Top 99 Latest Piping Inspector API 570 Practice Questions and Answers Free Test (Closed Book)
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Q1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:
A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder
Correct Answer: C. The weldment has the desired properties
Explanation: The WPS and PQR are used to prove that the proposed welding procedure can produce a weldment with the required mechanical properties.
Q2. The WPS lists:
A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of A and B above
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: A WPS must list applicable essential, nonessential, and supplementary essential variables when required.
Q3. The PQR must list:
A. Essential variables
B. Qualification test and examination results
C. Supplementary essential variables when notch toughness is required
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The PQR records the actual variables used during qualification and the test results. Supplementary essential variables are included when notch toughness is required.
Q4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?
A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962
Correct Answer: D. 1962
Explanation: ASME Section IX generally recognizes procedure qualifications made to earlier editions back to the 1962 Edition, provided they met the rules of that edition.
Q5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
A. 1962
B. Current
C. 1986
D. 1995
Correct Answer: B. Current
Explanation: New WPS qualifications must meet the current applicable edition and addenda/code requirements.
Q6. Each __________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPSs used during construction, alteration, or repair.
A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Manufacturer or contractor
Explanation: The manufacturer or contractor is responsible for qualifying welding procedures used by their organization.
Q7. The records of procedure, welder, and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.
A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman
Correct Answer: C. Authorized Inspector
Explanation: Qualification records must be available for review by the Authorized Inspector.
Q8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24” O.D. in at least the ________ positions.
A. Vertical
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and overhead
D. Horizontal
Correct Answer: C. Flat and overhead
Explanation: A 4G groove weld qualification qualifies the welder for flat and overhead groove welding positions.
Q9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4F positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the ____________ positions.
A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D. None of the above
Explanation: Fillet weld qualification does not qualify a welder for groove welds.
Q10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:
A. ½” O.D. pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B. 6” O.D. pipe in the vertical position
Explanation: A 5G pipe qualification includes vertical welding and qualifies the welder for pipe sizes within the permitted diameter range.
Q11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:
A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. Fillet welds
Explanation: Groove weld qualification generally qualifies the welder for fillet welds, but not automatically for unrelated weld types such as stud welds.
Q12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s:
A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. Notch toughness
Explanation: Charpy V-notch testing measures the notch toughness or impact resistance of the weldment.
Q13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P-No. 1 materials may be qualified using radiography.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: For permitted materials and processes, radiography may be used for welder performance qualification instead of bend testing.
Q14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile strength and be accepted.
A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. 5%
Explanation: If the specimen breaks in the base metal outside the weld or fusion line, it may be accepted if the strength is not more than 5% below the specified minimum tensile strength.
Q15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat-affected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface after bending.
A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C. 1/8”
Explanation: Open defects exceeding 1/8 inch on the convex surface are not acceptable, except for certain permitted corner indications.
Q16. When using radiographs to qualify welders, the acceptance standards used are found in:
A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code
Correct Answer: B. ASME Section IX
Explanation: Welder performance qualification by radiography is evaluated using the acceptance criteria in ASME Section IX.
Q17. A WPS must describe:
A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variables when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: A WPS must address all applicable essential, nonessential, and supplementary essential variables.
Q18. A PQR must describe:
A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of welder qualification tests
D. Project description and NDE methods
Correct Answer: B. Essential variables
Explanation: The PQR records the actual essential variables used during procedure qualification, along with test results. Nonessential variables are not required to be recorded.
Q19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.
A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Manufacturer or contractor
Explanation: The manufacturer or contractor certifies that the PQR information is true and accurate.
Q20. For the SMAW process, ____________ is an essential variable for the WPS.
A. Groove design
B. Post-weld heat treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning
Correct Answer: B. Post-weld heat treatment
Explanation: A change in post-weld heat treatment can affect mechanical properties and is an essential variable.
Q21. For the SAW process, ______________ is an essential variable for the WPS.
A. Supplemental powdered filler metal, if used
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening
Correct Answer: A. Supplemental powdered filler metal, if used
Explanation: For SAW, the addition or deletion of supplemental powdered filler metal is an essential variable.
Q22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s _____________.
A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors
Correct Answer: B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
Explanation: Welder performance qualification tests the welder’s ability to produce sound welds.
Q23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.
A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ
Correct Answer: D. WPQ
Explanation: The record of welder performance qualification is commonly called a WPQ.
Q24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on January 1, 1994, and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: A welder’s qualification for a process expires if the welder does not use that process for 6 months or more. From March 15 to October 7 is more than 6 months.
Q25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.
A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P-No. 1 backing only
Correct Answer: C. With backing only
Explanation: A weld made from both sides is considered a weld with backing for qualification purposes.
Q26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualification coupons:
A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval
Correct Answer: A. Must use the same method
Explanation: Immediate retests are generally performed using the same test method and must meet all acceptance criteria.
Q27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the ___________ variables specified.
A. Essential and nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing
Correct Answer: C. Essential
Explanation: WPQ records must list the applicable essential variables for welder performance qualification.
Q28. A welder depositing ½” of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.
A. 8”
B. Maximum to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”
Correct Answer: C. 1”
Explanation: For welder qualification, deposited weld metal thickness commonly qualifies up to two times the deposited thickness when below the unlimited qualification range.
Q29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:
A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints
Correct Answer: C. Base metals
Explanation: P-Numbers group base metals with similar welding characteristics.
Q30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No. 21 is qualified to weld:
A. P-No. 1 through P-No. 11 to P-No. 1 through P-No. 11
B. P-No. 8 to P-No. 8
C. P-No. 21 through P-No. 25 to P-No. 21 through P-No. 25
D. P-No. 21 to P-No. 21 only
Correct Answer: C. P-No. 21 through P-No. 25 to P-No. 21 through P-No. 25
Explanation: Performance qualification on certain nonferrous P-Number materials can qualify a range of related P-Numbers.
Q31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:
A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. F-Number
Correct Answer: D. F-Number
Explanation: F-Numbers group filler metals/electrodes according to usability characteristics.
Q32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using:
A. P-Number
B. Welder I.D.
C. A-Number
D. Page number
Correct Answer: C. A-Number
Explanation: A-Numbers classify ferrous weld metal chemical composition.
Q33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process, _________ is an essential variable.
A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-Number
D. Electrode diameter
Correct Answer: C. P-Number
Explanation: For welder performance qualification, base metal grouping by P-Number can be an essential variable.
Q34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):
A. P-Number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood and gloves
D. Inspector
Correct Answer: B. Unique identifier
Explanation: Each welder must have a unique identification mark or number for traceability.
Q35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without requalification?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P-No. 1
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: Plate qualification does not automatically qualify the welder for small-diameter pipe welding.
Q36. What is the difference between gas metal arc welding and gas tungsten arc welding processes?
A. GMAW uses a continuously fed filler metal as electrode and GTAW uses a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-Number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW
Correct Answer: A. GMAW uses a continuously fed filler metal as electrode and GTAW uses a tungsten electrode
Explanation: GMAW uses a consumable wire electrode, while GTAW uses a nonconsumable tungsten electrode.
Q37. A welder has been tested in the 6G position using E7018 F-4 electrode on 6” Sch 160 SA-106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI Schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA-106B nozzle neck?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: The test coupon diameter does not qualify the welder for the smaller 2” pipe/fitting diameter range.
Q38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld make a single V-groove weld without backing?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: A double-groove weld is considered welding with backing. Welding without backing requires separate qualification.
Q39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-No. 22 material and the production welds will be P-No. 22 also.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-No. 22 is welded with F-22 fillers
Correct Answer: A. Yes
Explanation: Radiography may be used for welder qualification for permitted processes and materials, including GTAW when the material is allowed.
Q40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders, and welding operators?
A. The Inspector
B. The Authorized Inspector
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer or Contractor
Correct Answer: D. The Manufacturer or Contractor
Explanation: The manufacturer or contractor is responsible for qualifying procedures and personnel used by their organization.
Q41. A welding electrode has the marking E6010. The “1” marking indicates:
A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat-treated welds
Correct Answer: C. All positions
Explanation: In E6010, the third digit “1” indicates that the electrode may be used in all welding positions.
Q42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT be used to weld in production?
A. Yes, a welder can be used
B. No welder can be used
C. Yes, if the welder is using GMAW short arc
D. Yes, if the welder is qualified with backing
Correct Answer: A. Yes, a welder can be used
Explanation: When permitted by the applicable code rules, volumetric examination such as UT may be used for welder qualification.
Q43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: The welder must follow the WPS. Nonessential variables may be changed by revising the WPS, but the welder cannot simply deviate from it.
44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Correct Answer: B. 4
Explanation: A 6G pipe performance qualification generally requires four guided bend specimens.
Q45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all-position pipe welding?
A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G
Correct Answer: B. 2G and 5G
Explanation: The combination of 2G and 5G pipe positions qualifies the welder for all pipe welding positions.
Q46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?
A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C
Correct Answer: D. ASME II Part C
Explanation: Electrode/filler metal classification and related requirements are found in ASME Section II, Part C.
Q47. A repair organization has a WPS qualified for P-No. 8 to P-No. 8 material with E308, E308L, E309, and E316 electrodes. The supporting PQR used SA-240 Type 304L welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated
Correct Answer: A. Yes
Explanation: SA-240 Type 304L is P-No. 8 material, so the PQR supports the P-No. 8 to P-No. 8 base metal qualification.
Q48. May a GMAW short-circuit transfer welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonics?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: GMAW short-circuit transfer procedures generally require mechanical testing and cannot be qualified by volumetric examination alone.
Q49. Three arc-welding processes are:
A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW
Correct Answer: C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
Explanation: Shielded metal arc welding, gas tungsten arc welding, and plasma arc welding are recognized arc-welding processes.
Q50. A welder was qualified with a P-No. 1 test coupon using SMAW E7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-No. 4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production, assuming the P-No. 4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. Yes
Explanation: If the procedure is qualified and the welder’s performance qualification covers the required process, filler metal grouping, backing, and material range, the welder may weld the production joint.
Q51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?
A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction; repairs only
Correct Answer: A. Yes
Explanation: Procedure qualifications made under earlier recognized editions may remain valid if they complied with the rules at the time of qualification.
Q52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?
A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Plate groove weld qualifications may be performed in 1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G positions.
Q53. You are reviewing a WPQ for a welder testing in the 6G position on SA-53 Grade B pipe. The test results include one tensile specimen breaking in the weld at 51,000 psi and another breaking in base metal at 56,900 psi. Will this test qualify the welder?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable, but No. 1 is unacceptable
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: The tensile result breaking in the weld at 51,000 psi is below the required strength for the base material, so the test is not acceptable.
Q54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?
A. Side and transverse
B. Face and root
C. Transverse and longitudinal
D. Side and face
Correct Answer: C. Transverse and longitudinal
Explanation: Guided-bend tests are primarily classified as transverse or longitudinal bend tests.
Q55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?
A. Flat, horizontal, overhead
B. Flat, vertical, overhead
C. Vertical, overhead, special position
D. Horizontal, vertical, overhead
Correct Answer: B. Flat, vertical, overhead
Explanation: A 5G pipe qualification qualifies the welder for flat, vertical, and overhead welding positions.
Q56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?
A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: E6010, E7018, and E9028 are all examples of covered electrodes used in SMAW.
Q57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?
A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Essential variables are documented on WPS, PQR, and WPQ records as applicable.
Q58. In the performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?
A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. 5G and 6G
Explanation: 5G and 6G pipe qualification tests generally require four guided bend specimens.
Q59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate.
A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above
Correct Answer: D. Any of the above
Explanation: Porosity, underfill, lack of fusion, lack of penetration, slag, and overlap can all be rejectable defects depending on severity and acceptance criteria.
Q60. A variable that, when changed, will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:
A. Essential variable
B. Nonessential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. Essential variable
Explanation: An essential variable affects the mechanical properties of the weldment.
Q61. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:
A. Notch toughness test
B. Tension test
C. Fillet weld test
D. Guided-bend test
Correct Answer: B. Tension test
Explanation: Tension testing determines the ultimate tensile strength of the welded joint.
Q62. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:
A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties
C. The corrosion resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties
Explanation: Procedure qualification proves the welding procedure can produce welds with required properties.
Q63. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification when notch toughness is a consideration.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: Supplementary essential variables become mandatory when notch toughness is required.
Q64. When using macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:
A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required
Correct Answer: A. 5X
Explanation: Macro-examination is commonly evaluated at 5X magnification for fillet weld qualification.
Q65. A nonessential variable may be changed without requalification because:
A. Nobody cares about nonessential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Nonessential variables do not affect mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Nonessential variables cannot be changed without requalification
Correct Answer: C. Nonessential variables do not affect mechanical or notch-toughness properties
Explanation: Nonessential variables may be revised without requalification because they do not affect mechanical or notch-toughness properties.
Q66. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: A WPS must also address applicable nonessential variables.
Q67. The data recorded on a PQR, non-editorial, may be changed provided:
A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed; only editorial information can be changed
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed
Correct Answer: B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed; only editorial information can be changed
Explanation: A PQR is a record of actual qualification test conditions and results. Non-editorial data cannot be changed.
Q68. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: Welder performance qualification is generally evaluated by bend tests, radiography, or other permitted methods, not by tension tests in lieu of bend tests.
Q69. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
A. Pass
B. Fail
Correct Answer: A. Pass
Explanation: The indication is exactly 1/8 inch and does not exceed the maximum permitted size.
Q70. Unless notch toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: For procedure qualification, position is normally not an essential variable unless notch toughness requirements apply.
Q71. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: WPS/PQR qualifies the welding procedure, not the welder’s skill. Welder skill is qualified by WPQ.
Q72. Welders can be qualified by radiography when using P-No. 6X materials.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: Certain material groups are not permitted to be qualified by radiography alone for welder performance qualification.
Q73. It is permissible to subcontract the welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B. No
Explanation: The organization must control and be responsible for welding the qualification coupons. Preparation/testing work may be subcontracted, but welding qualification coupons cannot simply be subcontracted away.
Q74. Variable QW-402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a ___________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Nonessential
C. Supplementary essential
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. Essential
Explanation: For SMAW procedure qualification, QW-402.4 is treated as an essential variable.
Q75. Variable QW-404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an ____________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Nonessential
C. Supplementary essential
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. Essential
Explanation: QW-404.24 deals with filler metal changes for SAW and is an essential variable.
Q76. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR by signature, indicating that the information given is true and correct.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: The manufacturer or contractor certifies the PQR to confirm that the recorded information is true and accurate.
Q77. Welder variable QW-405.1 for welder qualifying with the SMAW process is a __________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Nonessential
C. Supplementary essential
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. Essential
Explanation: For welder performance qualification, position-related variables such as QW-405.1 are essential variables.
Q78. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: This is the core purpose of procedure qualification.
Q79. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: 4G qualifies limited positions, mainly flat and overhead. It does not qualify all groove weld positions.
Q80. A WPS must address all applicable nonessential variables.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: A WPS must address applicable essential, nonessential, and supplementary essential variables when required.
Q81. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: Groove weld procedure qualification usually requires tension and bend testing, not macro-examination only.
Q82. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div. 1.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A. True
Explanation: Impact testing is required only when notch toughness is required by the referencing construction code.
Q83. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which additional position to qualify for all-position groove welding on pipe?
A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
Correct Answer: C. 5G
Explanation: A combination of 2G and 5G pipe qualifications qualifies a welder for all pipe groove welding positions.
Q84. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without requalification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:
A. 50°F
B. 100°F
C. 125°F
D. 150°F
Correct Answer: B. 100°F
Explanation: A decrease in preheat temperature of more than 100°F is an essential variable requiring requalification.
Q85. A welder is qualified to weld all thicknesses of material when:
A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inch
Correct Answer: C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
Explanation: Deposited weld metal thickness of ¾ inch or more generally qualifies the welder for unlimited deposited weld metal thickness.
Q86. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending, except for corner cracks and corrosion-resistant weld overlay?
A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
Correct Answer: B. 1/8 inch
Explanation: Open discontinuities exceeding 1/8 inch are unacceptable on the convex surface of bend specimens.
Q87. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to requalify in that process?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
Correct Answer: B. 6 months
Explanation: If a welder does not use a welding process for 6 months or more, qualification for that process expires.
Q88. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:
A. For heat-treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
Correct Answer: E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section
Explanation: Notch toughness is required only when specified by the applicable referencing code or project requirements.
Q89. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:
A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
Correct Answer: E. All of the above
Explanation: E7018 is an F-No. 4 electrode, and F-No. 4 qualification generally qualifies the welder for lower F-Number electrodes as permitted.
Q90. Macro-examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, except linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8 inch difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: All listed conditions are typical acceptance requirements for fillet weld macro-examination.
Q91. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by their organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:
A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
Correct Answer: D. Installer or assembler
Explanation: In Section IX, manufacturer or contractor also includes installer or assembler.
Q92. For P-No. 11 materials, weld grooves for thicknesses ___________ shall be prepared by thermal processes when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.
A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 1¼ inches
Correct Answer: A. Less than 5/8 inch
Explanation: For certain P-No. 11 materials, groove preparation rules are tied to thickness and whether thermal processes are used in fabrication.
Q93. A SWPS may be used in lieu of a manufacturer-qualified WPS when:
A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown
Correct Answer: D. Compliance with Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown
Explanation: Standard Welding Procedure Specifications may be used only when the specific rules for their use are satisfied.
Q94. A change in a nonessential variable requires recertification of the PQR.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B. False
Explanation: A nonessential variable change may require WPS revision, but it does not require PQR recertification.
Q95. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1(b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches
B. 2½ inches
C. 3 inches
D. 3½ inches
Correct Answer: C. 3 inches
Explanation: Reduced-section tensile specimens may be used for pipe above the specified outside diameter limit.
Q96. Groove weld tests may be used for the qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?
A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
Correct Answer: D. Either bend tests or radiography
Explanation: Welder groove weld qualification may be evaluated by bend tests or radiography when permitted.
Q97. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?
A. A 6 inch length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12 inch length of weld
C. A macro-examination may be taken from the first 3 inch of weld length
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. A 6 inch length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
Explanation: Production weld qualification may be permitted by radiographic examination of a specified length of the first production weld.
Q98. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found acceptable. Specimen 1 has width 0.752”, thickness 0.875”, and ultimate tensile value 78,524 psi. Specimen 2 has width 0.702”, thickness 0.852”, and ultimate tensile value 77,654 psi. What is the ultimate load for each specimen?
A. 51,668 and 46,445
B. 67,453 and 56,443
C. 78,524 and 77,654
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. 51,668 and 46,445
Explanation: Ultimate load = tensile strength × cross-sectional area.
Specimen 1:
0.752 × 0.875 × 78,524 ≈ 51,668 lb
Specimen 2:
0.702 × 0.852 × 77,654 ≈ 46,445 lb
Q99. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPS as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?
A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Under the referenced SWPS limitations in this practice question, the listed processes are treated as not permitted for use with SWPS.
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