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1.

Neutron penetration is greatest in which of the following materials?

 a. hydrogenous material

 b. water

 c. lead.

 d. boron carbide

2.

In general, by increasing the neutron energy from a neutron radiographic source:

 a. greater neutron penetration is achieved.

 b. greater neutron radiographic contrast can be obtained

 c. radiographic exposure time can be reduced

 d. resolution can be increased

3.

The time required for one-half of the atoms in a particular sample of radioactive material to disintegrate is called:

 a. the inverse square law

 b. a curie

 c. a half-life.

 d. the exposure time

4.

Generally, the attenuation of neutrons by a given material is:

 a. reported to the Atomic Energy Commission

 b. greater for fast neutrons than thermal neutrons.

 c. an indication of the quality of the X-radiographic technique

 d. appreciably greater for thermal and epithermal neutrons than for fast neutrons.

5.

The mass absorption coefficients for thermal neutrons when plotted against regularly increasing atomic numbers of periodic elements present a:

 a. blurred picture

 b. regularly increasing picture

 c. random picture.

 d. dark picture

6.

Many of the absorption differences between neutrons and X-rays indicate clearly that the two techniques:

 a. cause radiation problems

 b. complement each other.

 c. increase exposure speed

 d. fog radiographic film

7.

The neutron cross section is the term normally used to denote:

 a. the danger in handling radioactive material

 b. the absorbing power of material for neutrons.

 c. the atomic number of neutron reactor material

 d. radiation detection equipment

8.

The sharpness of the outline in the image of the radiograph is a measure of:

 a. subject contrast

 b. radiographic definition.

 c. radiographic contrast

 d. film contrast

9.

The highest quality direct neutron radiographs obtainable today use:

 a. imaging screens using lithium-zinc sulfide as the imaging materials

 b. high-speed radiographic films

 c. dysprosium as an imaging screen

 d. gadolinium as an imaging screen.

10.

When doing neutron radiography on radioactive materials, the materials are best handled:

 a. directly by personnel equipped with special protective clothing

 b. by remote handling equipment.

 c. directly by personnel with special protective clothing except when radiographs are being made

 d. by the same methods used for nonradioactive materials

11.

Gadolinium conversion screens are usually mounted in rigid holders called:

 a. film racks

 b. cassettes.

 c. emulsifiers

 d. diaphragms

12.

The best high-intensity source of thermal neutrons is:

 a. a Cf-252 source

 b. an accelerator

 c. a nuclear reactor.

 d. a Cf-252 source plus a multiplier

13.

Scattered radiation caused by any material, such as a wall or floor, on the film side of the specimen, is referred to as:

 a. primary scattering

 b. undercut

 c. reflected scattering

 d. back-scattered radiation.

14.

What has the highest thermal neutron absorption cross section?

 a. gold

 b. Indium

 c. gadolinium.

 d. dysprosium

15.

Conversion screens are used in neutron radiography:

 a. to convert neutron energy into ionizing radiation.

 b. to increase the exposure time

 c. both a and b are reasons for using conversion screens

 d. neither a nor b is a reason for using conversion screens

16.

A curie is an equivalent of:

 a. 0.001 mCi

 b. 1 000 mCi.

 c. 1 000 MCi

 d. 100 MCi

17.

Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced during the disintegration of nuclei of radioactive substances is called:

 a. X-radiation

 b. gamma radiation.

 c. scatter radiation

 d. back-scattered radiation

18.

A photographic record produced by the passage of neutrons through a specimen onto a film is called:

 a. a fluoroscopic image

 b. a radiograph.

 c. an isotopic reproduction

 d. none of the above

19.

Possible reactions that can occur when a fast neutron strikes a nucleus are:

 a. scattering and radiative capture.

 b. micro-shrinkage and static charges caused by friction

 c. sudden temperature change and film contrast

 d. uniform thickness and filtered radiation

20.

For inspection of radioactive objects or those that emit gamma radiation when bombarded with neutrons, a preferable detection method is the:

 a. direct exposure method

 b. transfer method.

 c. isotopic reproduction method

 d. electrostatic-belt generator method

21.

Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron beams:

 a. must not be handled for at least 3 minutes after exposure has ceased

 b. must be stored in a lead-lined room

 c. may be radioactive after exposure to neutrons has ceased.

 d. should be monitored by means of a neutron counter

22.

Hydrogenous material has a :

 a. high macroscopic scattering cross-section.

 b. high absorption cross section

 c. high microscopic absorption cross section

 d. low microscopic scattering cross-section

23.

The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam is governed by:

 a. attenuation characteristics of the material being penetrated.

 b. time

 c. source-to-film distance

 d. all of the above

24.

A graph showing the relationship between film optical density and exposure is called:

 a. a bar chart

 b. a characteristic curve.

 c. an exposure chart

 d. a logarithmic chart

25.

The three main steps in processing a radiograph are:

 a. developing, frilling, and fixation

 b. developing, fixation, and washing.

 c. exposure, developing, and fixation

 d. developing, reticulation, and fixation

26.

Radiographic contrast in a neutron radiograph is least affected by:

 a. developer temperature

 b. radiographic exposure time

 c. radiographic beam collimation.

 d. radiographic film fog

27.

Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron radiography by:

 a. placing lead intensifying screen between a gadolinium screen and film

 b. increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation system.

 c. increasing the exposure time

 d. increasing the distance between the object and the film cassette

28.

The main reason for using neutron radiography in place of X-radiography is:

 a. lower cost

 b. higher resolution in all cases

 c. the ability to image objects and materials not possible with X-rays.

 d. simpler radiographic procedure required than X-radiography

29.

The best material for mounting specimens for neutron radiographic inspection is:

 a. cardboard

 b. plastic

 c. steel

 d. aluminum.

30.

Which of the following materials is best for making identification labels when using the neutron radiographic process?

 a. aluminum

 b. brass

 c. cadmium or gadolinium.

 d. lead

31.

As a check on the adequacy of the neutron radiographic technique, it is customary to place a standard test piece on the source side of the cassette. This standard test piece is called:

 a. a reference plate

 b. a lead screen

 c. a penetrameter

 d. an image quality detector.

32.

A densitometer is:

 a. a meter used to measure neutron intensity

 b. an instrument used to measure film density.

 c. a meter used to measure the density of a material

 d. a meter used to measure gamma content

33.

The ability to detect a small discontinuity or flaw is called:

 a. radiographic contrast

 b. radiographic sensitivity.

 c. radiographic density

 d. radiographic resolution

34.

Movement, geometry, and screen contact are three factors that affect radiographic:

 a. contrast

 b. unsharpness.

 c. reticulation

 d. density

35.

The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiographic film is called:

 a. radiographic contrast.

 b. subject contrast

 c. film contrast

 d. definition

36.

The selection of the proper type of film to be used for neutron radiographic examination of a particular part depends on the:

 a. thickness of the part

 b. material of the specimen

 c. neutron energy

 d. none of the above.

37.

When radiographing a part that contains a large crack, the crack will appear on the radiograph as:

 a. a dark, intermittent, or continuous line.

 b. a light irregular line

 c. either a dark or light line

 d. a fogged area on the radiograph

38.

Radiographic sensitivity, in the context of defining the minimum detectable flaw, depends on:

 a. the graininess of the film

 b. the unsharpness of the flawed image in the film

 c. the contrast of the flawed image in the film

 d. all of the above.

39.

An Image Quality Indicator is used to measure the:

 a. size of discontinuities in a part

 b. density of the film

 c. the amount of film contrast

 d. quality of the radiographic technique.

40.

Unwanted inclusions in a part will appear on a radiograph as:

 a. a dark spot

 b. a light spot

 c. a generalized gray area of varying contrast

 d. either a dark or a light spot or area depending on the relative absorption ratio of the part material and the inclusion material.

41.

A sheet of cadmium with an opening cut in the shape of the part to be radiographed may be used to decrease the effect of scattered neutrons, which undercuts the specimens. Such a device is called a:

 a. mask.

 b. filter

 c. back-scatter absorber

 d. lead-foil screen

42.

The accidental movement of the specimen or film during exposure or the use of a source-film that is too small will:

 a. produce a radiograph with poor contrast distance

 b. make it impossible to detect large discontinuities

 c. result in unsharpness of the radiograph.

 d. result in a fogged radiograph

43.

Dysprosium conversion screens emit:

 a. low-energy betas and gammas

 b. high-energy betas, low-energy gammas, and internal conversion.

 c. beta particles only electrons

 d. low-energy gamma rays only

44.

Materials in common usage for moderation of fast neutron sources include:

 a. aluminum, magnesium, and tin

 b. water, plastic, paraffin, and graphite.

 c. neon, argon, and xenon

 d. tungsten, cesium, antimony, and columbium

45.

In the converter screen technique, the neutron image is produced by alpha, beta, or gamma radiation and it is thereby:

 a. used to measure neutron beam divergence

 b. externally cooled during the process

 c. photographically more detectable than the unconverted neutron image.

 d. an important factor for determining Young’s modulus of the material

46.

Converter screen material characterized by lithium, boron, and gadolinium has little tendency to become radioactive but does:

 a. protect the radiographic film from excessive pressure

 b. recharge the focal point size of the neutron source

 c. filter and collimate the excess neutrons

 d. emit radiation immediately upon the absorption of a neutron.

47.

Gadolinium is frequently employed as a neutron absorber because of its:

 a. extremely low cost

 b. high neutron absorption for a given thickness.

 c. an ability to absorb gamma rays

 d. ability to diffract alpha particles

48.

An excellent radiograph is obtained under given exposure conditions with a thermal neutron flux of 2 x 10% n/cm2-s for 10 minutes. If other conditions are not changed, what exposure time would be required if the neutron flux was lowered to 1 x 106 n/cm2-s?

 a. 5 minutes

 b. 10 minutes

 c. 20 minutes.

 d. 30 minutes

49.

Neutron converter screens should be inspected for flaws or dirt:

 a. daily

 b. each time they are used.

 c. occasionally

 d. when flaws are detected on the radiograph

50.

The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source for neutron radiography is its:

 a. portability.

 b. low cost per unit neutron flux compared to other

 c. high-resolution neutron radiographic sources

 d. long useful life without source quality degradation

51.

Neutron beams used in nondestructive testing normally contain:

 a. alpha particles

 b. positrons

 c. gamma rays and neutrons.

 d. X-rays

52.

In neutron radiography, L/D refers to the:

 a. limiting neutron energy divided by the neutron density

 b. largest neutron flux in the system divided by the beam diameter

 c. distance from the neutron source to the object divided by the source diameter.

 d. distance from the neutron source to the picture divided by the beam diameter

53.

A type of neutron beam collimator is a:

 a. mean free path diaphragm

 b. divergent beam collimator.

 c. poly cellular field generator

 d. neutron beam catcher

54.

Commonly used converter screens are:

 a. gadolinium, dysprosium, and indium.

 b. neodymium, plutonium, and technetium

 c. gadolinium, lead, and indium

 d. gold, silver, and cadmium

55.

In order to decrease geometric unsharpness:

 a. neutrons should proceed from as small a source as other considerations will allow.

 b. neutrons should proceed from as large a source as other considerations will allow

 c. the film should be as far as possible from the object being radiographed

 d. the distance from the source to the material examined should be as small as practical

56.

High-resolution gadolinium conversion screens are produced by:

 a. flame spray techniques

 b. being grown in large flat crystals

 c. vacuum vapor deposition.

 d. large brazing systems

57.

In order to increase the neutron beam intensity:

 a. the L/D could be lowered.

 b. the neutron energy must be increased

 c. the test specimen should be moved further from the film

 d. a smaller source size could be used

58.

Neutron exposure may be due to:

 a. the direct beam from the neutron source

 b. scatter radiation arising from objects in the direct beam

 c. both a and b.

 d. neither a nor b

59.

Gadolinium conversion screens emit:

 a. gamma rays and conversion electrons.

 b. beta particles only

 c. alpha particles and positrons

 d. gamma rays only

60.

Which elements are commonly used in the indirect transfer method?

 a. gadolinium and cadmium

 b. rhodium and samarium

 c. dysprosium and indium.

 d. cadmium and dysprosium

61.

Which element is commonly used for direct neutron radiography?

 a. cadmium

 b. indium

 c. dysprosium

 d. gadolinium.

62.

Neutron sensitive scintillators provide:

 a. high-quality radiographs with long exposures

 b. low-quality radiographs with long exposures

 c. low-quality radiographs with short exposures.

 d. none of the above

63.

Lead is:

 a. a good neutron shield

 b. easily activated by neutrons

 c. a poor neutron absorber.

 d. an efficient conversion screen

64.

Neutron energy, exposure time, and film type are three important neutron radiographic parameters that can be controlled. What other parameters can be controlled?

 a. L/D

 b. conversion efficiency

 c. type of conversion screen

 d. both a and c.

65.

The purpose of vacuum cassettes is to:

 a. eliminate scattered radiation

 b. block unwanted gamma radiation

 c. assure intimate film-to-foil contact.

 d. protect parts from the radiation emitted by the conversion screen

66.

In making a californium isotope exposure in an unshielded area, you find the dose rate of 1.9 m (6 ft) from the source is 1 200 mR/h. What would be the dose rate at 7.3 m (24 ft)?

 a. 75 mR/h.

 b. 100 mR/h

 c. 200 mR/h

 d. 300 mR/h

67.

In developing film by hand technique without agitation:

 a. the radiograph will not show proper contrast

 b. it will be impossible to fix the radiograph

 c. there will be a greater fogging of the film

 d. there will be a tendency for each area of the film to affect the development of the area immediately below it.

68.

Film developed by automatic processors:

 a. will have improved detail of the image

 b. will have a general increase in the film density.

 c. takes longer to develop than when processing manually

 d. will create less fog on the film

69.

The emulsion side of a single-coated photographic X-ray-type film used for neutron radiography can be detected in the darkroom using standard safe lights as the:

 a. printed identifying marks on the emulsion side

 b. darker of the two sides

 c. duller and lighter color of the two sides.

 d. printed identifying marks on the non-emulsion side

70.

The purpose of film containers is to:

 a. protect the film from light

 b. protect the film from scratches

 c. neither a nor b

 d. both a and b.

71.

The two most common causes for excessively high density radiographs are:

 a. insufficient washing and overdeveloping

 b. contaminated fixer and insufficient washing

 c. overexposure and contaminated fixer

 d. overexposure and overdevelopment.

72.

Single-emulsion high-resolution X-ray film is very good for neutron radiography because:

 a. it has a very thin emulsion

 b. it is sensitive to low-energy radiation and insensitive to high-energy radiation

 c. it is faster than other films

 d. both a and b.

73.

Which of the following materials is suited for construction of vessels or pails used to mix processing solutions?

 a. stainless steel .

 b. aluminum

 c. galvanized iron

 d. tin

74.

Excessive exposure of film to light prior to development of the film will most likely result in:

 a. a foggy film.

 b. poor definition

 c. streaks

 d. a yellow stain

75.

White crescent-shaped marks on an exposed X-ray film are most likely caused by:

 a. crimping film after exposure

 b. crimping film before exposure.

 c. sudden extreme temperature change while processing

 d. a warm or exhausted fixer

76.

Reticulation resulting in a puckered or netlike film surface is probably caused by:

 a. crimping film after the exposure processing

 b. sudden extreme temperature change while.

 c. water or developer on unprocessed film

 d. excessive object-film distance

77.

Frilling or loosening of the emulsion from the base of the film is most likely caused by:

 a. water or developer on unprocessed film

 b. the low temperature of processing solutions

 c. developer solution contamination

 d. a warm or exhausted fixer solution.

78.

When the minute silver grains, on which the X-ray film image is formed, group together in relatively large masses, they produce a visual impression called:

 a. air bells

 b. graininess.

 c. reticulation

 d. frilling

79.

Static marks, which are black tree-like or circular marks on a radiograph, are often caused by:

 a. the film being bent when inserted in a cassette or holder

 b. foreign material or dirt embedded in screens

 c. scratches on lead foil screens

 d. improper film handling techniques.

80.

The purpose of agitating an X-ray film during development is to:

 a. protect the film from excessive pressure

 b. renew the developer at the surface of the film.

 c. disperse unexposed silver grains on the film surface

 d. prevent reticulation

81.

When manually processing films, the purpose of tapping the hangers sharply two or three times after the films have been lowered into the developer is to:

 a. disperse unexposed silver grains on the film surface

 b. prevent frilling

 c. dislodge any air bubbles clinging to the emulsion.

 d. all of the above

82.

The decrease in the activity of the developer solution is compensated by:

 a. constant agitation

 b. maintaining processing solutions within the recommended temperature range

 c. avoiding contamination from the wash bath

 d. adding replenisher.

83.

The purpose of fixation is to:

 a. remove all the undeveloped silver salts of the emulsion

 b. leave the developed silver as a permanent image

 c. harden the gelatin

 d. all of the above.

84.

For the best results when manually processing film, solutions should be maintained within the temperature range of:

 a. 65 °F and 75 °F.

 b. 65 °C and 75 °C

 c. 75 °F and 85 °F

 d. 75 °C and 85 °C

85.

Water spots on films can be minimized by:

 a. the rapid drying of wet film

 b. immersing wet film for 1 or 2 minutes in a wetting agent solution.

 c. using a fresh fixer solution

 d. cascading water during the rinse cycle

86.

The most suitable films for producing neutron radiography are:

 a. red-sensitive films

 b. Polaroid^TM films

 c. industrial X-ray films.

 d. medical X-ray films

87.

The normal development time for manually processing X-ray film is:

 a. 12 to 18 minutes in processing solutions at 75 °F

 b. 3 to 8 minutes in processing solutions at 75 °F

 c. 12 to 18 minutes in processing solutions at 68 °C

 d. 5 to 8 minutes in processing solutions at 68 °F.

88.

A properly exposed radiograph that is developed in a solution at a temperature of 58 °F will be:

 a. overdeveloped

 b. underdeveloped.

 c. fogged

 d. damaged by frilling

89.

An advantage of the fountain-pen type of ionization chamber used to monitor radiation received by personnel is that:

 a. it provides a permanent record of accumulated dosage

 b. it provides an immediate indication of dosage.

 c. it is the most sensitive detector available

 d. all of the above

90.

What radiation dose would be dangerous, if not fatal, if applied to the entire body in a short period of time?

 a. 1.5 to 15 R (rem)

 b. 25 to 70 R (rem)

 c. 200 to 800 R (rem).

 d. all of the above doses would most likely be fatal

91.

The average thermal neutron flux that gives a dose of 100 mrem in 40 hours is:

 a. 700 n/cm²-s.

 b. 70 n/cm²-s

 c. 7 n/cm²-s

 d. 0.7 n/cm²-s

92.

When working with a neutron radiography facility, the radiation expected is:

 a. gamma

 b. beta

 c. neutron

 d. all of the above.

93.

The intensity of neutron radiation is usually measured in:

 a. roentgens

 b. ergs

 c. neutrons/cm-s.

 d. neutrons/cm

94.

What does the term (R/h) refer to when speaking of intensity?

 a. radiation limits for humans

 b. roentgens per hour.

 c. X-rays per hour

 d. radiation in hydrogen

95.

Small amounts of exposure to neutrons or gamma rays:

 a. may have a cumulative effect that must be considered when monitoring for maximum permissible dose.

 b. will be beneficial since they build up an immunity to radiation poisoning

 c. will have no effect on human beings

 d. will have only a short-term effect on human tissues

96.

Overexposure to neutron or gamma rays may cause damage to human:

 a. blood and skin

 b. skin

 c. internal organs

 d. all of the above.

97.

A general rule used to define an excessive amount of radiation exposure is:

 a. anything above 0.4 R (rem) per week, although small amounts of radiation (0.4 R [rem] per week or less) are beneficial since they build up immunity to these rays

 b. any dose over 5 R (rem) per week

 c. any dose that causes a mid-range reading on a Geiger counter

 d. any unnecessary exposure to radiation.

98.

A primary disadvantage of the fountain-pen type of ionization chamber used to measure the amount received by personnel is the:

 a. delay necessary before the results of a measurement are known

 b. inaccuracy of such devices in measuring scatter radiation

 c. inability of such a device to provide a permanent record of exposure.

 d. cost of recharging such devices

99.

The exposure of personnel to X- and gamma radiation can be determined by means of:

 a. film badges

 b. dosimeters

 c. radiation meters

 d. all of the above.

100.

Divergent neutron beams:

 a. do not obey the Inverse Square Law of distance

 b. obey the Inverse Square Law of distance.

 c. use lead for shielding

 d. none of the above

101.

The intensity of gamma rays is measured in the:

 a. roentgens

 b. ergs

 c. roentgens per unit of time.

 d. H & D units

102.

A radioactive source used for neutron radiography is:

 a. PU-239

 b. Co-60

 c. Cs-137

 d. Cf-252.

103.

The half-life of Cf-252 is:

 a. 9 years

 b. 2.6 years.

 c. 6 months

 d. 47.5 years

104.

Cf-252 is:

 a. a spontaneous fission source.

 b. a fissile source

 c. both a and b

 d. neither a nor b

105.

A normally desirable feature of a thermal neutron beam for neutron radiography is:

 a. low gamma radiation intensity

 b. relatively low, fast neutron intensity

 c. low, angular divergence (so resolution capabilities for thicker objects can be good)

 d. all of the above.

106.

To achieve uniformity in neutron radiographs, it is recommended that:

 a. manual processing be used

 b. automatic processing be used.

 c. it does not matter which process to use

 d. the Shockly process be used

107.

The approximate energy of a thermal neutron is:

 a. 1 MeV

 b. 0.026 eV.

 c. 12 KeV

 d. 114 eV

108.

The material that slows down neutrons is called:

 a. a moderator.

 b. an accumulator

 c. a limitor

 d. none of the above

109.

A good moderating material is:

 a. water.

 b. iron

 c. lead

 d. all of the above

110.

If the temperature decreases, the energy of a thermal neutron will:

 a. increase

 b. decrease.

 c. stay the same

 d. none of the above

111.

A main disadvantage of gadolinium screens is:

 a. that they are expensive.

 b. that they are magnetic

 c. that they have poor sensitivity to neutrons

 d. both a and b

112.

The main advantage of a divergent beam collimator is:

 a. that no dividing slats are used which could possibly cause lines on a radiograph

 b. that there is a minimal neutron reflection if the sides of the collimator are made of a neutron-absorbing material

 c. that it is relatively simple to manufacture

 d. all of the above.

113.

The main disadvantage of a divergent beam collimator is:

 a. that less resolution is possible than with a parallel beam collimator of the same length

 b. the large physical size of the collimator to achieve L/D ratios that are necessary for good resolution effective thermal neutron source is small, therefore.

 c. that the small end of the collimator near the minimizing the displacement of the moderator

 d. all of the above

114.

The definition of a neutron is:

 a. the uncharged particle having a mass slightly greater than that of the proton.

 b. the uncharged particle having a mass slightly less than that of a proton

 c. the positively charged particle having a mass slightly less than that of the proton

 d. none of the above

115.

To an Operational Health Physicist, the abbreviation, RBE means:

 a. Rapid Biological Energy

 b. Roentgen Background Embrittlement

 c. Relative Biological Effectiveness.

 d. both a and b

116.

The cross-section is expressed in area units, the most common being the one that is equal to 10²⁴ cm². This is the:

 a. femto

 b. Tero

 c. barn.

 d. watt

117.

The transfer exposure method is used because:

 a. it is not sensitive to gamma radiation.

 b. it has greater radiographic sensitivity than the direct exposure method using gadolinium

 c. it is faster than the direct exposure method conversion electrons of about 70 keV

 d. the screens used in this method emit only internal

118.

Which of the following elements has the largest mass absorption coefficient for thermal neutrons? 

 a. boron.

 b. lead

 c. gadolinium

 d. copper

119.

The term “macroscopic cross-section Σ is synonymous with the:

 a. linear attenuation coefficient (µ) for neutrons.

 b. microscopic cross section (σ) for neutrons

 c. mass attenuation coefficient (µ /p) for neutrons

 d. cadmium ratio for neutrons

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In this quiz course, we are covering all the topics listed below:

• NDT Handbook: Volume 3, Radiographic Testing (144, 144CD, 144WCD)
  ASM Handbook Vol. 17, NDE and QC (105)
  Supplement to Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (Q&A Book) – Neutron Radiographic Testing Method

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