 c. Using an assumed amplitude and known reflectors such as welds

 d. The results are always calibrated using flange reflections

17.

The dispersion curves for guided waves in steel pipes are MOST influenced by:

 a. changes to the boundary conditions

 b. changes to the material properties of steel

 c. temperature changes

 d. high-pressure gas products

18.

Which of the following is a guided wave in the plate?

 a. Longitudional waves

 b. Flexural waves

 c. Love waves

 d. Scholte waves

19.

Leak Testing Level ll, Bubble Leak Testing Level ll
Which of the following factors directly determines the size of the bubble formation when using the bubble test method?

 a. Method of application of bubble solution

 b. Ambient temperature and barometric pressure

 c. Amount of leakage from a defect or leak

 d. Size of the test specimen

20.

When a vacuum gage is marked with a range of 0-30 with the notation “vacuum” on the face, the units of measurement are:

 a. inches of mercury

 b. pounds per square inch

 c. centimeters of vacuum

 d. feet of water

21.

The type of leaks that are most likely to go undetected during a bubble leak test are:

 a. very small leaks and very large leaks

 b. leaks occurring at welded joints

 c. corner-configuration joints

 d. leaks occurring at fittings

22.

Halogen Diode Detector Level II
Most leaks detected during a halogen sniffer test could have been detected and usually can be verified by:

 a. a bubble leak test

 b. an ultrasonic examination

 c. a visual examination

 d. a pressure change test

23.

The presence of small traces of halogen vapors in the halogen diode detector:

 a. increases the emission of negative ions

 b. decreases the emission of positive ions

 c. increases the emission of positive ions

 d. decreases the emission of negative ions

24.

A halogen standard leak of a certain size produces a known signal on a halogen leak detector. To receive this same intensity signal on the instrument during the test of an object containing a 2% by volume halogen-air mixture, the size of the leak in the object causing the signal would theoretically have to be at least times larger than the standard leak.

 a. 20

 b. 50

 c. 40

 d. 10

25.

Mass Spectrometer Level ll
A torr is defined as:

 a. 14. 7 psia

 b. 1 mm of Hg

 c. 1/760 of a standard atmosphere

 d. 760 mm of Hg

26.

When conducting a helium mass spectrometer test of a vacuum vessel in the pressure range of 10-4 to IQ-8 mm Hg, which type gauge could be used to measure the pressure?

 a. Alphatron gage

 b. Thermionic ionization gage

 c. Pirani gage

 d. Thermocouple gage

27.

Helium standard leaks in the range of IQ-6 to 10-10 atm cc/s are known in general terms as:

 a. reservoir standard leaks

 b. capillary standard leaks

 c. permeation standard leaks

 d. adjustable standard leaks

28.

Pressure Change Measurement Level II
When a system’s internal dry bulb’s internal temperature and, in turn, total pressure, increase during a pressure change leakage-rate test, the water vapor pressure in the system under test would normally:

 a. increase

 b. remain the same

 c. decrease

 d. oscillate

29.

Por a pneumatically pressurized constant-volume system at an internal temperature of 27 °C, what approximate percentage change in the system absolute pressure can be expected for a system internal temperature change of 1 °C?

 a. 3%

 b. 6%

 c. 0.3%

 d. 10%

30.

One set of internal dry bulb temperature data for a pressure change leakage-rate test is:

 a. (T1​ + T₂ + T3)/3 = 71.87 °F

 b. (T4 + T5)/2 = 72.32 °F

 c. (T6 + T7)/2 = 72.68 °F

 d. (T8 + T9 + T10)/3 = 73.07 °F

31.

Liquid Penetrant Testing Level II
When conducting a penetrant test, spherical indications on the surface of a part could be indicative of:

 a. fatigue cracks

 b. porosity

 c. weld laps

 d. hot tears

32.

A commonly used method of checking on the overall performance of a penetrant material system is by:

 a. determining the viscosity of the penetrant

 b. measuring the wettability of the penetrant

 c. comparing two sections of artificially cracked specimens

 d. measuring the brightness of the penetrant

33.

Which of the following is a discontinuity that might be found in a forging?

 a. Shrinkage crack

 b. Lap

 c. Hot tear

 d. Lamination

34.

Magnetic Flux Leakage Level II
The highest sensitivity of a hall effects sensor is obtained when the direction of the magnetic field in relation to the largest surface of the hall probe is:

 a. parallel

 b. at an angle of 45°

 c. at an angle of 30° or 60°

 d. perpendicular

35.

What particular type of defect is not indicated by flux leakage techniques?

 a. Overlap

 b. Slag inclusion with crack

 c. Surface contamination

 d. Longitudinal seam

36.

Flux leakage is created at a discontinuity because of the change in:

 a. resistivity

 b. inductance

 c. permeability

 d. capacitance

37.

Magnetic Particle Testing Level II
When testing a bar with an L/D ratio of 4 in a 10-turn coil, the required current would be:

 a. 45 000 A

 b. unknown; more information is needed

 c. 18 000 A

 d. 1125 A

38.

Which of these cracks may appear as an irregular, checked, or scattered pattern of fine lines usually caused by local overheating?

 a. Fatigue cracks

 b. Grinding cracks

 c. Crater cracks

 d. HAZ cracks

39.

If a copper conductor is placed through a ferrous cylinder and a current is passed through the conductor, then the magnetic field (flux density) in the cylinder will be:

 a. the same intensity and pattern as in the conductor

 b. greater than in the conductor

 c. less than in the conductor

 d. the same regardless of its proximity to the cylinder wall

40.

Microwave Technology Level II
The approximate wavelength of the microwave electromagnetic signal at 10 GHz in a material with e= 4.0 is:

 a. 7mm

 b. 23 mm

 c. 15 mm

 d. 24 mm

41.

The mechanism of microwave wave interaction with matter to create images is:

 a. ionic conduction in conductive materials

 b. molecular dipole interactions and ionic conduction

 c. nuclear scattering

 d. electron excitation

42.

Neutron Radiographic Testing Level II
Which of the following conversion screens has the longest half-life?

 a. Dysprosium

 b. Indium

 c. Cadmium

 d. Gadolinium

43.

Neutron radiography can be used for inspecting
which of the following applications?

 a. Presence of explosives in a metal device

 b. Presence of chaplets in castings

 c. Presence of copper wire in steel sleeves

 d. Presence of heavy metal inclusions in castings

44.

Real-time imaging of thermal neutron radiography can be performed with which of the following detectors?

 a. Gadolinium

 b. Dysprosium

 c. Zinc sulfide + lithium fluoride

 d. Europium

45.

Radiographic Testing Method Level II
When radiographing to the 2-2T quality level, an image quality indicator (IQI) for 6.35 cm (2.5 in.) steel has a thickness of:

 a. 1.27 cm (0.5 in.)

 b. 63.5 mm (2.5 x 10-3 in.)

 c. 127 mm (5 x 10-3 in.)

 d. 1270 mm (5 x 10-2 in.)

46.

The approximate radiographic equivalence factors for steel and copper at 220 kV are I.O and 1.4, respectively. If it is desirable to radiograph a 1.27 cm (0.5 in.) plate of copper, what thickness of steel would require about the same exposure characteristics?

 a. 1.78 cm (0.7 in.) of steel

 b. 0.89 cm (0.35 in.) of steel

 c. 3.56 cm (1.4 in.) of steel

 d. 2.54 cm (I.O in.) of steel

47.

If a specimen were radiographed at 40 kV and again at 50 kV, with time compensation to give the radiographs the same density, which of the following statements would be true?

 a. The 40 kV exposure would have lower contrast and greater latitude than the 50 kV exposure

 b. The 40 kV exposure would have higher contrast and greater latitude than the 50 Kv exposure

 c. The 50 kV exposure would have lower contrast and greater latitude than the 40 kV exposure

 d. The 50 kV exposure would have higher contrast and greater latitude than the 40 kV exposure

48.

Computed Radiography Level II
A commercial computed radiographic system classification, such as ASTM E 2446, groups CR systems using a rating in order to characterize their relative performance levels.

 a. standard image quality

 b. light photometer

 c. equivalent IQI

 d. ISO index

49.

The phenomenon that causes materials to emit light in response to external stimuli is known as:

 a. stimulation

 b. fluorescence

 c. reticulation

 d. vibration

50.

Photo stimulated luminescence (PSL) is a process in which a phosphor that has ceased emitting light because of the removal of the stimulus once again emits light when excited by light with a _____than the emission wavelength.

 a. shorter wavelength

 b. longer wavelength

 c. higher frequency

 d. lower frequency

51.

Computed Tomography Level II
A CT image is a representative map of________ at each point in the plane.

 a. density measurements

 b. linear X-ray attenuation coefficients

 c. noise measurements

 d. X-ray scattered photons

52.

The spatial resolution has a limiting value determined by the of the system and the amount of data and _________

 a. design and construction; sampling schema

 b. size; X-ray source energy

 c. design and construction; X-ray source energy

 d. size; sampling schema

53.

Contrast sensitivity refers to the ability to _____ the presence or absence of features in an image.

 a. mask

 b. calculate

 c. detect

 d. neglect

54.

Digital Radiography Level II
The term “bad pixel” is best described as a pixel:

 a. of a DDA that has performance outside the specification range

 b. that is processed or sampled due to frame averaging

 c. that must receive some type of correction to ensure all indications regardless of size resulting from rejectable discontinuities will be evaluated

 d. that does not operate at all

55.

Flat panel gain, offset, and pixel calibrations ensure:

 a. proper probability of detection

 b. measurements will be calibrated

 c. proper defect evaluation

 d. none of the above

56.

One of the main advantages of DR, or flat panel utilization, as compared to CR to accomplish an inspection task is typical:

 a. portability

 b. inspection speed

 c. initial cost

 d. detector flexibility

57.

Thermal/lnfrared Testing Level II
Latent heat energy can be described as the energy:

 a. that creates or breaks the molecular bonds of the phase state of a material

 b. that when added to a material will cause its temperature to increase

 c. released by a material that will cause its temperature to decrease

 d. released by an object that will break the molecular bonds of a material

58.

Which of the following surfaces will provide the most accurate radiometric temperature measurement?

 a. Thin film plastic

 b. Oxidized aluminum

 c. Glass

 d. Water-based paint

59.

How hot does an electrical connection need to be for it to be classified as a serious problem?

 a. 1 to 5 °C (33.8 to 41 °F)

 b. 5 to 15 °C (41 to 59 °F)

 c. Greater than 15 °C (59 °F)

 d. Depends on the criticality of equipment to continued safe operation

60.

Ultrasonic Testing Level II
If a contact angle-beam transducer produces a 45-degree shear wave in steel (VS= 0.323 cm/s), the angle produced by the same transducer in an aluminum specimen (VS= 0.310 cm/s) would be:

 a. Less than 45°

 b. greater than 45°

 c. 45°

 d. more information is required

61.

A discontinuity is located having an orientation such that its long axis is parallel to the sound beam. The indication of such a discontinuity will be:

 a. large in proportion to the length of the discontinuity

 b. small in proportion to the length of the discontinuity

 c. representative of the length of the discontinuity

 d. such that complete loss of back-reflection will result

62.

An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminum with a velocity of 635 000 cm/s and has a frequency of 1 MHz. The wavelength of this ultrasonic wave is:

 a. 6.35 ft

 b. 3.10 in

 c. 6.35 mm

 d. 30000 A

63.

Phased Array Level II
Identify the factors that would produce the largest beam steering angles:

 a. large elements, small pitch, high-frequency testing low-velocity materials

 b. small elements, small pitch, high-frequency testing low-velocity materials

 c. large elements, small pitch, low-frequency testing high-velocity materials

 d. small elements, small pitch, low-frequency testing high-velocity materials

64.

Which of the following best fits this description “the ultrasonic capabilities of resolving two adjacent defects along the acoustical axis through a small ultrasonic path”?

 a. Lateral resolution

 b. Axial resolution

 c. Resolution

 d. Sensitivity

65.

What happens to the beam spread at higher beam angles when using a swept angle scan from 45° to 70°?

 a. The beam spread decreases

 b. The beam spread increases

 c. The beam spread does not change

 d. Beam spread cannot be changed with the angle

66.

Time of Flight Diffraction Level II
Frequencies used for TOFD inspection are most dependent on:

 a. near field, beam spread, and the reflection factor of the material

 b. acoustic impedance, beam spread, and penetrating ability

 c. the thickness of the thinner part

 d. sensitivity, beam spread, and penetrating ability

67.

Calculate the probe center spacing (PCS) to focus at a 15 mm depth using a pair of 70-degree probes.

 a. 41.3 mm

 b. 54.6 mm

 c. 82.4 mm

 d. 93.8 mm

68.

Calculate the depth of a defect given the following information:
Tx probe delay: 7.8 µs (pulse-echo measured)
Rx probe delay: 6.2 µs (pulse-echo measured)
PCS 59.6 mm
Bottom tip signal 30 µs
Material velocity 5960 m/s longitudinal 3230 m/s transverse 3010 m/s surface

 a. 29.8 mm

 b. 37.2 mm

 c. 61.7 mm

 d. 69.2 mm

69.

Vibration Analysis Level II
A Lissajous orbit that has a long elliptical ( cigar shape) appearance is an indication of:

 a. unbalance

 b. misalignment

 c. an oil whirl

 d. a rubbing event

70.

The purpose of a bode or polar (Nyquist) plot is to verify the presence of:

 a. an eccentricity

 b. a defective bearing

 c. a resonance

 d. a bent shaft

71.

The two most common problems that will produce a higher amplitude at 2x RPM than at 1 x RPM in a vibration spectrum are:

 a. an eccentric pulley and mechanical looseness (Type A)

 b. offset misalignment and mechanical looseness (Type B)

 c. a shaft bent between its bearings and worn gear teeth

 d. an unbalanced shaft and mechanical looseness (Type C)

72.

Visual Testing Level II
Handheld magnifiers should fall into which of the following ranges?

 a. 2x to 4x

 b. Sx to lOx

 c. lOx to 20x

 d. 20x to 3x

73.

Visual examiners who perform visual exams using borescopes and fiberscopes must be:

 a. color blind

 b. able to meet far-vision requirements (Snellen 20/30)

 c. competent in their use

 d. ambidextrous

74.

A narrow field of view produces:

 a. higher magnification and a greater depth of field

 b. higher magnification and a shorter depth of field

 c. less magnification and a greater depth of field

 d. less magnification and a shorter depth of field

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In this Practice Test we are covering all the technique questions with answers given in the list below:

• Acoustic Emission Testing Level II
• Electromagnetic Testing Level II
• Alternating Current Field Measurement Technique
• Eddy Current Level II
• Remote Field Testing Level II
• Ground Penetrating Radar Level ll
• Guided Wave Testing Level ll
• Leak Testing Level ll
• Bubble Leak Testing Level ll
• Halogen Diode Detector Level II
• Mass Spectrometer Level ll
• Pressure Change Measurement Level II
• Liquid Penetrant Testing Level II
• Magnetic Flux Leakage Level II
• Magnetic Particle Testing Level II
• Microwave Technology Level II
• Neutron Radiographic Testing Level II
• Radiographic Testing Method Level II
• Computed Radiography Level II
• Computed Tomography Level II
• Digital Radiography Level II
• Thermal/lnfrared Testing Level II
• Ultrasonic Testing Level II
• Phased Array Level II
• Time of Flight Diffraction Level II
• Vibration Analysis Level II
• Visual Testing Level II

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