Top 145 Latest Piping Inspector API 570 Questions and Answers
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Q1. Which area is least likely to experience corrosion under insulation?
A. Areas subject to process spills, moisture, or acid vapors
B. Areas exposed to mist from cooling towers
C. Piping systems continuously operating above 250°F
D. Areas exposed to steam vents
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CUI is most likely where moisture can remain under insulation. Continuously hot piping above the water boiling range is generally less susceptible.
Q2. A chlorine leak is dripping on austenitic stainless steel piping. What crack appearance is most expected?
A. Following grain boundaries
B. Transgranular and branching
C. Bright and faceted
D. Carbon stringer pattern
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorides can cause chloride stress corrosion cracking in austenitic stainless steel, typically transgranular and branching.
Q3. The preferred inspection methods for piping injection points are:
A. Visual inspection and ultrasonics
B. Ultrasonics and/or acoustic emission
C. Eddy current and/or radiography
D. Radiography and/or ultrasonics
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Injection points are susceptible to localized corrosion/erosion, and RT or UT are commonly used to evaluate wall loss.
Q4. When dial-type pressure gauges are used for leak testing, the maximum gauge range should not exceed:
A. 1½ times expected test pressure
B. 2½ times expected test pressure
C. 3 times expected test pressure
D. 4 times expected test pressure
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Test gauges should normally be selected so the expected test pressure is within a suitable working range, not exceeding about 4 times the test pressure.
Q5. An NPS 1½ level bridle on a propane storage drum should receive thickness measurements:
A. At intervals not exceeding 10 years or half remaining life, whichever is sooner
B. At intervals not exceeding 5 years or half remaining life, whichever is sooner
C. Only when corrosion exceeds 5 mpy
D. Optionally only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Propane service is high consequence; small-bore Class 1 piping requires closer inspection intervals.
Q6. A TML thickness changed from 0.500 in. at year 0 to 0.400 in. at year 10. What is the long-term corrosion rate?
A. 1.5 mpy
B. 5 mpy
C. 10 mpy
D. 100 mpy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Loss = 0.100 in. over 10 years = 0.010 in./year = 10 mils per year.
Q7. What is a hold point?
A. A spring hanger used for expansion
B. A dog welded for alignment
C. A point where work cannot proceed until inspection is performed and documented
D. A trunnion or sliding support
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A hold point stops work until required inspection or approval is completed.
Q8. Heat treatment is required for all thicknesses of piping over ½ inch for which materials?
A. P-Nos. 1 and 2
B. P-Nos. 1 and 3
C. P-Nos. 2 and 3
D. P-Nos. 4 and 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cr-Mo materials in P-No. 4 and P-No. 5 generally have stricter PWHT requirements.
Q9. A welder made 25 SMAW groove welds, but the qualification bend test was never performed. What minimum step validates qualification?
A. Radiograph only the first production weld
B. No alternative exists to bend testing
C. Have the welder prepare and pass a test coupon bend test
D. Radiograph all 25 production welds
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Welder performance qualification must be properly completed; a valid test coupon and bend test can establish qualification.
Q10. Elbows are commonly inspected on the inside and outside radius because of:
A. Environmental cracking
B. Soil-to-air corrosion
C. Erosion/corrosion
D. Corrosion under insulation only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Flow direction changes create turbulence and velocity effects that can cause erosion/corrosion.
Q11. A dead leg is best described as:
A. An intermediate pipe section
B. An elbow near a pump
C. A dummy support leg
D. A branch line with a blind or blank flange
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Dead legs are stagnant sections with little or no flow, often ending at a blind or closed valve.
Q12. The recommended method for thickness determination on piping 1 inch and smaller is:
A. Ultrasonics
B. Eddy current
C. Profile radiography
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Small-bore piping may be difficult to measure accurately with UT; profile RT is often preferred.
Q13. Above what temperature should compensation be considered for ultrasonic thickness readings?
A. 100°C
B. 150°F
C. 200°F
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: At elevated temperatures, sound velocity changes can affect UT thickness readings.
Q14. When surveying a TML, the minimum thickness should be obtained by:
A. Using a 1-inch probe
B. Taking one reading only
C. Scanning around the TML
D. Using profile RT in two directions only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Scanning around the TML helps locate the actual minimum wall thickness.
Q15. A hot surface can damage a UT transducer because excessive heat may:
A. Slow the pulse rate
B. Increase the pulse rate
C. Depolarize piezoelectric diodes
D. Depolarize the piezoelectric element
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Excessive heat can damage or depolarize the piezoelectric element in the probe.
Q16. Which material condition could cause a false digital thickness reading?
A. Small grain size
B. Scattered small inclusions
C. Irregular pits
D. Rolling lamination
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Laminations can reflect sound before the true back wall, giving false low readings.
Q17. A vessel has heavy paint buildup, and no back-wall signal is obtained in many areas. The most likely reason is:
A. The vessel wall is too thin
B. The instrument cannot read through thick paint
C. Couplant is bleeding into the paint
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Thick or poorly bonded coatings can prevent reliable ultrasonic coupling and signal return.
Q18. The steel calibration “button” on many digital thickness meters is mainly used for:
A. Steel thickness calibration only
B. Testing couplant adequacy
C. Stainless steel calibration
D. Probe zero adjustment/compensation for transducer wear
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Built-in calibration blocks are commonly used to zero the probe and verify instrument response.
Q19. Digital thickness gauges should be checked periodically for linearity and proper function.
A. True
B. False
C. Only for stainless steel
D. Only after repair
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Periodic verification ensures reliable readings over the measurement range.
Q20. After many years of service, the thinnest area of a pipe elbow is most likely at the:
A. Sides
B. Inside radius
C. Outside radius
D. Welds only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The outside radius often experiences higher velocity impingement and erosion.
Q21. When taking thickness readings on small-diameter piping, it is good practice to use a flat step wedge.
A. True
B. False
C. Only for hot piping
D. Only for stainless steel
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Curved calibration standards or suitable correction are preferred for small-diameter curved surfaces.
Q22. Stagnant fluid, as opposed to flowing fluid, normally affects the ultrasonic thickness reading.
A. True
B. False
C. Only above 500°F
D. Only on stainless steel
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: UT thickness measurement is based on metal sound travel; stagnant internal fluid normally does not determine the reading.
Q23. When calibrating a UT thickness instrument:
A. The pulse rate is adjusted to material velocity
B. The sound velocity in the test plate is changed
C. The pulse length is adjusted to thickness
D. The instrument is adjusted to correctly represent material velocity/thickness
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calibration adjusts instrument settings, not the actual sound velocity in the material.
Q24. When measuring hot material, UT errors can occur due to:
A. Velocity changes in the material
B. Velocity changes in the transducer/delay material
C. Transducer element depolarization
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Heat can affect both the test material and the probe system.
Q25. Low-frequency search units are usually not used for measuring thin materials.
A. True
B. False
C. Only for painted materials
D. Only for carbon steel
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Thin materials require better resolution, usually provided by higher-frequency probes.
Q26. Dual-element search units have elements mounted at a fixed angle to:
A. Reduce pulse transit time
B. Compensate for repetition rate
C. Focus the sound beam at a point in the material
D. Make manufacturing easier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Angled dual elements focus the beam at a practical depth range.
Q27. Digital thickness meters can only measure carbon or stainless steels because they lack velocity controls.
A. True
B. False
C. Only if painted
D. Only if hot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Many digital meters can be calibrated for different material velocities.
Q28. Some digital thickness meters can measure sound velocity in the material.
A. True
B. False
C. Only analog meters can
D. Only RT can
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Some instruments calculate velocity when a known thickness is entered.
Q29. For short-period inspections, calibration should be checked:
A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At frequent periods during use
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Calibration should be verified before, during, and after use.
Q30. Thickness readings should only be taken on thin-wall piping when it is out of service because liquid inside can transmit sound incorrectly.
A. True
B. False
C. Only for water service
D. Only above 200°F
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In-service UT thickness readings are commonly performed, provided the technique is suitable.
Q31. When placing a dual-element probe on small-diameter piping, the element-separation line should generally be aligned:
A. Across the pipe curvature
B. With the pipe length
C. At 45 degrees
D. In any orientation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Probe orientation matters on curved surfaces to improve coupling and reading accuracy.
Q32. Which inside surface condition could cause the most inaccurate thickness reading?
A. Epoxy lining
B. Thin cladding
C. Heavy pitting
D. A and B only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Heavy pitting creates uneven reflecting surfaces and can produce unreliable readings.
Q33. For thickness measurements on 2-inch Schedule 40 pipe, the best transducer selection is:
A. ¼ inch diameter, 2 MHz
B. ¼ inch diameter, 5 MHz
C. ½ inch diameter, 2.25 MHz
D. ¾ inch diameter, 1 MHz
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Small-diameter, relatively thin pipe is best measured with a small, higher-frequency probe.
Q34. If thick internal scale is present, UT thickness measurements may include the scale thickness.
A. True
B. False
C. Only with RT
D. Only with MT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Bonded scale can sometimes produce misleadingly high readings.
Q35. If the couplant is changed, should calibration be checked?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only for hot piping
D. Only for stainless steel
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Different couplants can affect signal quality and delay; calibration should be verified.
Q36. There are multiple recognized calibration methods when using delay-line transducers.
A. True
B. False
C. Only one method exists
D. Calibration is not required
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Delay-line probes may require specific calibration techniques depending on application.
Q37. For an 8-hour thickness inspection shift, how many calibration checks/verifications are a practical minimum from the listed options?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Calibration should be checked at regular intervals during extended use.
Q38. A waveform-display thickness meter is available for new plate thickness and soundness evaluation. Is it acceptable?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only for coated plate
D. Only for stainless plate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A waveform display improves interpretation and can support thickness and soundness evaluation.
Q39. For thickness measurements in the 4-inch to 8-inch range, the calibration block may be:
A. A basic calibration block
B. A Type II IIW block
C. A 0.25–1 inch step wedge only
D. A and B above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Suitable thick calibration blocks are needed for thicker measurement ranges.
Q40. For a B31.3 normal-fluid girth butt weld, undercut is 1/32 inch, and reinforcement is 1/8 inch. The weld is:
A. Acceptable as is
B. Requires undercut repair
C. Requires reinforcement blending
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: For normal fluid service, these values are generally within visual acceptance limits.
Q41. For a B31.3 severe-cyclic girth butt weld, undercut is 1/32 inch and reinforcement is 1/8 inch. The weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires undercut repair
C. Requires reinforcement blending
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Severe cyclic service has stricter limits; undercut is more critical because it acts as a fatigue notch.
Q42. For a B31.3 Category D girth butt weld, undercut is 1/32 inch, and reinforcement is 1/8 inch. The weld is:
A. Acceptable as is
B. Requires undercut repair
C. Requires reinforcement blending
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Category D fluid service generally has less severe acceptance requirements than severe cyclic service.
Q43. For a B31.3 normal-fluid longitudinal seam weld, undercut is 1/32 inch, and reinforcement is 1/8 inch. The weld is:
A. Acceptable as is
B. Requires undercut repair
C. Requires reinforcement blending
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The observed values are normally within acceptance limits for normal service.
Q44. For a B31.3 severe-cyclic longitudinal seam weld, undercut is 1/32 inch, and reinforcement is 1/8 inch. The weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires undercut repair
C. Requires reinforcement blending
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Severe cyclic service is sensitive to notch-like defects such as undercut.
Q45. For a B31.3 Category D longitudinal seam weld, undercut is 1/32 inch, and reinforcement is 1/8 inch. The weld is:
A. Acceptable as is
B. Requires undercut repair
C. Requires reinforcement blending
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Category D service permits less restrictive visual acceptance than severe cyclic service.
Q46. For a B31.3 normal-fluid socket weld, lack of fusion and a toe crack are found. The weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cracks and lack of fusion are rejectable weld discontinuities.
Q47. For a B31.3 severe-cyclic socket weld, lack of fusion and a toe crack are found. The weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Severe cyclic service does not permit crack-like or fusion-related defects.
Q48. For a B31.3 Category D socket weld, lack of fusion and a toe crack are found. The weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cracks and lack of fusion are unacceptable even in lower-consequence service.
Q49. For a normal-fluid girth butt weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement exceed acceptable visual limits.
Q50. For a severe-cyclic girth butt weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Severe cyclic service requires strict control of penetration and weld profile.
Q51. For a Category D girth butt weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The discontinuities exceed acceptable visual criteria.
Q52. For a normal-fluid longitudinal seam weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Longitudinal seams are pressure-retaining welds and require acceptable penetration and profile.
Q53. For a severe-cyclic longitudinal seam weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Severe cyclic service is especially sensitive to lack of penetration and stress risers.
Q54. For a Category D longitudinal seam weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The weld does not meet acceptable visual requirements.
Q55. For a normal-fluid socket weld with lack of fusion and a toe crack, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Both cracks and lack of fusion are rejectable.
Q56. For a severe-cyclic socket weld with lack of fusion and a toe crack, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Crack-like defects and lack of fusion cannot remain in severe cyclic service.
Q57. For a Category D socket weld with lack of fusion and a toe crack, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Category D does not allow cracks or lack of fusion to remain.
Q58. For a normal-fluid Schedule 80 girth butt weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Both weld penetration and reinforcement profile are outside acceptable limits.
Q59. For a severe-cyclic Schedule 80 girth butt weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Severe cyclic service requires removal of the lack of penetration and excessive profile.
Q60. For a Category D Schedule 80 girth butt weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The discontinuities exceed acceptable visual criteria.
Q61. For a normal-fluid Schedule 80 longitudinal seam weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Longitudinal pressure welds require adequate penetration and acceptable reinforcement.
Q62. For a severe-cyclic Schedule 80 longitudinal seam weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Severe cyclic service requires stricter acceptance because defects can initiate fatigue cracking.
Q63. For a Category D Schedule 80 longitudinal seam weld with incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires incomplete-penetration repair only
C. Requires reinforcement blending only
D. Requires both repairs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Both incomplete penetration and excessive reinforcement require correction.
Q64. For a normal-fluid socket weld in 2-inch Sch. 10S pipe with lack of fusion and a toe crack, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cracks and lack of fusion are unacceptable weld defects.
Q65. For a severe-cyclic socket weld in 2-inch Sch. 10S pipe with lack of fusion and a toe crack, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Severe cyclic service requires removal of both defects.
Q66. For a Category D socket weld in 2-inch Sch. 10S pipe with lack of fusion and a toe crack, the weld:
A. Is acceptable as is
B. Requires lack-of-fusion repair only
C. Requires crack repair only
D. Requires repair of both indications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Crack and lack of fusion are not acceptable final weld conditions.
Q67. Which weld discontinuity is most likely detected by visual inspection?
A. Crater cracking
B. Slag inclusion
C. Tungsten inclusion
D. Gas pores
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Surface crater cracks are visible; inclusions are usually internal.
Q68. Which casting discontinuity is most likely detected by visual inspection?
A. Sand inclusion
B. Gas pores
C. Misrun
D. Unfused chaplet
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A misrun is a surface/shape defect visible on the casting.
Q69. Which forging discontinuity is detectable visually?
A. Lack of fusion
B. Forging lap
C. Internal burst
D. Shrinkage cavity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Forging laps can appear as surface folds or seams.
Q70. A metal joining process performed at 900°F is classified as:
A. Soldering
B. Brazing
C. Welding
D. Casting
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Brazing uses filler metal above 840°F but below the base metal melting point.
Q71. Which machining-induced discontinuity can be detected visually?
A. Heat-treatment cracks
B. Plating cracks
C. Grinding cracks
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Grinding cracks are commonly associated with machining/grinding operations.
Q72. Approximately how many thousandths of an inch are in 1 mm?
A. 1000
B. 25
C. 40
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 1 mm equals approximately 0.03937 inch, or about 40 thousandths.
Q73. The three categories of discontinuity introduction are:
A. Inherent, processing, and in-service
B. Primary processing, machining, and heat treatment
C. Inherent, primary processing, and secondary processing
D. Primary processing, secondary processing, and in-service
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Discontinuities are commonly classified by origin: inherent, processing, or service-induced.
Q74. Corrosion is primarily:
A. An electrochemical reaction
B. An electromechanical reaction
C. A chemical-mechanical reaction
D. An electrostatic reaction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Most metal corrosion involves electrochemical reactions.
Q75. General corrosion commonly relies on which element as a cathodic reactant?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Sodium
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Oxygen often supports oxidation/cathodic reaction in many corrosion cells.
Q76. Corrosion at a joint between two dissimilar metals is most likely:
A. Grain-boundary corrosion
B. Pitting corrosion
C. Galvanic corrosion
D. Exfoliation corrosion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Galvanic corrosion occurs when dissimilar metals are electrically connected in an electrolyte.
Q77. A riveted lap joint subjected to fatigue is most likely to show:
A. Stress corrosion cracking
B. Galvanic corrosion
C. Exfoliation corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fretting occurs where small repeated movement damages contacting surfaces.
Q78. A dark fine line at the root of a used flange bolt thread probably indicates:
A. Fatigue crack
B. Hydrogen embrittlement
C. Forging lap
D. Shrinkage crack
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Thread roots are stress concentrators where fatigue cracks often initiate.
Q79. A suspect crack indication is visually detected on a piping manifold. How should it be marked?
A. Mark the indication extremities with a grease pencil
B. Mark with a lead pencil
C. Mark with a layout scriber
D. Mark with a sharp punch
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Grease pencil marking avoids damaging the surface before further NDE.
Q80. The two main methods of producing bolt threads are:
A. Rolling and machining
B. Casting and rolling
C. Machining and forging
D. Casting and machining
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Threads are commonly cut/machined or roll-formed.
Q81. Typical corrosion types associated with fasteners include:
A. Galvanic, crevice, and fretting
B. High-temperature, exfoliation, and fretting
C. Exfoliation, fretting, and galvanic
D. Pitting, creep, and graphitization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fasteners are prone to crevice conditions, galvanic couples, and fretting.
Q82. Loss of base metal on sliding surfaces due to abrasion is:
A. Wear
B. Distortion
C. Fatigue
D. Stress corrosion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Abrasion removes material mechanically and is classified as wear.
Q83. A discontinuity is:
A. A flaw that always makes the part defective
B. Always caused during solidification
C. An interruption in the normal physical structure of a part
D. Always cause for rejection
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A discontinuity is not always rejectable unless it affects serviceability.
Q84. Tolerance means:
A. Degree of inspection required
B. The two extremes within which an actual dimension must lie
C. The ideal dimension only
D. Material removed for fit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tolerance defines permissible dimensional variation.
Q85. Surface roughness is measured in:
A. Mils
B. Microinches
C. Inches
D. Feet
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Surface finish/roughness is commonly expressed in microinches.
Q86. Visual acuity is the ability of the eye to:
A. Resolve details
B. Perceive light intensity only
C. Distinguish colors only
D. Retain images
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Visual acuity measures the ability to distinguish fine detail.
Q87. A fiberscope has an advantage over a borescope because it is:
A. Lightweight
B. Rigid
C. Simpler only
D. Flexible
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A fiberscope can bend and inspect areas with limited straight-line access.
Q88. Necessary lighting for visual examination:
A. Is never a problem
B. Should be sufficient, approximately comparable to reading conditions or specified requirements
C. Must always be incandescent
D. Must always be fluorescent
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Adequate illumination is essential for reliable VT.
Q89. Service-induced discontinuities in fasteners may be caused by:
A. Vibration
B. Tension
C. Corrosion
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fasteners may crack or degrade due to mechanical loading, vibration, and corrosion.
Q90. A variation or interruption in normal physical structure is called a:
A. Flaw
B. Discontinuity
C. Defect
D. Fault
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A discontinuity is a structural interruption; it becomes a defect only if rejectable.
Q91. A condition detrimental to useful service is called a:
A. Flaw
B. Discontinuity
C. Defect
D. Fault
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A defect is a rejectable discontinuity.
Q92. Forging laps may sometimes be mistaken for:
A. Bursts
B. Pipe
C. Cracks
D. Porosity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Laps can appear as linear surface indications similar to cracks.
Q93. Loss of wall thickness can be caused by:
A. Corrosion and erosion
B. Pitting and wear
C. Galling and abrasion
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wall loss may result from chemical, mechanical, or combined mechanisms.
Q94. Severe grinding cracks often appear as:
A. Wave-like patterns
B. Widely spaced cracks
C. Lattice or checkerboard patterns
D. Deep crevices only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Grinding cracks may form fine networks or checkerboard patterns.
Q95. Welding preheat and interpass temperatures are commonly measured by:
A. Temperature-indicating crayons
B. Observing metal color only
C. Contact pyrometers
D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Temperature crayons and pyrometers are commonly used to verify preheat/interpass temperature.
Q96. Bolt or stud threads should project past the nut to ensure:
A. Bearing on the head
B. Bearing under the head
C. End shank contact
D. Full thread engagement beyond the nut
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Proper thread projection helps confirm full nut engagement.
Q97. Which discontinuity is seldom discovered during visual examination?
A. Crack
B. Incomplete penetration
C. Undercut
D. Tungsten inclusion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tungsten inclusions are internal weld discontinuities usually detected by RT.
Q98. Unfused chaplets are associated with:
A. Forging
B. Rolling
C. Extruding
D. Casting
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Chaplets are used in casting molds and may remain unfused.
Q99. Laminations are generally:
A. Linear and parallel with plate surfaces
B. Linear and perpendicular to plate surfaces
C. Randomly oriented
D. Always visible externally
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Laminations are flat internal separations usually parallel to the rolled surface.
Q100. Creep refers to:
A. Low-temperature embrittlement
B. Progressive crack movement
C. Wall thinning by corrosion
D. Metal deformation under steady load at elevated temperature
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Creep is time-dependent deformation caused by stress at high temperature.
Q101. Indications caused by repeated loading, bending, or vibration are:
A. Mass hardness
B. Lamellar tearing
C. Hot tears
D. Fatigue cracks
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fatigue cracks develop under repeated cyclic stress.
Q102. A joining process using filler metal with liquidus below 450°C and below the base metal solidus is:
A. Brazing
B. Soldering
C. Resistance welding
D. Arc welding
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Soldering uses filler metal below 450°C; brazing is above 450°C.
Q103. Stress corrosion cracking is caused by the combined action of:
A. Steel and cracks
B. Stress and corrosion
C. Structure and coatings
D. Slag and craters
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: SCC requires tensile stress and a specific corrosive environment.
Q104. Embrittlement may be affected by:
A. High temperatures only
B. Low temperatures only
C. Both high and low temperatures
D. No temperature effects
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Different embrittlement mechanisms can occur at low or elevated temperatures.
Q105. Pitting corrosion can be initiated by:
A. Restricted fluid access
B. Cavitation
C. Abrasive wear
D. Stress only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Local concentration cells and stagnant areas can initiate pitting.
Q106. Shrinkage cavities are normally found in:
A. Castings
B. Forgings
C. Plates
D. Bars
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Shrinkage cavities form during solidification of cast metal.
Q107. Embrittlement is a severe loss of ductility caused by:
A. Fatigue only
B. Erosion only
C. In-service environments
D. Cavitation only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In-service exposure can cause metallurgical changes or environmental embrittlement.
Q108. Laps in forging can easily be mistaken for:
A. Porosity
B. Cracks
C. Bursts
D. Pipe
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Forging laps are linear surface folds that can look like cracks.
Q109. Laminations in rolled products may be found on:
A. The face only
B. The edge only
C. The corner only
D. Both face and edge
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Laminations are parallel to rolling surfaces and may be revealed on faces or edges.
Q110. Corrosion attack in the form of pits is called:
A. Localized corrosion
B. Galvanic corrosion
C. Erosion corrosion
D. Intergranular corrosion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pitting is a localized form of corrosion.
Q111. Cavitation commonly occurs on or near a pump:
A. Bearings
B. Impeller
C. Shaft
D. Rings only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cavitation damage is common near impellers where local pressure changes occur.
Q112. Cavitation occurs when:
A. Only gas bubbles collapse
B. Bubble formation begins and ends without collapse
C. Local pressure drops below liquid vapor pressure
D. Pressure gradually increases
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cavitation begins when local pressure falls below vapor pressure and vapor bubbles form.
Q113. Necking down results from:
A. Overloading
B. Folding of metal
C. Extrusion
D. Insufficient ductility only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tensile overload can cause a localized reduction in cross-section.
Q114. Typical corrosion damage would not include:
A. Cracked welds
B. Frozen bearings
C. Deep pits
D. Rust
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Frozen bearings are a mechanical issue, not typical corrosion damage.
Q115. Excessive pump vibration can be caused by:
A. Rotating element unbalance
B. Worn or loose parts
C. Misalignment
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pump vibration can result from imbalance, looseness, misalignment, or other mechanical faults.
Q116. Which statement is true?
A. All discontinuities are defects
B. Defects that affect usefulness are called discontinuities
C. Discontinuities that affect usefulness are called defects
D. All discontinuities are unacceptable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A defect is a discontinuity that exceeds acceptance criteria.
Q117. Fatigue cracks often begin at:
A. Section changes
B. Thread roots
C. Weld toes
D. Any of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fatigue cracks initiate at stress concentrators such as notches, weld toes, and thread roots.
Q118. Thermal fatigue is caused by:
A. Fluctuating stress only
B. Overheating only
C. Fluctuating temperature
D. Overloading only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Temperature cycling creates repeated thermal stresses that can cause fatigue cracking.
Q119. To examine areas around bends in pipe sections, you might use a:
A. Borescope
B. Telescope
C. Fiberscope
D. Microscope
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A fiberscope is flexible and suitable for viewing around bends.
Q120. Bursts can develop during rolling or:
A. Casting
B. Drawing
C. Forging
D. Piercing only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Bursts can occur during forging or rolling due to internal weakness or excessive working.
Q121. During rolling, nonmetallic inclusions can develop into:
A. Stringers
B. Cold laps
C. Tears
D. Bursts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rolling elongates inclusions into stringer-like discontinuities.
Q122. The surface finish of a part may be described by:
A. Length
B. Area
C. Roughness
D. Fit
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Surface finish is commonly expressed as surface roughness.
Q123. The maximum diameter of a hole specified as 2.375 ± 0.005 inch is:
A. 2.375 inch
B. 2.370 inch
C. 2.390 inch
D. 2.380 inch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Maximum = 2.375 + 0.005 = 2.380 inch.
Q124. Maximum and minimum values on a dimension are called:
A. Diameters
B. Finishes
C. Tolerances
D. Fits
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tolerances define the permitted dimensional limits.
Q125. The symbol 125 with a surface-finish mark represents:
A. Diameter
B. Surface finish
C. Part length
D. Bend angle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The number with the surface finish symbol indicates required roughness.
Q126. How many 32nds are there in one inch?
A. 8
B. 32
C. 64
D. 100
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: One inch contains 32 increments of 1/32 inch.
Q127. An example of a permanent mold casting process is:
A. Sand casting
B. Investment casting
C. Die casting
D. Shell mold casting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Die casting uses a reusable metal mold.
Q128. A lamination can result from rolling an ingot containing piping or:
A. Glass
B. Flakes
C. Inclusions
D. Seams
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Rolled inclusions or pipe defects can flatten into laminations.
Q129. Which is an inherent discontinuity?
A. Inclusion
B. Fatigue crack
C. Stress crack
D. Grinding check
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Inclusions originate during material formation/solidification.
Q130. Wrought products can be made:
A. Only by rolling
B. By hot or cold working
C. Only by cold working
D. Only by hot working
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Wrought products are mechanically worked by hot or cold processes.
Q131. Porosity is:
A. Gas entrapped below the surface of metal
B. Gas entrapped below or at the surface of material
C. Crystalline foreign material below the surface
D. Welding filler metal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Porosity consists of gas cavities in or at the surface of a material.
Q132. The most accurate mechanical tool listed for measuring plate thickness is:
A. Steel tape
B. Micrometer
C. Feeler gauge
D. Steel ruler
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Micrometers provide precise mechanical thickness measurement.
Q133. The two types of examination mirrors are:
A. Dental and industrial
B. Dental and movable
C. Industrial and fixed
D. Fixed and dental
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dental and industrial mirrors are common visual examination aids.
Q134. Light intensity for visual inspection is usually specified in:
A. Angstroms
B. Photon energy
C. Foot-candles
D. Watts
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Foot-candles measure illumination intensity.
Q135. Which discontinuity would you expect to find in weldments?
A. Blow holes
B. Piping
C. Bleed-out
D. Transverse cracks
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Transverse cracks are weld discontinuities.
Q136. A thread pitch gauge is used to determine:
A. Thread diameter
B. Number of threads per inch
C. Thread pitch/form
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A pitch gauge checks thread pitch, commonly expressed as TPI, and thread form.
Q137. Stress corrosion cracking is often found in:
A. Carbon steel in caustic service
B. Stainless steel in ammonia
C. Brass in high-purity water
D. High-nickel alloys in halogens only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Caustic SCC of carbon steel is a recognized service-related cracking mechanism.
Q138. A folded thin flap on a forging is called:
A. Cold shut
B. Forging porosity
C. Crack
D. Forging lap
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A forging lap is a folded-over surface defect.
Q139. Primary processing discontinuities are caused during:
A. Machining
B. Rolling
C. Grinding
D. Heat treating
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rolling is a primary processing operation that can introduce discontinuities.
Q140. Shrinkage cavities may be present if the product was formed by:
A. Explosive forming
B. Extrusion
C. Forging
D. Casting
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Shrinkage cavities result from solidification shrinkage in castings.
Q141. Which optical aids can be used in visual examination?
A. Mirrors
B. Fiberscopes
C. Cameras
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Visual examination may use several optical aids depending on access and technique.
Q142. Which type of drawing is three-dimensional?
A. Isometric
B. Composite
C. Flow
D. P&ID
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Isometric drawings show piping in a three-dimensional format.
Q143. Which discontinuity is associated with visual examination of bolting?
A. Erosion
B. Stripped threads
C. Shearing tears near bolt head
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bolting may show thread damage, mechanical tearing, or surface wear/damage.
Q144. Which of the following is a common visible defect in threaded fasteners?
A. Stripped threads
B. Internal lamination only
C. Subsurface inclusion only
D. Hidden porosity only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Stripped threads are readily detectable by visual examination.
Q145. Which condition is most likely to require further NDE after visual examination?
A. Clean surface
B. Suspected surface crack
C. Correct thread engagement
D. Proper surface finish
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Suspected cracks found visually should be confirmed and evaluated using suitable NDE methods.
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