Top 85 Latest ASME Section V Questions and Answers

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At UpWeld, we provide carefully prepared and updated ASME Section V practice questions and answers to help candidates improve their understanding of nondestructive examination concepts. Our question bank is designed to support your exam preparation by covering important topics related to radiographic testing, ultrasonic testing, magnetic particle testing, liquid penetrant testing, IQI requirements, film density, calibration, and examination procedures.

The UpWeld ASME Section V Practice Test and Exam Question Package includes exam-oriented questions with corrected answers and short explanations. These questions are prepared to help you understand the concepts clearly and practice in a structured way before your certification exam.

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Note: Some questions in this section are true/false or essay-type questions, instead of multiple-choice. Historically, it has been shown that test questions involve a good deal of theory that cannot adequately be explored through multiple choice questions (although multiple choice questions only will be on the test).

Top 85 Latest ASME Section V Questions and Answers

Nondestructive Examination

1. A film-side penetrameter can be used for:

A. Inaccessible welds where source-side IQI placement is not possible
B. All welds
C. All castings at any time
D. As a normal replacement for the source-side wire penetrometer

Correct Answer: A. Inaccessible welds where source-side IQI placement is not possible

Short Explanation:
The IQI is normally placed on the source side. Film-side placement is allowed only when source-side placement is not practical, and it must be identified with the lead letter F.

2. A dark image of the “B” on a lighter background is:

A. Acceptable
B. Rejectable
C. Always cause for retesting
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A. Acceptable

Short Explanation:
A dark B on a lighter background does not indicate excessive backscatter. A light B on a darker background is a rejectable condition.

3. One of the procedural requirements for conducting liquid penetrant testing is to address processing details for:

A. Post-examination cleaning
B. Pre-examination cleaning
C. Applying the penetrant
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

Short Explanation:
The PT procedure must cover cleaning, penetrant application, removal, developer application, interpretation, and post-cleaning.

4. A non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.

A. True
B. False
C. Only for fluorescent penetrant
D. Only for water-washable penetrant

Correct Answer: B. False

Short Explanation:
The non-aqueous developer should be applied to a dry surface. Applying it to a wet surface can reduce sensitivity.

5. The accuracy of magnetizing equipment equipped with an ammeter shall be verified:

A. Each year
B. Every two years
C. Only when possible
D. Every month

Correct Answer: A. Each year

Short Explanation:
Ammeter accuracy for magnetizing equipment is normally verified at least annually.

6. When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at least ______ minutes before examination.

A. 7 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 1 minute

Correct Answer: C. 5 minutes

Short Explanation:
Dark adaptation is required so the examiner’s eyes can properly detect fluorescent indications.

7. A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.

A. True
B. False
C. Only for double-wall exposure
D. Only for panoramic exposure

Correct Answer: B. False

Short Explanation:
Wire IQI placement and orientation must follow the required radiographic technique. The statement is not universally correct.

8. Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on:

A. Carbon steels
B. Ferritic stainless steels
C. Austenitic stainless steels
D. Cast iron

Correct Answer: C. Austenitic stainless steels

Short Explanation:
PT materials used on sensitive alloys such as austenitic stainless steels require contaminant certification.

9. Black light intensity shall be measured with a ______ when conducting fluorescent PT.

A. Dark room meter
B. Photometer
C. Black light meter
D. Thermometer

Correct Answer: C. Black light meter

Short Explanation:
A black light meter is used to verify UV light intensity for fluorescent penetrant testing.

10. The location markers required by ASME Section V are required to appear as radiographic images.

A. True
B. False
C. Only for pipe welds
D. Only for castings

Correct Answer: A. True

Short Explanation:
Location markers must appear on the radiographic image to identify the examined area.

11. DC yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities as per ASME Section V.

A. True
B. False
C. Only for non-ferrous materials
D. Only for liquid penetrant testing

Correct Answer: A. True

Short Explanation:
DC yokes can detect surface and near-surface discontinuities. AC yokes are mainly used for surface discontinuities.

12. How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME Section V?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 1

Correct Answer: B. 6

Short Explanation:
There are six combinations: visible and fluorescent penetrants, each used with water-washable, post-emulsifiable, or solvent-removable techniques.

13. Before PT examination, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least _____ of the area to be examined.

A. 1 inch
B. 1.5 inches
C. 2 inches
D. 3 inches

Correct Answer: A. 1 inch

Short Explanation:
The area to be examined and at least 1 inch of adjacent surface should be cleaned.

14. Water-washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60 psi and 100°F.

A. True
B. False
C. Only for fluorescent penetrant
D. Only for post-emulsifiable penetrant

Correct Answer: B. False

Short Explanation:
The pressure limit is normally 50 psi, not 60 psi. Excessive pressure can remove penetrant from discontinuities.

15. The maximum emulsification time shall be:

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A. 5 minutes

Short Explanation:
The maximum emulsification time is controlled by the procedure, but 5 minutes is the commonly expected exam answer.

16. Densitometers shall be calibrated or verified with a calibrated:

A. Densitometer
B. Step wedge comparison strip
C. Light meter
D. Transmission monitor

Correct Answer: B. Step wedge comparison strip

Short Explanation:
A calibrated step wedge comparison film/strip is used to verify densitometer accuracy.

17. When using a hydrophilic emulsifier instead of a lipophilic emulsifier, what intermediate step is required?

A. Pre-flooding with emulsifier
B. Pre-cleaning with solvent
C. Pre-rinsing with water
D. Pre-washing with detergent

Correct Answer: C. Pre-rinsing with water

Short Explanation:
Hydrophilic emulsifier requires a water pre-rinse before emulsifier application.

18. A welded part is 1 inch thick with 1/8 inch reinforcement. What ASTM wire set IQI should be used for the source-side technique?

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Set C
D. Set D

Correct Answer: B. Set B

Short Explanation:
For this thickness range, ASTM wire IQI Set B is normally selected.

19. When a PT test cannot be conducted between 50°F and 125°F, what must be done?

A. The procedure must be qualified
B. The surface must only be re-cleaned
C. The test cannot be conducted at all
D. The developer must be changed

Correct Answer: A. The procedure must be qualified

Short Explanation:
PT outside the normal temperature range requires procedure qualification using a suitable comparator block.

20. All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with:

A. ASME Section VIII only
B. ASME Section V only
C. The referencing Code section
D. The written procedure only

Correct Answer: C. The referencing Code section

Short Explanation:
ASME Section V explains how to perform NDE. Acceptance criteria normally come from the referencing Code.

21. The scope of ASME Section V includes:

A. NDE acceptance criteria
B. How to perform NDE to achieve the desired result
C. Where to perform NDE
D. Who can be the Authorized Inspector

Correct Answer: B. How to perform NDE to achieve the desired result

Short Explanation:
ASME Section V provides examination methods and technique requirements, not general acceptance criteria.

22. UT equipment is calibrated:

A. Before heat treatment
B. After completing the examination only
C. Prior to visual examination
D. Prior to UT examination

Correct Answer: D. Prior to UT examination

Short Explanation:
Ultrasonic testing equipment must be calibrated before the examination.

23. A penetrometer is used on a DWE/DWV technique. The penetrameter selection is based on:

A. Single wall thickness and weld reinforcement
B. Both wall thicknesses
C. Single wall thickness for Schedule 80 pipe only
D. Outside diameter only

Correct Answer: A. Single wall thickness and weld reinforcement

Short Explanation:
For DWE/DWV radiography, IQI selection is based on the single-wall thickness plus reinforcement where applicable.

24. Suitable means for applying penetrant include:

A. Dipping
B. Brushing
C. Spraying
D. Any or all of the above

Correct Answer: D. Any or all of the above

Short Explanation:
Penetrant may be applied by dipping, brushing, spraying, or other suitable means.

25. What materials require tested and certified liquid penetrants for contaminants?

A. Nickel alloys
B. Austenitic stainless steel alloys
C. Ferritic/martensitic stainless steel only
D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: D. Both A and B

Short Explanation:
Nickel alloys and austenitic stainless steels require certified penetrant materials due to contaminant concerns.

26. Acceptance standards for RT indications shall be evaluated according to:

A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section VIII only
C. ASME B31.3 only
D. The referencing Code section

Correct Answer: D. The referencing Code section

Short Explanation:
ASME Section V provides RT technique requirements; acceptance criteria are given by the referencing construction Code.

27. Nondestructive examination personnel shall be qualified according to:

A. SNT-TC-1A only
B. CP-189 only
C. Referencing Code requirements
D. ACCP rules only

Correct Answer: C. Referencing Code requirements

Short Explanation:
Personnel qualification must comply with the referencing Code and the employer’s written practice.

28. Which NDE methods are considered surface methods?

A. PT
B. RT
C. MT
D. Both A and C

Correct Answer: D. Both A and C

Short Explanation:
Liquid penetrant testing and magnetic particle testing are surface or near-surface methods.

29. What designation indicates the penetrameter is on the film side?

A. F
B. E
C. D
D. FS

Correct Answer: A. F

Short Explanation:
The letter F is placed next to the IQI when it is located on the film side.

30. What is a shim used for in MT?

A. UT field adequacy
B. RT field direction
C. MT field strength and direction
D. MT current calculation only

Correct Answer: C. MT field strength and direction

Short Explanation:
A magnetic field indicator or shim helps verify field direction and adequacy in magnetic particle testing.

31. Why must the surface be closely observed during PT developer application?

A. To ensure coating thickness
B. To ensure excess penetrant removal only
C. To allow proper characterization of discontinuities
D. To check surface temperature only

Correct Answer: C. To allow proper characterization of discontinuities

Short Explanation:
Observation during development helps identify the formation and nature of indications.

32. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by magnetic particle testing.

A. Lack of penetration deep inside the weld
B. Inter-pass lack of fusion deep inside the weld
C. Slag inclusion deep inside the weld
D. Toe crack

Correct Answer: D. Toe crack

Short Explanation:
MT is highly effective for surface and near-surface cracks in ferromagnetic materials.

33. For a DWE/SWV RT technique, minimum exposures shall be:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: C. 3

Short Explanation:
For double-wall exposure/single-wall viewing, multiple exposures are required for complete coverage.

34. When are location markers placed on the film side in SWV for curved surfaces?

A. When the concave side is toward the source
B. When the source-to-material distance is greater than the inside radius
C. When a cobalt source is used
D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: D. Both A and B

Short Explanation:
Specific curved surface conditions allow film-side location marker placement.

35. What is the difference between inspection and examination under the ASME Code?

A. Inspection is performed by an Authorized Inspector
B. Examination is performed by the manufacturer’s personnel
C. There is no difference
D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: D. Both A and B

Short Explanation:
Examination is performed by the manufacturer/contractor. Inspection is performed by the Authorized Inspector.

36. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by liquid penetrant testing.

A. Internal lack of penetration
B. Internal lack of fusion
C. HAZ surface crack
D. Internal slag inclusion

Correct Answer: C. HAZ surface crack

Short Explanation:
PT detects discontinuities that are open to the surface.

37. What must be done to the excess penetrant after the penetration time has elapsed?

A. It must be removed
B. It can remain on the part
C. It must be developed directly
D. It must be removed only with a solvent

Correct Answer: A. It must be removed

Short Explanation:
Excess surface penetrant must be removed before developer application.

38. What must be done to ensure 100% coverage in any NDE method?

A. Use only one examination direction
B. Overlap examination areas
C. Reduce examination speed
D. Use only radiography

Correct Answer: B. Overlap examination areas

Short Explanation:
Examination areas must overlap to ensure no area is missed.

39. When surface irregularities may mask unacceptable indications, what is required?

A. Accept the surface as it is
B. Increase lighting only
C. Grinding, machining, or other suitable surface preparation
D. Use only visual testing

Correct Answer: C. Grinding, machining, or other suitable surface preparation

Short Explanation:
Surface irregularities must be corrected if they interfere with indication detection or interpretation.

40. Magnetic particle examination is effective in detecting:

A. Only internal volumetric flaws
B. Surface and slightly subsurface discontinuities
C. Only porosity in non-metallic materials
D. Only lamination in plastic materials

Correct Answer: B. Surface and slightly subsurface discontinuities

Short Explanation:
MT detects surface and near-surface discontinuities in ferromagnetic materials.

41. What are the six penetrant techniques?

A. Visible and fluorescent with water-washable, post-emulsifiable, and solvent-removable methods
B. Only water-washable and solvent-removable methods
C. Only fluorescent techniques
D. Only visible dye techniques

Correct Answer: A. Visible and fluorescent with water-washable, post-emulsifiable, and solvent-removable methods

Short Explanation:
Six techniques are formed by combining two penetrant types with three removal methods.

42. What are the approved methods of indicating UT thickness measurements?

A. CRT only
B. Digital display only
C. Meter only
D. CRT, digital display, or meter

Correct Answer: D. CRT, digital display, or meter

Short Explanation:
UT thickness readings may be shown on CRT, digital display, or meter-type instruments.

43. How is the quality of a radiograph evaluated?

A. By film brand only
B. By IQI visibility and density compliance
C. By exposure time only
D. By weld size only

Correct Answer: B. By IQI visibility and density compliance

Short Explanation:
Radiographic quality is judged by the required IQI visibility and acceptable density.

44. Where are RT location markers placed?

A. On the cassette only
B. On the film only
C. On the part being examined
D. On the viewer

Correct Answer: C. On the part being examined

Short Explanation:
Location markers should be placed on the part so they appear as images on the radiograph.

45. IQIs may be of what two types?

A. Hole type and wire type
B. Film type and screen type
C. Lead type and plastic type
D. Density type and exposure type

Correct Answer: A. Hole type and wire type

Short Explanation:
ASME Section V recognizes hole-type and wire-type IQIs.

46. What is the essential hole in a hole-type IQI?

A. 1T
B. 2T
C. 3T
D. 4T

Correct Answer: B. 2T

Short Explanation:
The 2T hole is normally the essential hole that must be visible.

47. What identity must be included in UT calibration records?

A. Equipment only
B. Probe only
C. Calibration block only
D. Equipment, probe, and calibration block identity

Correct Answer: D. Equipment, probe, and calibration block identity

Short Explanation:
Calibration records must identify the equipment and reference blocks used.

48. The IQI is normally placed on which side of a part?

A. Film side
B. Source side
C. Either side without marking
D. On the cassette

Correct Answer: B. Source side

Short Explanation:
The IQI is normally placed on the source side. Film-side placement requires special identification.

49. A 4T hole on a 20 IQI has a diameter of:

A. 0.020 inch
B. 0.040 inch
C. 0.060 inch
D. 0.080 inch

Correct Answer: D. 0.080 inch

Short Explanation:
A 20 IQI is 0.020 inch thick. 4T = 4 × 0.020 = 0.080 inch.

50. Which of the following film blemishes is not permitted?

A. Fogging
B. Processing defects
C. Scratches and finger marks
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

Short Explanation:
Film artifacts that interfere with interpretation are not acceptable.

51. When is a written radiographic procedure required by ASME Section V?

A. Never
B. Only for ultrasonic testing
C. When required by Article 2/referencing Code requirements
D. Only for castings

Correct Answer: C. When required by Article 2/referencing Code requirements

Short Explanation:
RT is performed according to a written procedure when required by the applicable Code and Article 2 requirements.

52. When should the developer be applied in PT?

A. Before penetrant application
B. As soon as possible after penetrant removal and drying
C. Before cleaning
D. Only after final inspection

Correct Answer: B. As soon as possible after penetrant removal and drying

Short Explanation:
The developer should be applied promptly after excess penetrant removal and drying.

53. MT is most sensitive to what type of discontinuity?

A. Internal rounded porosity
B. Surface discontinuities perpendicular to the magnetic field
C. Discontinuities parallel to the magnetic field only
D. Non-metallic inclusions only

Correct Answer: B. Surface discontinuities perpendicular to the magnetic field

Short Explanation:
MT is most sensitive when the discontinuity interrupts the magnetic field.

54. What are the examination medium and probing medium in MT?

A. Water and sound waves
B. Film and radiation
C. Ferromagnetic particles and magnetic field
D. Dye and developer

Correct Answer: C. Ferromagnetic particles and magnetic field

Short Explanation:
MT uses magnetic fields and ferromagnetic particles to reveal leakage fields.

55. When must ultrasonic equipment be calibrated?

A. At the beginning and end of the examination
B. When personnel are changed
C. When a malfunction is suspected
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

Short Explanation:
UT calibration must be verified at required intervals and whenever validity is in doubt.

56. How many IQIs should appear on each radiograph, except for panoramic techniques?

A. None
B. At least one
C. At least five
D. Only one per job

Correct Answer: B. At least one

Short Explanation:
Normally, at least one IQI must appear on each radiograph.

57. Are intensifying screens permitted for radiography under ASME Section V?

A. Yes, unless restricted by the referencing Code
B. No, never
C. Only for PT
D. Only for UT

Correct Answer: A. Yes, unless restricted by the referencing Code

Short Explanation:
Intensifying screens may be used unless prohibited by the referencing Code.

58. What two radiographic techniques are noted for examinations?

A. Wet and dry
B. Single-wall and double-wall
C. Visible and fluorescent
D. AC and DC

Correct Answer: B. Single-wall and double-wall

Short Explanation:
Radiographic techniques are generally classified as single-wall or double-wall techniques.

59. How can compliance with a written RT procedure be demonstrated?

A. By operator experience only
B. By acceptable density and IQI image on radiographs
C. By using any film brand
D. By using maximum exposure time

Correct Answer: B. By acceptable density and IQI image on radiographs

Short Explanation:
Compliance is shown by meeting radiographic quality requirements.

60. Liquid penetrant examination is effective in detecting:

A. Internal slag inclusions only
B. Discontinuities open to the surface
C. Deep internal cracks only
D. Subsurface porosity only

Correct Answer: B. Discontinuities open to the surface

Short Explanation:
PT can only detect flaws that are open to the surface.

61. What must be done when PT is applied outside 50°F to 125°F?

A. Reject the part automatically
B. Qualify the procedure using a suitable comparator block
C. Increase developer time only
D. Use radiography instead

Correct Answer: B. Qualify the procedure using a suitable comparator block

Short Explanation:
PT outside the normal temperature range requires procedure qualification.

62. The lifting power of yokes must be checked:

A. Only after every weld
B. Before use within the required interval and after damage or repair
C. Only once in the lifetime of the yoke
D. Only for DC yokes

Correct Answer: B. Before use within the required interval and after damage or repair

Short Explanation:
Yoke lifting power must be verified to ensure adequate magnetizing strength.

63. How should welded butt joints be prepared for radiography?

A. Surface irregularities should remain untouched
B. Weld ripples, or irregularities, should be removed if they interfere with interpretation
C. Only paint should be applied
D. Only the outside surface is checked

Correct Answer: B. Weld ripples, or irregularities, should be removed if they interfere with interpretation

Short Explanation:
Surface condition must not mask or confuse radiographic indications.

64. In the MT examination of a welded joint using yokes, which yoke current type may be allowed?

A. AC only
B. DC only
C. AC or DC, as permitted by procedure/code
D. Neither AC nor DC

Correct Answer: C. AC or DC, as permitted by procedure/code

Short Explanation:
AC is mainly surface-sensitive. DC can detect surface and near-surface discontinuities.

65. A device used to determine the image quality of a radiograph is:

A. Step wedge comparison film
B. Densitometer
C. IQI
D. Thermometer

Correct Answer: C. IQI

Short Explanation:
An IQI, or Image Quality Indicator, is used to judge radiographic image quality.

66. In accordance with Section V, wire-type penetrameters:

A. Can always be used without restriction
B. Can be used unless restricted by the referencing Code
C. Can never be used
D. Can be used only with Type 1 film

Correct Answer: B. Can be used unless restricted by the referencing Code

Short Explanation:
Wire IQIs are permitted unless the referencing Code does not allow them.

67. What is meant by nondestructive examination of a welded joint?

A. Testing that destroys the weld
B. Examination that reveals discontinuities without damaging the weld
C. Only visual inspection
D. Only pressure testing

Correct Answer: B. Examination that reveals discontinuities without damaging the weld

Short Explanation:
NDE detects surface or internal discontinuities without physically damaging the welded joint.

68. Which four methods are common NDE methods?

A. RT, UT, MT, PT
B. Painting, grinding, welding, cutting
C. Heating, bending, forming, drilling
D. Hardness, tensile, bend, impact only

Correct Answer: A. RT, UT, MT, PT

Short Explanation:
Radiographic, ultrasonic, magnetic particle, and liquid penetrant testing are common NDE methods.

69. Film sensitivity or quality in radiography is judged by:

A. IQI
B. Welding rod type
C. Surface temperature
D. Film color only

Correct Answer: A. IQI

Short Explanation:
IQI visibility demonstrates the required radiographic sensitivity/image quality.

70. Film density is measured or judged by:

A. Thermometer
B. Densitometer or step wedge comparison film
C. Magnetic yoke
D. Penetrant remover

Correct Answer: B. Densitometer or step wedge comparison film

Short Explanation:
Film density is measured using a densitometer or judged using a step wedge comparison film.

71. What is radiography?

A. A method using magnetic particles
B. A method using liquid dye only
C. A shadow image produced by X-rays or gamma rays passing through an object
D. A method using only sound waves

Correct Answer: C. A shadow image produced by X-rays or gamma rays passing through an object

Short Explanation:
Radiography uses radiation to create an image showing material thickness changes or discontinuities.

72. Minimum and maximum density for radiographs made with an X-ray source are:

A. 1.0 to 2.0
B. 1.8 to 4.0
C. 2.0 to 5.0
D. 3.0 to 6.0

Correct Answer: B. 1.8 to 4.0

Short Explanation:
For X-ray single-film viewing, the usual acceptable density range is 1.8 to 4.0.

73. Minimum and maximum density for radiographs made with Cobalt-60 are:

A. 1.0 to 2.0
B. 1.8 to 4.0
C. 2.0 to 4.0
D. 3.0 to 5.0

Correct Answer: C. 2.0 to 4.0

Short Explanation:
For gamma sources such as Co-60, the usual acceptable density range is 2.0 to 4.0.

74. A single-film technique uses a Cobalt-60 source. The minimum permitted density is:

A. 4.0
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 1.3

Correct Answer: C. 2.0

Short Explanation:
For Co-60 or gamma radiography, the minimum density for single-film viewing is normally 2.0.

75. If the density through the IQI is 2.7, what density range is acceptable for single-film viewing?

A. 1.80 to 4.00
B. 2.295 to 3.510
C. 2.000 to 4.000
D. 1.300 to 2.700

Correct Answer: B. 2.295 to 3.510

Short Explanation:
Allowed variation is −15% and +30% from IQI density.
2.7 − 15% = 2.295; 2.7 + 30% = 3.510.

76. A complete girth seam contains 30 radiographs shot with a single exposure. Minimum IQIs required are:

A. 1 IQI
B. 2 IQIs
C. 3 IQIs spaced approximately 120° apart
D. 30 IQIs

Correct Answer: C. 3 IQIs spaced approximately 120° apart

Short Explanation:
For complete circumferential coverage in a single exposure, multiple IQIs are placed around the seam.

77. Twelve radiographs on a longitudinal seam are shot from the outside with a single exposure. Minimum IQIs required are:

A. 1 IQI total
B. 3 IQIs total
C. 6 IQIs total
D. 12 IQIs, one on each radiograph

Correct Answer: D. 12 IQIs, one on each radiograph

Short Explanation:
Normally, each separate radiograph requires at least one IQI.

78. An X-ray source is used with two films in each holder. If the films are viewed separately, the minimum permitted density is:

A. 4.0
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 1.3

Correct Answer: B. 1.8

Short Explanation:
For X-ray radiography, each separately viewed film must meet the minimum density requirement of 1.8.

79. A weld with a nominal thickness of 1.5 inches is radiographed using a film-side penetrameter. The penetrameter designation should be:

A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40

Correct Answer: A. 25

Short Explanation:
For the given thickness and film-side placement, the expected IQI designation is 25.

80. Hole-type penetrameters are used for:

A. Checking magnetic field direction
B. Evaluating radiographic image quality using holes
C. Measuring surface temperature
D. Cleaning the weld surface

Correct Answer: B. Evaluating radiographic image quality using holes

Short Explanation:
Hole-type IQIs contain holes such as 1T, 2T, and 4T. Visibility of the required hole confirms image quality.

81. Wire-type penetrameters are used for:

A. Measuring weld reinforcement
B. Evaluating radiographic quality using visible wires
C. Checking black light intensity
D. Measuring magnetic current

Correct Answer: B. Evaluating radiographic quality using visible wires

Short Explanation:
Wire IQIs use wires of known diameter. The required wire must be visible on the radiograph.

82. In radiographing a 1-inch butt weld, the penetrameter is normally placed on:

A. Film side
B. Source side
C. Cassette side only
D. Viewer side

Correct Answer: B. Source side

Short Explanation:
IQIs are normally placed on the source side. If placed on the film side due to inaccessibility, the lead letter F is required.

83. What type of flaws may be detected by liquid penetrant testing?

A. Surface discontinuities open to the surface
B. Deep internal slag only
C. Internal porosity only
D. Subsurface lamination only

Correct Answer: A. Surface discontinuities open to the surface

Short Explanation:
PT detects only discontinuities that are open to the surface.

84. What type of flaws may be detected by magnetic particle testing?

A. Surface and near-surface discontinuities
B. Only internal slag
C. Only volumetric porosity
D. Only non-metallic defects

Correct Answer: A. Surface and near-surface discontinuities

Short Explanation:
MT detects surface and slightly subsurface discontinuities in ferromagnetic materials.

85. On a set of cassettes for a seam just radiographed, the lead location markers are taped to the cassettes. Are these radiographs acceptable?

A. Yes, because the markers are close to the film
B. Yes, if the density is correct
C. No, location markers should be placed on the part being examined
D. Yes, if the film is clear

Correct Answer: C. No, location markers should be placed on the part being examined

Short Explanation:
Location markers must appear as radiographic images and should be placed on the part, not merely taped to the cassette.

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