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Latest NDT Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) General Examination latest Questions and Answers

1.

Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:

 
 
 
 

2.

For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:

 
 
 
 

3.

The resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:

 
 
 
 

4.

The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:

 
 
 
 

5.

For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:

 
 
 
 

6.

For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the transmission coefficient is given by:

 
 
 
 

7.

Snell’s law is given by which of the following:

 
 
 
 

8.

Snell’s law is used to calculate:

 
 
 
 

9.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

 
 
 
 

10.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

 
 
 
 

11.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

 
 
 
 

12.

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

 
 
 
 

13.

Lithium sulfate, barium titanate and lead meta niobate are examples of:

 
 
 
 

14.

The particle motion for compression waves is:

 
 
 
 

15.

Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:

 
 
 
 

16.

Near-surface resolution can be improved by:

 
 
 
 

17.

The most important requirement for a paintbrush transducer is:

 
 
 
 

18.

Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?

 
 
 
 

19.

Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be followed by a more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?

 
 
 
 

20.

A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:

 
 
 
 

21.

Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an ultrasonic test?

 
 
 
 

22.

When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in materials with similar impedance, surface finish, and attenuation:

 
 
 
 

23.

An advantage of immersion testing is that:

 
 
 
 

24.

An advantage of immersion testing is that:

 
 
 
 

25.

An ultrasonic data display that shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:

 
 
 
 

26.

An ultrasonic display that shows a cross-section of the test piece and any flaws which are found are called:

 
 
 
 

27.

An ultrasonic display that shows echo locations and amplitude is called:

 
 
 
 

28.

An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:

 
 
 
 

29.

A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near-surface resolution problems is to:

 
 
 
 

30.

When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall echo?

 
 
 
 

31.

Materials that can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:

 
 
 
 

32.

When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be inspected for possible near-surface discontinuities by:

 
 
 
 

33.

Forging bursts are most often orientated:

 
 
 
 

34.

The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:

 
 
 
 

35.

During immersion testing of pipe or tubing, the incident longitudinal wave angle must be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:

 
 
 
 

36.

A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a transducer position such as:

 
 
 
 

37.

One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:

 
 
 
 

38.

During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused by:

 
 
 
 

39.

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete are:

 
 
 
 

40.

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and non-ferrous welds are:

 
 
 
 

41.

Which of the following materials would probably require testing at the lowest frequency?

 
 
 
 

42.

Which of the following is an advantage of contact testing over immersion?

 
 
 
 

43.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of contact testing?

 
 
 
 

44.

A typical application for a through-transmission technique is:

 
 
 
 

45.

An ultrasonic technique in which two transducers are used, in a constant position relative to each other, is:

 
 
 
 

46.

Which of the following cast materials could most likely be successfully ultrasonically tested?

 
 
 
 

47.

Which of the following product forms would probably be tested at the lowest frequency?

 
 
 
 

48.

The addition of approximately 6% antimony as an alloying element could be expected to increase the ultrasonic inspectability of which of the following materials?

 
 
 
 

49.

Strong signals which travel across the horizontal time base of an A-scan presentation while the transducer is motionless on the test piece are probably:

 
 
 
 

50.

When inspecting a long bar with a longitudinal wave from one end, a series of additional echoes are seen immediately after the bottom surface reflection. these are most likely:

 
 
 
 

51.

The excessive ringing of the transducer could be caused by:

 
 
 
 

52.

One of the most apparent characteristics of a discontinuity echo, as opposed to a non relevant indication, is:

 
 
 
 

53.

Typical immersion test frequencies for wrought aluminum are:

 
 
 
 

54.

Choice of ultrasonic test frequency depends upon which of the following?

 
 
 
 

55.

Polished, flat surfaces are undesirable for ultrasonic testing consideration because:

 
 
 
 

56.

The most effective liquid ultrasonic couplant (highest acoustic impedance) is:

 
 
 
 

57.

When using a straight beam technique to examine a thick test piece what change(s) would you expect to see in back wall echo size as you approach the side of the test piece? (Transducer remains completely on test piece)

 
 
 
 

58.

What useful purpose may be served by maintaining the grass on the baseline?

 
 
 
 

59.

Which of the following describes the sound field propagating in a piece of a steel bar stock which is being tested from one end with longitudinal waves?

 
 
 
 

60.

When a probe is coupled to a solid, strong surface wave may be produced:

 
 
 
 

61.

To avoid interfering surface waves, low frequencies should only be used on:

 
 
 
 

62.

Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause strong, interfering surface waves?

 
 
 
 

63.

Flaw sizing by the 6 dB drop technique is applicable to:

 
 
 
 

64.

How many decibels of attenuation corresponds to an ultrasonic signal loss of from 100% to 25% on full-screen height?

 
 
 
 

65.

An increase in gain of how many decibels corresponds to a 5:1 increase in flaw echo amplitude?

 
 
 
 

66.

A focused sound beam is produced by a:

 
 
 
 

67.

A divergent sound beam is produced by:

 
 
 
 

68.

A type of cast iron that has ultrasonic properties similar to steel is:

 
 
 
 

69.

What effect does hardening have on acoustic velocity in steel?

 
 
 
 

70.

Variation in acoustic velocity from one type of steel to another is usually less than:

 
 
 
 

71.

In general, which of the following materials would have the least ultrasonic attenuation?

 
 
 
 

72.

The velocity of lamb waves depends on:

 
 
 
 

73.

Which of the following is the most durable piezoelectric material?

 
 
 
 

74.

Which of the following methods are used to produce ultrasonic waves?

 
 
 
 

75.

Spurious indications may be caused by which of the following?

 
 
 
 

76.

A reason for using a dual element search unit is:

 
 
 
 

77.

A wheel transducer is normally considered:

 
 
 
 

78.

Which of the following is not an advantage of a focused transducer?

 
 
 
 

79.

What type of search unit allows the greatest resolving power with standard ultrasonic testing equipment?

 
 
 
 

80.

The 50 mm diameter hole in an IIW block is used to:

 
 
 
 

81.

The 100 mm radius in an IIW block is used to:

 
 
 
 

82.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of immersion test units?

 
 
 
 

83.

Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination
Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back surface?

 
 
 
 

84.

Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a mode?

 
 
 
 

85.

Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?

 
 
 
 

86.

Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are called:

 
 
 
 

87.

Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are known as:

 
 
 
 

88.

The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:

 
 
 
 

89.

In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of vibration?

 
 
 
 

90.

The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly irregular surface is called:

 
 
 
 

91.

Acoustic impedance is a material’s:

 
 
 
 

92.

When a sound beam is an incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than normal incidence, which of the following occurs?

 
 
 
 

93.

The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface between the two media is called:

 
 
 
 

94.

Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic attenuation losses?

 
 
 
 

95.

Attenuation is made up of:

 
 
 
 

96.

The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test results is:

 
 
 
 

97.

A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:

 
 
 
 

98.

Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:

 
 
 
 

99.

Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?

 
 
 
 

100.

The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound pressure occur is mostly affected by:

 
 
 
 

101.

An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:

 
 
 
 

102.

Resolution is inversely proportional to:

 
 
 
 

103.

Of the piezoelectric materials listed below, the most efficient sound transmitter is:

 
 
 
 

104.

Other factors being equal, which of the following transducers would have the greatest beam spread?

 
 
 
 

105.

The fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric crystal is primarily a function of:

 
 
 
 

106.

In which zone does the amplitude of an indication from a given discontinuity diminish exponentially as the distance increases?

 
 
 
 

107.

A typical application for a through-transmission technique is:

 
 
 
 

108.

An advantage of a dual crystal search unit is that:

 
 
 
 

109.

Most contact testing is performed by which of the following techniques?

 
 
 
 

110.

When contouring an angle beam wedge for a convex surface, an undesirable result of a wedge that is contoured too well might be:

 
 
 
 

111.

It is possible for a discontinuity smaller than the transducer to produce indications of fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being performed in the:

 
 
 
 

112.

A smooth flat discontinuity whose major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of sound propagation may be indicated by:

 
 
 
 

113.

An effective method of testing for air bubbles in a pipe is to:

 
 
 
 

114.

The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a discontinuity is:

 
 
 
 

115.

Inspection of castings is often impractical because of:

 
 
 
 

116.

One of the most common applications of ultrasonic tests employing shear waves is the:

 
 
 
 

117.

The 2 mm wide notch in the IIW block is used to:

 
 
 
 

118.

A primary purpose of a reference standard is:

 
 
 
 

119.

Laminations would most likely be encountered in which of the following product forms?

 
 
 
 

120.

A 50 percent decrease in echo amplitude is equal to a loss of how many decibels?

 
 
 
 

121.

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete are:

 
 
 
 

122.

Compared to the echo returned from a smooth reflector, the echo returned from a natural flaw of the same area and orientation is:

 
 
 
 

123.

Which of the following is least likely to be a source of false indications?

 
 
 
 

124.

Abnormally large grain size in the test material may be indicated by:

 
 
 
 

125.

The coated inside surface of the large end of a cathode ray tube which becomes luminous when struck by an electron beam is called:

 
 
 
 

126.

In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the time baseline is called a:

 
 
 
 

127.

Gas discontinuities are reduced to flat discs or other shapes parallel to the surface by:

 
 
 
 

128.

Reflection indications from a weld area being inspected by the angle beam technique may represent:

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 128

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1 thought on “Take Free NDT UT Level 2 Exam Practice Test – Quiz Course”

  1. Thanks for posting. However- several answers are obviously wrong at worst, and questionable at best. #9- should be 48°. Did the math several times. #15- believe answer should be D. Y-cut crystals are used far less frequently than an incident L-wave mode converted to produce a refracted S-wave. #50- Answer should be A, not D. Mode conversion occurs due to beam spread, and depending on length of bar and how many times reflection occurs- spurious signals can occur after BW signal. #94- answer obviously should be 25 MHz, not 2.25 MHz. #95- Answer should be C. I have seen this question literally dozens of times in preparing for my Level 3 exam, and the answer is always “absorption & scatter.” #118- Clearly the correct answer is A. C is wrong because a standard ensures detection of a discontinues LARGER than a reference reflector, not smaller. Also, I have seen this exact question in either the ASNT study guide or Q & A book. #123- I feel A is better answer. How can a discontinuity (which requires evaluation) create a “false” signal. If anything, depending on angle- it may lead to a lack of return signal. #112- Both A and B are correct. The exact same question is in the ASNT Questions & Answers Book (3rd edition), and they give the correct answer as: “A smooth flat discontinuity whose major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of sound propagation may be indicated by an echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection AS WELL AS a complete loss of back surface reflection.”

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