Take A Free ASNT SNT-TC-1A Level 1 Exam Practice Test – Quiz Course

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1.

Acoustic Emission Testing Level I
A qualitative description of the sustained signal level produced by rapidly occurring acoustic emission events is the accepted definition for:

 
 
 
 

2.

The attenuation of a wave is best defined by which statement?

 
 
 
 

3.

The number of times the acoustic emission signal exceeds a preset threshold during any selected portion of a test is called the acoustic emission

 
 
 
 

4.

Electromagnetic Testing
Alternating Current Field Measurement Technique Level I
What is the medium between an alternating current field measurement technique (ACFM) probe and a metal surface when operating in the air?

 
 
 
 

5.

For which of the following inspection requirements could you NOT normally use ACFM for defect detection?

 
 
 
 

6.

A fatigue crack perpendicular to the induced current will cause the induced current to:

 
 
 
 

7.

Eddy Current Level I
The impedance of an eddy current test coil will increase if the:

 
 
 
 

8.

Which of the following test frequencies would produce eddy currents with the largest depth of penetration?

 
 
 
 

9.

To generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the specimen must be:

 
 
 
 

10.

Remote Field Testing Level I
The dominant electromagnetic energy distribution process in remote field testing (RFT) is said to be:

 
 
 
 

11.

In a properly designed RFT probe, the detector coil is positioned in the:

 
 
 
 

12.

The zone next to the near zone is called the:

 
 
 
 

13.

Ground Penetrating Radar Level I
The most common form of ground penetrating radar( GPR) measurement is:

 
 
 
 

14.

What are the key wave field properties for GPR?

 
 
 
 

15.

Electromagnetic waves separate into two independent components. What are they?

 
 
 
 

16.

Guided Wave Testing Level I
The velocity of guided waves depends on all of the following:

 
 
 
 

17.

Which of the following is a propagating guided wave mode in the pipe?

 
 
 
 

18.

Guided wave testing ( GW) of long lengths of pipe:

 
 
 
 

19.

Leak Testing
Bubble Leak Testing Level I
Before performing a vacuum box leak test, which of the following should be checked for required calibration?

 
 
 
 

20.

Which factor can most affect the sensitivity attainable by a pressure bubble leak test?

 
 
 
 

21.

What does the abbreviation psia stand for?

 
 
 
 

22.

Halogen Diode Detector Level I
Good operating practice dictates that the period of time to allow for warm-up of the halogen diode detector prior to calibrating is:

 
 
 
 

23.

While adjusting a reservoir-type variable-halogen standard leak, the operator accidentally vents the gas from the only standard leak available. Which of the following actions would quickly resolve the problem?

 
 
 
 

24.

While performing a halogen-diode detector test, the leak detector becomes difficult to zero, and the pointer on the leak rate meter repeatedly swings upscale. The most likely cause of the problem could be the use of too high a sensitivity range, a shorted element, an excessive heater voltage, or:

 
 
 
 

25.

Mass Spectrometer Level I
The sensitivity of a mass spectrometer leak detection system is the mass flow rate of tracer gas:

 
 
 
 

26.

The diffusion pump and mechanical fore pump in a mass spectrometer leak detection system:

 
 
 
 

27.

The helium mass spectrometer detector-probe pressure-test technique is:

 
 
 
 

28.

Pressure Change Measurement Level I
A pressure of 66.0 psig, in terms of absolute pressure at sea level and standard temperature, would be approximately:

 
 
 
 

29.

When conducting a long-duration pressure change test, it is necessary to measure absolute pressure or gage pressure plus barometric pressure because the barometric pressure will:

 
 
 
 

30.

Which one of the following is the correct relationship for converting temperature in degrees Rankine (°R) to temperature in kelvin (K)?

 
 
 
 

31.

Liquid Penetrant Testing Level I
Which of the following is generally the more acceptable method for cleaning parts prior to penetrant testing?

 
 
 
 

32.

The term used to define the tendency of certain liquids to penetrate into small openings such as cracks or fissures is:

 
 
 
 

33.

Which of the following is the most commonly used method for removing non-water-washable visible dye penetrant from the surface of a test specimen?

 
 
 
 

34.

Magnetic Flux Leakage Level I
Flux leakage inspection can normally be applied to:

 
 
 
 

35.

The ratio B/H is equivalent to a materials:

 
 
 
 

36.

Flux leakage techniques can normally be used to detect:

 
 
 
 

37.

Magnetic Particle Testing Level I
Which type of current has a skin effect?

 
 
 
 

38.

The best type of magnetic field to use to inspect a tubular product for surface defects along its length is a:

 
 
 
 

39.

Which of the following is most often used for dry magnetic particle inspection?

 
 
 
 

40.

Microwave Technology Level I
The microwave electromagnetic signal will not propagate through which medium between the probe and the part being tested?

 
 
 
 

41.

In standing wave microwave interferometry, how is the electromagnetic signal transmitted and received?

 
 
 
 

42.

When microwave energy is reflected and refracted within the volume of the part there is:

 
 
 
 

43.

Neutron Radiographic Testing Level I
Neutron penetration is greatest in which of the following materials?

 
 
 
 

44.

Gadolinium conversion screens are usually mounted in rigid holders called:

 
 
 
 

45.

Which element is commonly used for direct neutron radiography?

 
 
 
 

46.

Radiographic Testing Method Level I
The most widely used unit of measurement for measuring the rate at which the output of a gamma ray source decays is the:

 
 
 
 

47.

If an exposure time of 60 seconds were necessarily using a 1.2 m ( 4 ft) source-to-film distance for a particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 0.61 m (2 ft) source-to-film distance is used and all other variables remain the same?

 
 
 
 

48.

The sharpness of the outline in the image of the radiograph is a measure of:

 
 
 
 

49.

Computed Radiography Level I
Digital detectors used for computed radiography ( CR) employ a unique crystalline material that can best be described as a ____________ when exposed to ionizing radiation.

 
 
 
 

50.

Computed radiography uses changes in _____ in lieu of changes in optical density change to produce a visual image.

 
 
 
 

51.

Computed radiography uses a in lieu of a film densitometer to determine exposure adequacy.

 
 
 
 

52.

Computed Tomography Level I
The mechanical/manipulation system has the function of 

 
 
 
 

53.

The purpose of the radiation detector is to convert the measured transmission of X-rays through the object into to be handled by electronic processing.

 
 
 
 

54.

The extent to which a computed tomography ( CT) image reproduces an object or feature within an object is influenced by spatial resolution:

 
 
 
 

55.

Digital Radiography Level I
A digital detector array (DDA) can best be defined by a(n):

 
 
 
 

56.

What is one of the prime reasons to perform a DDA calibration?

 
 
 
 

57.

Changes in the thickness of the specimen are indicated by the digital image.

 
 
 
 

58.

Thermal/infrared Testing Level I
Which of the followìng ìnfrared (IR) camera settìngs may affect a radiometric temperature measurement?

 
 
 
 

59.

Thermal infrared radiation occurs at wavelengths:

 
 
 
 

60.

Which of the following camera parameters is not adjustable in post-processing computer software?

 
 
 
 

61.

Ultrasonic Testing Level I
The amount of beam divergence from a transducer element is primarily dependent on the:

 
 
 
 

62.

On the area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottomed holes in the blocks are:

 
 
 
 

63.

On many ultrasonic testing instruments, an operator conducting an immersion test can remove that portion of the screen presentation that represents water distance by adjusting a:

 
 
 
 

64.

Vibration Analysis Level I
The vibration amplitude is a response that is:

 
 
 
 

65.

If a magnet is attached to an accelerometer, it will:

 
 
 
 

66.

The enter or store key on a programmable FFT -Analyzer /Data collector should be pressed:

 
 
 
 

67.

Visual Testing Level I
Which of the following is true?

Visual-Testing-Which-of-the-following-is-true.png

 
 
 
 

68.

The dimension indicated on the sketch of a micrometer is:

 
 
 
 

69.

As a visual examiner, you shall have your eyes checked at least:

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 69

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In this practice test, we are covering all the techniques given in the list below:

  • Acoustic Emission Testing Level 1
  • Electromagnetic Testing
  • Alternating Current Field Measurement Technique Level 1
  • Eddy Current Level 1
  • Remote Field Testing Level 1
  • Ground Penetrating Radar Level 1
  • Guided Wave Testing Level 1
  • Leak Testing
  • Bubble Leak Testing Level 1
  • Halogen Diode Detector Level 1
  • Mass Spectrometer Level 1
  • Pressure Change Measurement Level 1
  • Liquid Penetrant Testing Level 1
  • Magnetic Flux Leakage Level 1
  • Magnetic Particle Testing Level 1
  • Microwave Technology Level 1
  • Neutron Radiographic Testing Level 1
  • Radiographic Testing Method Level 1
  • Computed Radiography Level 1
  • Computed Tomography Level 1
  • Digital Radiography Level 1
  • Thermal/ infrared Testing Level 1
  • Ultrasonic Testing Level 1
  • Vibration Analysis Level 1
  • Visual Testing Level 1

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