Top 99 Latest ASME IX Practice Questions And Answers (Closed Book)
1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:
A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder
2. The WPS lists:
A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above
3. The PQR must list:
A. Essential variables.
B. Qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required)
4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?
A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962
5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
A. 1962
B. Current
C. 1986
D. 1995
6. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.
A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above
7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the __________.
A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman
8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.
A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal
9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _____________positions.
A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above
10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in:
A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above
11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:
A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above
12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s
A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above
13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.
A. True
B. False
14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.
A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above
15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.
A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above
16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:
A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code
17. A WPS must describe:
A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above
18. A PQR must describe:
A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods
19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.
A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above
20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for the WPS.
A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning
21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable for the WPS.
A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening
22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’____________________________.
A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors
23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.
A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ
24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?
A. Yes
B. No
25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld ________________.
A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only
26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:
A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval
27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the___________ variables specified.
A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing
28. A welder depositing 1/2″ of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.
A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”
29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:
A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints
30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:
A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only
31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:
A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number
32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designate dusing:
A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D
C. “A” number
D. Page number
33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process______________________ is an essential variable.
A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter
34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):
A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector
35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1
36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?
A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW
37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld
38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without backing?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder
39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers
40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?
A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor.
41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:
A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds
42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?
A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing
43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.
True
False
44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?
A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G
46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?
A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C
47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes.
Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated
48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonic?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done
49. Three arc-welding processes are:
A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW
50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production?
(Assume the P-4 procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above
51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?
A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only
52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?
A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above
53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will this test qualify the welder?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable
54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?
A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face
55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?
A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH
56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?
A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above
57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?
A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above
58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?
A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above
59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?
A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above
60. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?
A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above
61. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:
A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above
62. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:
A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test.
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test
63. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:
A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties.
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above
64. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.
True
False
65. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:
A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only
66. A non-essential variable may be changes without requalification because:
A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification
67. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.
True
False
68. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :
A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on a PQR
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed
69. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.
True
False
70. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
A. Pass
B. Fail
71. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.
True
False
72. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound production welds.
True
False
73. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?
True
False
74. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.
True
False
75. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a_____________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above
76. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an______________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above
77. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true and correct.
True
False
78. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above
79. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.
True
False
80. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.
True
False
81. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.
True
False
82. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.
True
False
83. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.
True
False
84. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?
A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above
85. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without requalification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:
A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above
86. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when:
A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches
87. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?
A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed
88. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that process?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI
89. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:
A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section
90. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:
A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above
91. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the examination shows:
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above
92. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:
A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer
93. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses_______________ shall be prepared by thermal processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.
A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above
94. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:
A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown
95. A change in a non-essential variable requires recertification of the PQR
True
False
96. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches
97. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?
A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above
98. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?
A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above
99. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?
A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above
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