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1.

Materials & Processed
The difference between die casting and permanent mold casting is that:

 a) lighter alloys such as aluminum cannot be cast in permanent molds

 b) the permanent mold process is limited to thickness over 0.015”

 c) the mold in the die-cast process is destroyed after use

 d) pressure is applied to the liquid metal in the die-cast process

2.

Which of the processes listed below is used the most frequently to bond honeycomb cores to the outer sheets?

 a) Adhesive bonding

 b) Diffusion bonding

 c) Brazing

 d) Friction welding

3.

Corrosion attacks metals by

 a) Indirect chemical action

 b) Electrochemical reaction

 c) Galvanic action

 d) Oxygen content

4.

In the making of seamless or electric resistance welded (ERW) pipe or tubing. The most
common discontinuities are oriented

 a) Transverse to the pipe or tube axis

 b) Parallel to the pipe or tube axis

 c) Parallel to the maximum shear stress plane

 d) Perpendicular to the maximum shear stress plane

5.

Which of the following is true regarding the investment or lost wax casting process?

 a) Tolerances are typically plus or minus 1/16”

 b) Per-entrant angles cannot be produced during casting and must be machined

 c) Large castings up to 8 feet in diameter are easily produced

 d) In many cases tolerances are sufficient without further machining

6.

Carbon steel is:

 a) Non-ferritic, cubic faced

 b) An alloy

 c) Non-ferritic, martensitic.

 d) Pearlitic

7.

When inspecting complex solder joints, the normal NDT method used is:

 a) Eddy Current

 b) Acoustic Emission

 c) VT

 d) UT

8.

Electrical discharge machining is useful in NDT testing because it can produce:

 a) Fine surface finishes

 b) Small holes and notches

 c) Sharp reductions in cross-sectional area

 d) Natural flaws for precision calibration blocks

9.

Which of the following alloy would have a negative effect on the corrosion resistance of steel:

 a) Silicon

 b) Nickel

 c) Molybdenum

 d) Sulfur

10.

In the international system of units, the distinction between upper- and lower-case letters should be observed. For example, the meanings of the prefix m (Milli) and M (Mega) differ by:

 a) 2 orders of magnitude

 b) 6 orders of magnitude

 c) 9 orders of magnitude

 d) 12 orders of magnitude

11.

Which of the following materials has the highest electrical conductivity?

 a) Aluminum (Pure)

 b) Lead (Pure)

 c) Copper (Pure)

 d) Silver (Pure)

12.

A process that joins two members together by using capillary action to flow the filler material
is called:

 a) Soldering if the temperature does not exceed 800 F

 b) Brazing if the temperature does not exceed 800 F

 c) Resistance welding

 d) Oxyfuel gas welding

13.

Which of the following properties of aluminum alloys is most affected by the presence of geometric stress risers?

 a) Ductility

 b) Corrosion resistance

 c) Conductivity

 d) Endurance limits

14.

The highest quality steel is made in which of the following types of furnaces

 a) Electric arc furnace

 b) Basic oxygen furnace

 c) Blast furnace

 d) Reduction melt furnace

15.

Coating one metal with another metal for the purpose of protecting against corrosion attacks is known as

 a) Anodizing

 b) Press fitting

 c) Cladding

 d) Austenization

16.

The electrical discharge machining EDM process is used in the NDT field mainly to produce

 a) Specific size calibration blocks

 b) Specific size and shape artificial flaws

 c) ASTM distance amplitude blocks

 d) Polarized ceramic high-frequency crystals

17.

Through what mechanism does heat treating when property performed, remove work-hardened properties:

 a) Local remelting

 b) Recrystallization

 c) Local plastic flow

 d) Diffusion of the denser elements to the grain boundaries

18.

Soldering is a process using a filler metal with a melting point

 a) Below 450 Degrees C (840 Degrees F)

 b) Above 450 Degrees C (840 Degrees F)

 c) Between 450 Degrees C (840 Degrees F) and 840 Degrees C (1544 Degrees F)

 d) Of 100 Degrees C (212 Degrees F)

19.

All of the following materials can be joined to carbon steel by welding or brazing except

 a) Nickel Alloys

 b) Aluminum

 c) Copper

 d) Cast iron

20.

An ultrasonic technique that uses one transducer to send a signal and a second transducer
to receive signals from the same side of the object is called:

 a) Through transmission

 b) Resonance

 c) Pitch-Catch

 d) Double pulse echo

21.

In the forging process, an excess metal that must be removed by the secondary operation is called:

 a) Dross

 b) Flakes

 c) Flash

 d) Busts

22.

A surface condition produced during casting of an ingot, caused by hot molten splashing on the mold surface is called a:

 a) Bloom

 b) Piping

 c) Blowhole

 d) Scab

23.

A technical specialty that predicts material behavior based upon the size and location of discontinuities, material properties, and stress distribution is known as:

 a) Fracture control

 b) Fatigue and fracture control

 c) Fracture mechanics

 d) Failure prediction

24.

ASNT TC-1A & CP 189
The recommended training course outlines for NDT Level I, II and may be found in:

 a) ANSI/ASNT CP-105

 b) ANSI/ASNT CP-189

 c) ASME Section V

 d) ASNT SNT-TC-1A

25.

In accordance with CP-189, technicians who attend a 40 Hour NDT training course will receive credit for the training if they:

 a) Sign an attendance sheet

 b) Receive a certificate signed by the instructor

 c) Pass a final exam

 d) Record dates, times, course outline, and instructor

26.

In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, qualification is defined as indicating that a person has:

 a) Demonstrated the skill and knowledge and documented training and experience to properly perform a specific job

 b) Passed the general, specific, and practical examination in a method with minimum scores of 80% in each examination

 c) Complete the classroom training for the basic examination, the specific examination for the employer’s product line, the applicable method examination

 d) Complete all training and examination for classification to job title

27.

Per CP-189, when an individual with an ASNT Level III certificate terminates their employment to accept a position with another company their employer-issued certification:

 a) Remains valid

 b) Is revoked by ASNT

 c) Maybe reissued by their new employer

 d) Expires

28.

for an individual with a Bachelor of Science degree. What is the minimum number of months experience as a Level II are needed to qualify for Level III certification?

 a) 12 months

 b) 18 months

 c) 24 months

 d) 48 months

29.

In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, what minimum level of personnel may be qualified to properly perform specific evaluations for acceptance or rejection determination according to written instruction:

 a) trainee

 b) Level I

 c) Level II

 d) Level III

30.

There is a total of ……. Level of qualification per CP-189:

 a) 3

 b) 4

 c) 5

 d) 6

31.

The qualification level in CP-189 which does not exist SNT-TC-1A:

 a) understudy

 b) NDT Instructor

 c) NDT Manager

 d) Professional Level III

32.

In accordance with SNT-TC-1A an individual may be recertified to the former level of certification after the termination of employment and upon employment with a new employer without additional training provided the individual:

 a) Holds a valid ASNT Level III certificate

 b) Is being recertified within Six Months of termination

 c) Has been certified as at least a level II or III by the previous employer

 d) Has been certified as a Level III by their previous employer

33.

When the ASNT Level III certificate has expired and a CP-189 certificate had been issued based on this, the employer-based certificate:

 a) Expires

 b) Is suspended

 c) Is revoked

 d) Is maintained

34.

Per SNT-TC-1A, time of flight diffraction and phased array certification requires:

 a) 160 hours of additional training in each technique

 b) Completion of Level I and II ultrasonic testing training as per-requisites

 c) 1200 hours of experience in the applicable technique

 d) 2000 hours of total NDT experience

35.

According to ASNT-TC-1A, NDT personnel may be re-examined and have their certificates or revoked at what interval:

 a) At the discretion of the employer

 b) Annually at the anniversary of the issuance of their certification

 c) Upon the anniversary of their employment

 d) Every three years

36.

A certified RT Level I worked 20% of each month performing RT and the remaining 80% in other NDT methods per SNT-TC-1A, what experience is required to achieve RT Level II Certification:

 a) The minimum hours for RT Level II

 b) The total Hours in NDT

 c) Both the minimum hours for RT Level II and the total hours in NDT

 d) The sum of the minimum hours for RT Level II and total hours in NDT

37.

In accordance with CP-189, an individual’s certification in a method shall be suspended by the employer if the individual has not performed the duties in that method during a consecutive twelve (12) month period. In SNT-TC-1A, the suspension is:

 a) Defined the same as in cp-189

 b) Defined as not having performed the duties during a period of more than six (6) consecutive months

 c) Defined the same as the revocation is defined in CP-189

 d) To be addressed in the employer’s written practice

38.

In evaluating qualifications in accordance with SNT-TC-1A, you find that an individual has limited familiarity with the method in which certification is sought. What action should you take?

 a) Issue a limited certification

 b) Require additional training

 c) Require additional experience

 d) Follow employer’s written practice

39.

In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, a college graduate with a 4-year degree in business administration would need how many months of NDT Level II experience to become an NDT Level III?

 a) Same as a four years engineering graduate

 b) Same as a high school graduate

 c) Same as two years of college study in science

 d) Same as 4 years BS degree in biology

40.

The topical outline found in CP-105

 a) Are specifically written for Level I/II combined courses

 b) Are progressive with Level II building on Level I

 c) Are stand alone and may not be added to

 d) Must be followed exactly

41.

CP-189 contains the definition of an NDT instructor according to ASNT-TC-1A the NDT instructor is:

 a) Defined but does not have to be qualified and designated as in CP-189

 b) Defined but must be qualified and designated as in CP-189

 c) Not defined

 d) Not defined and cannot be used in the employer’s written practice

42.

An outside agency Level III has developed an employer’s written practice and written examination. the company’s quality assurance manager administered one of these exams to a Level II candidate. The company’s NDT foreman graded the exam using the answer key prepared by a Level III consultant. According to SNT-TC-1A, which person cannot certify the technician?

 a) Outside agency Level III

 b) QA Manager

 c) Company president

 d) NDT Foreman

43.

In accordance with the recommendation of SNT-TC-1A, it is desirable that the NDT Level III have general familiarity with:

 a) Other appropriate NDT methods

 b) All methods listed in SNT-TC-1A

 c) Fracture mechanics

 d) NDT Method required in ISO 9712

44.

In accordance with CP-189, a candidate must be able to read with corrected or natural vision in at least one eye the:

 a) Jaeger #1 at not less than 12”

 b) Jaeger #2 at not less than 12”

 c) Jaeger #1 at 10”-15”

 d) Jaeger #3 at 12”-24”

45.

In order to assure that personnel being trained for a specific method are understanding the information presented, the best way an instructor could verify this is:

 a) Give a final exam at the end of the last training session

 b) The training program should include sufficient examination to ensure understanding

 c) Assume the candidates are understanding as no one ask a question

 d) Make the written exam an open book exam

46.

In accordance with CP-189, when a candidate for Level I or Level II candidate is working in two methods of NDT, what minimum experience requirements must be met:

 a) The candidate must meet the required minimum hours in each specified method

 b) The candidate must meet the required total hour in NDT for each method

 c) The candidate must meet either the required minimum hours in each method or the total hour in NDT for both method

 d) The candidate must meet the required minimum hours in each method and the total hours in NDT

47.

SNT-TC-1A recommends that the NDT Level III candidate should meet which of the following minimum requirements:

 a) Graduated from a four-year engineering or science curriculum from a college or university plus one-year experience in NDT comparable to that of an NDT Level II

 b) Two years experience in NDT comparable to that of an NDT Level II if a high school graduate

 c) Six years’ experience NDT if the candidate did not graduate from school

 d) Graduated from Two years vocational or junior college with the required training hours listed for both NDT Level I and NDT experience comparable to that of an NDT Level II

48.

CP-189 requires that the NDT instructor

 a) Have 4 or more years of experience as an NDT Level II

 b) Have 10 more years of experience as Level II

 c) Have academic credentials at least equivalent to a B.S in Engineering or SNT-TC-1A Level III Certification

 d) Be designated by an NDT Level III Individual

49.

Methods
Iridium 192 emits 600 mR/hr. per curie at 1 Meter, what is the radiation intensity at 100 Meter from a 10 Curie source of Iridium 192?

 a) 0.06 MR/Hr

 b) 0.6 MR/Hr

 c) 6 MR/Hr

 d) 60 MR/Hr

50.

Which of the following is a normal film loading sequence for double loading a film cassette for radiography using Iridium 192?

 a) Film, screen, film, screen

 b) Screen, film, screen, film

 c) Screen, film, film, screen

 d) Film, screen, screen, film

51.

Using X-rays, 1.0” aluminum is most likely radio graphically equivalent to approximately what thickness of steel:

 a) 5.5 “

 b) 3.1 “

 c) 1.1 “

 d) 0.2 “

52.

If the radiation intensity 25 feet from Iridium 192 radiation source is 200 mR/hr, what intensity would it be at 150 feet from the source of radiation?

 a) 2 mR/hr

 b) 5.55 mR/hr

 c) 25 mR/hr

 d) 33.33 mR/hr

53.

A radiographic technician inspecting parts using gamma radiation below 12 MeV should take the following precautions after the parts are radiographed:

 a) Place parts in lead-lined storage room unit the emitted radiation reaches an acceptable level

 b) Use a Geiger-Mueller survey instrument to assure safe handling

 c) Wait 10 mins before handing

 d) None of the above steps are necessary

54.

A common precaution used for avoiding static marks on radiographic film is to:

 a) Place lead screens on both sides of the film

 b) Wear white gloves when handling the film

 c) Avoid white light in the dark room

 d) Slide film out of the box slowly

55.

A portable device that supplies a high intensity of the longitudinally directed magnetic flux between poles is the:

 a) AC. Prod and cable unit

 b) Horizontal bench AC unit for headshots

 c) Half wave unit with clamps for central conductor

 d) Hand–held yoke

56.

Which MT Technique would provide the best sensitivity for detection of discontinuities laying below the surface:

 a) Half-Wave direct current with dry particles

 b) Alternating current with dry particles

 c) Direct current with surge and dry particles

 d) Direct current with dry particles

57.

The current required for circular magnetization of a carbon steel pipe is proportional to the:

 a) Wall thickness

 b) Pipe diameter

 c) Mass per meter

 d) Tube grade

58.

The best choice for detecting shrinkage cracks in a radius of magnesium casting with a rough surface would be

 a) Solvent removable visible dye PT

 b) Post emulsifiable fluorescent PT

 c) Water washable fluorescent PT

 d) Solvent removable fluorescent PT

59.

As the viscosity of a liquid penetrant increase, capillary action:

 a) Slow

 b) Speed up

 c) Remains constant

 d) Disappears

60.

What is the proper environment for interpreting the result of the fluorescent penetrant test?

 a) White light in a darkened area

 b) Blacklight in a normally lighted area

 c) Ultraviolet light in an adequately darkened area

 d) High-intensity ultraviolet light is a normally a lighted area

61.

Which penetrant testing technique allows the use of a pre-rinse operation to remove excess penetrant:

 a) Water washable

 b) Post emulsifiable using lipophilic materials

 c) Solvent removable

 d) Post emulsifiable using hydrophilic

62.

Which of the following contains a U-shaped frame supporting a hardened steel anvil?

 a) Dial indicator

 b) Surface roughness comparator

 c) Micrometer

 d) Vernier caliper

63.

Which of the following contains a U-shaped frame supporting a hardened steel anvil?

 a) Dial indicator

 b) Surface roughness comparator

 c) Micrometer

 d) Vernier calipe

64.

A fiber optic borescope relies on which of the following physical to work:

 a) Light travels from one fiber through to an adjacent fiber

 b) Light is reflected at clad interfaces and stays within one fiber

 c) Images are inverted at each 90-degree bend in the fiber

 d) A virtual image is formed between the ocular end and the retina

65.

What inspection instrument should be used to measure a dimensional rather than an absolute dimension?

 a) Dial indicator

 b) Surface roughness comparator

 c) Micrometer

 d) Vernier calipe

66.

The velocity of sound in steel:

 a) Is greater as the frequency increases

 b) Is lower than the velocity of sound in water

 c) Changes if mode conversion occurs

 d) Is dependent on the reflection factor

67.

Which of the following is a limitation of ultrasonic digital thickness gauges?

 a) Cannot be used under field condition

 b) May not detect gradual thickness changes

 c) May give erroneous readings on rough surfaces

 d) Require a high level of skill to operate

68.

The resolution of an ultrasonic system refers to its ability to:

 a) Separate the front surface reflection and the reflection from a discontinuity just beneath the front surface

 b) Differentiate between grain noise and electrical noise on the ultrasonic instrument baseline

 c) Detect a small discontinuity of less than one-half wavelength

 d) Compare the reflection from a small discontinuity with an artificial discontinuity in a reference standard

69.

A helium mass spectrometer leak detector is used:

 a) Exclusively for leak location test techniques

 b) Only for leak testing in the vacuum mode

 c) For both leak location and leakage measurement techniques

 d) Only in conjunction with a residual gas analyzer

70.

Success in electromagnetic testing depends on the proper use of:

 a) The newest available equipment

 b) Level III examiners to perform the test

 c) Reference standards

 d) Most recent editions of codes and standards

71.

Heat energy may be transferred from one point to another by convection or radiation.
What drives the energy transfer in all cases?

 a) Pressure difference

 b) Emission force

 c) Energy wave length delta

 d) Temperature difference

72.

Acoustic emission testing makes use of the Kaiser effect. This phenomenon is best explained as:

 a) Felicity integration during the final loading in an acoustic emission test

 b) A proportional increase in acoustic emission as load increases to yield

 c) Absence of acoustic emission until previously encountered load levels are exceeded

 d) Random noise generated due to high mechanical background noise

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