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Latest NDT Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) General Examination latest Questions and Answers
1.
Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:
(a) 1 MHz and 10 MHz

(b) 1 MHz and 100 MHz

(c) 10 MHz and 50 MHz

(d) 1 MHz and 25 MHz
2.
For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:
(a) Sensitivity

(b) Frequency

(c) Wavelength

(d) Crystal thickness
3.
The resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:
(a) Wavelength

(b) Crystal thickness

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Q
4.
The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:
(a) Acoustic impedance

(b) The velocity-density ratio

(c) Index of refraction

(d) Reflection coefficient
5.
For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)² ]/[(Z1-Z2)²]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)²]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)²]/[Z1+Z2)²]
6.
For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the transmission coefficient is given by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)²]/[(Z1-Z2)²]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)²]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)²]/[Z1+Z2)²]
7.
Snell’s law is given by which of the following:

(a) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA

(b) (Sin A)/(Sin B) =VA/VB

(c) (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA

(d) (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]
8.
Snell’s law is used to calculate:
(a) Angle of beam divergence

(b) Angle of diffraction

(c) Angle of refraction

(d) None of the above
9.
Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
(a) 26 degrees

(b) 45 degrees

(c) 48 degrees

(d) 64 degrees
10.
Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
(a) 64 degrees

(b) 45.7 degrees

(c) 60 degrees

(d) 70 degrees
11.
Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
(a) 53 degrees

(b) 61 degrees

(c) 42 degrees

(d) 68 degrees
12.
Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
(a) 53 degrees

(b) 61 degrees

(c) 42 degrees

(d) 68 degrees
13.
Lithium sulfate, barium titanate and lead meta niobate are examples of:
(a) Magnetostrictive elements

(b) Piezoelectric elements

(c) Rochelle salts

(d) Y cut crystals
14.
The particle motion for compression waves is:
(a) Parallel to wave propagation

(b) Transverse to wave propagation

(c) Elliptical

(d) Circular
15.
Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:
(a) X cut crystals

(b) Y cut crystals

(c) Modulated R-F conversion

(d) Mode converted longitudinal waves
16.
Near-surface resolution can be improved by:
(a) Using a narrowband transducer

(b) Using a focused transducer

(c) Using a high Q transducer

(d) None of the above
17.
The most important requirement for a paintbrush transducer is:
(a) Uniform beam intensity across the transducer

(b) A pinpoint focal spot

(c) Good horizontal linearity characteristics

(d) Prescribed vertical and horizontal linearity characteristics
18.
Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?
(a) Extended useful range

(b) Reduced sensitivity in a localized area

(c) Improved signal to noise ratio over an extended range

(d) Higher resolution over a limited range
19.
Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be followed by a more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?
(a) Wheel transducer

(b) Focused transducer

(c) Paintbrush transducer

(d) Ball transducer
20.
A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:
(a) Side lobes of the sound beam are reflected from a rough surface

(b) Using a lower energy pulse

(c) Using a higher amplifier attenuation setting

(d) Huygen’s principle
21.
Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an ultrasonic test?
(a) Use a shorter wavelength

(b) Use a lower frequency transducer

(c) Change from longitudinal waves to shear waves

(d) Change to a coarser-grained test piece
22.
When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in materials with similar impedance, surface finish, and attenuation:
(a) The flaw is never larger than the flat bottom hole

(b) The flaw is never smaller than the flat bottom hole

(c) The flaw is always smaller than the flat bottom hole

(d) None of the above
23.
An advantage of immersion testing is that:
(a) Large parts are easily inspected

(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field

(c) High test frequencies may be used

(d) Most test systems are not easily transported in the field
24.
An advantage of immersion testing is that:
(a) Large parts may be easily inspected

(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field

(c) Low test frequencies may be used

(d) Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined
25.
An ultrasonic data display that shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:
(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view
26.
An ultrasonic display that shows a cross-section of the test piece and any flaws which are found are called:
(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view
27.
An ultrasonic display that shows echo locations and amplitude is called:
(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view
28.
An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:
(a) Near-surface resolution is improved

(b) Sensitivity to small discontinuities is improved

(c) Beam spread is reduced

(d) Sensitivity to unfavorable oriented flaws is improved
29.
A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near-surface resolution problems is to:
(a) Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications

(b) Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits

(c) Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse

(d) Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a ‘dead zone’
30.
When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall echo?
(a) Use a wetter transducer

(b) Use a lower frequency transducer

(c) Use a transducer with a narrower bandwidth

(d) Use a higher frequency transducer
31.
Materials that can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:
(a) Steel, cast iron, and concrete

(b) Titanium, wood, and aluminum

(c) Magnesium, titanium, and steel

(d) All of the above
32.
When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be inspected for possible near-surface discontinuities by:
(a) Using a lower frequency transducer

(b) Using a higher pulse energy

(c) Inspecting from the opposite side

(d) Calibrating on a smaller diameter flat bottom hole
33.
Forging bursts are most often orientated:
(a) Parallel to the surface

(b) Perpendicular to the surface

(c) In a random manner

(d) At an angle of 45 degrees to the surface
34.
The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:
(a) To make sure the bath is wet

(b) To reduce corrosive properties of the bath

(c) To eliminate air bubbles in the bath

(d) To prevent rust
35.
During immersion testing of pipe or tubing, the incident longitudinal wave angle must be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:
(a) To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece

(b) To prevent the formation of Rayleigh waves

(c) To prevent the formation of shear waves

(d) To avoid saturating the test piece with ultrasound
36.
A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a transducer position such as:
(a) I.D. and O.D. notches produce equal responses for equivalent metal path distances

(b) Rayleigh waves are generated through the entire pipe or tubing wall

(c) All ultrasound enters the test piece

(d) Only longitudinal waves are generated in the test piece
37.
One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:
(a) Re-test the test piece to verify that the echoes are repeatable

(b) Clean and re-test the teat piece to determine if the echoes can be eliminated

(c) Use the reject control to eliminate unwanted echoes

(d) Decrease the gain to see if the echoes can be eliminated
38.
During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused by:
(a) Dirt on the test piece

(b) Grease on the test piece

(c) Air bubbles on the test piece

(d) All of the above
39.
Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete are:
(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz
40.
Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and non-ferrous welds are:
(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz
41.
Which of the following materials would probably require testing at the lowest frequency?
(a) Small grained mild steel

(b) Mild steel castings

(c) Mild steel forgings

(d) Cast iron
42.
Which of the following is an advantage of contact testing over immersion?
(a) Ability to maintain uniform coupling on a rough surface

(b) Longer dead time near the front surface of the test piece

(c) Ease of field use

(d) Ability to continuously vary incident wave angle during the test
43.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of contact testing?
(a) Ability to maintain uniform coupling on a rough surface

(b) Ease of field use

(c) Greater penetrating power than immersion testing

(d) Less penetrating power than immersion testing
44.
A typical application for a through-transmission technique is:
(a) Flaw depth sizing

(b) Flaw depth location

(c) Thickness gauging

(d) Bond/unbond testing
45.
An ultrasonic technique in which two transducers are used, in a constant position relative to each other, is:
(a) Through transmission

(b) Contact the testing

(c) Pulse echo

(d) Continuous-wave
46.
Which of the following cast materials could most likely be successfully ultrasonically tested?
(a) Low carbon steel

(b) Stainless steel

(c) Iron

(d) Pure lead
47.
Which of the following product forms would probably be tested at the lowest frequency?
(a) Forgings

(b) Hot rolled plate

(c) Castings

(d) Extrusions
48.
The addition of approximately 6% antimony as an alloying element could be expected to increase the ultrasonic inspectability of which of the following materials?
(a) Low carbon steel

(b) Stainless steel

(c) Iron

(d) Pure lead
49.
Strong signals which travel across the horizontal time base of an A-scan presentation while the transducer is motionless on the test piece are probably:
(a) Randomly oriented flaws

(b) Electrical interference

(c) Grain noise

(d) Lose wedge on the transducer
50.
When inspecting a long bar with a longitudinal wave from one end, a series of additional echoes are seen immediately after the bottom surface reflection. these are most likely:
(a) Refracted shear and longitudinal waves caused by beam spread

(b) Flaw indications

(c) Multiples of the back surface reflection

(d) None of the above
51.
The excessive ringing of the transducer could be caused by:
(a) Electrical interference

(b) Loose crystal

(c) Test piece with large grain size

(d) Test piece with small grain size
52.
One of the most apparent characteristics of a discontinuity echo, as opposed to a non relevant indication, is:
(a) Lack of repeatability

(b) Sharp, distinct signal

(c) Stable position with fixed transducer position

(d) High noise level
53.
Typical immersion test frequencies for wrought aluminum are:
(a) 10 MHz and up

(b) 5 MHz and below

(c) 500 MHz to 1 MHz

(d) Above 25 MHz
54.
Choice of ultrasonic test frequency depends upon which of the following?
(a) Surface condition

(b) Minimum size discontinuity to be detected

(c) Level of grain noise

(d) All of the above
55.
Polished, flat surfaces are undesirable for ultrasonic testing consideration because:
(a) Coupling losses are greater

(b) Scan speeds tend to be too rapid

(c) Spurious lamb waves are prevalent

(d) The probe sticks to the surface because of suction
56.
The most effective liquid ultrasonic couplant (highest acoustic impedance) is:
(a) SAE 30 motor oil

(b) Glycerine

(c) Water

(d) Grease
57.
When using a straight beam technique to examine a thick test piece what change(s) would you expect to see in back wall echo size as you approach the side of the test piece? (Transducer remains completely on test piece)
(a) No change

(b) Increase

(c) Decrease

(d) Depends on material acoustic velocity
58.
What useful purpose may be served by maintaining the grass on the baseline?
(a) To estimate casting grain size

(b) To provide a reference for estimating signal to noise ratio

(c) To verify adequate coupling to the test piece

(d) All of the above
59.
Which of the following describes the sound field propagating in a piece of a steel bar stock which is being tested from one end with longitudinal waves?
(a) Nonuniform, containing maxima and minima because of the focusing effect of laterally reflected waves

(b) Increasing to a peak, then decreasing throughout the far-field

(c) Uniformly decreasing along the length of the bar

(d) Decreasing according to the inverse square law
60.
When a probe is coupled to a solid, strong surface wave may be produced:
(a) If a high-frequency probe is used

(b) If the probe has only incomplete contact with the surface

(c) If the probe is large in diameter

(d) None of the above
61.
To avoid interfering surface waves, low frequencies should only be used on:
(a) Polished surfaces

(b) Castings

(c) Flat surfaces

(d) Non-polished surfaces
62.
Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause strong, interfering surface waves?
(a) High-frequency transducers

(b) Testing on a small diameter surface

(c) Testing on a flat surface

(d) Testing on a curved surface with a contoured wedge and transducer
63.
Flaw sizing by the 6 dB drop technique is applicable to:
(a) Large flaws relative to the sound beam

(b) Small flaws relative to the sound beam

(c) Any flaws

(d) None of the above
64.
How many decibels of attenuation corresponds to an ultrasonic signal loss of from 100% to 25% on full-screen height?
(a) 6

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 14
65.
An increase in gain of how many decibels corresponds to a 5:1 increase in flaw echo amplitude?
(a) 10

(b) 14

(c) 6

(d) 20
66.
A focused sound beam is produced by a:
(a) Convex mirror

(b) Concave transducer

(c) Convex lens

(d) None of the above
67.
A divergent sound beam is produced by:
(a) Concave mirror

(b) Convex mirror

(c) Convex lens

(d) None of the above
68.
A type of cast iron that has ultrasonic properties similar to steel is:
(a) White

(b) Gray

(c) Lamellar

(d) Ductile
69.
What effect does hardening have on acoustic velocity in steel?
(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) No effect

(d) Any of the above
70.
Variation in acoustic velocity from one type of steel to another is usually less than:
(a) 1%

(b) 2%

(c) 5%

(d) 10%
71.
In general, which of the following materials would have the least ultrasonic attenuation?
(a) Aluminium

(b) Silver

(c) Lead

(d) Tungsten
72.
The velocity of lamb waves depends on:
(a) Elastic constants of test material

(b) Plate thickness

(c) Frequency

(d) All of the above
73.
Which of the following is the most durable piezoelectric material?
(a) Barium titanate

(b) Quartz

(c) Dipotassoium tartrate

(d) Rochelle salt
74.
Which of the following methods are used to produce ultrasonic waves?
(a) Magnetostrictive methods

(b) Magnetoinductive methods

(c) Piezoelectric elements

(d) All of the above
75.
Spurious indications may be caused by which of the following?
(a) Test piece edges

(b) Mode conversions

(c) Multiple reflections from a single interface

(d) All of the above
76.
A reason for using a dual element search unit is:
(a) Improving near-surface resolution

(b) Improving penetration

(c) Eliminating wear on the crystal faces

(d) None of the above
77.
A wheel transducer is normally considered:
(a) A contact method

(b) A dynamic scanning method

(c) An immersion method

(d) A static scanning method
78.
Which of the following is not an advantage of a focused transducer?
(a) High sensitivity to small flaws

(b) Deep penetration

(c) High resolving power

(d) Not much affected by surface roughness
79.
What type of search unit allows the greatest resolving power with standard ultrasonic testing equipment?
(a) Delay tip

(b) Focused

(c) Highly damped

(d) High Q
80.
The 50 mm diameter hole in an IIW block is used to:
(a) Determine the beam index point

(b) Check the resolution

(c) Calibrate angle beam distance

(d) Check beam angle
81.
The 100 mm radius in an IIW block is used to:
(a) Calibrate sensitivity level

(b) Check the resolution

(c) Calibrate angle beam distance

(d) Check beam angle
82.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of immersion test units?
(a) Inspection speed

(b) Ease of controlling sound beam direction

(c) Portability

(d) Application to automatic scanning techniques
83.
Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination
Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back surface?
(a) Multiple indications before the first back reflection

(b) Indications from multiple surface reflections

(c) Conversion from the longitudinal mode to shear mode

(d) Loss of front surface indications
84.
Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a mode?
(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) All of the above
85.
Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?
(a) Determination of a material’s elastic modulus

(b) Study of a material’s metallurgical structure

(c) Measurement of a material’s thickness

(d) All of the above
86.
Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are called:
(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Rayleigh waves
87.
Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are known as:
(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Rayleigh waves

(d) Plate waves
88.
The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:
(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Rayleigh waves

(d) Plate waves
89.
In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of vibration?
(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface wave

(d) Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material
90.
The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly irregular surface is called:
(a) Angulation

(b) Dispersion

(c) Refraction

(d) Diffraction
91.
Acoustic impedance is a material’s:
(a) (Density)/(velocity)

(b) (Density) × (velocity)

(c) Refractive index

(d) (Density)/(refractive index)
92.
When a sound beam is an incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than normal incidence, which of the following occurs?
(a) Reflection

(b) Refraction

(c) Mode conversion

(d) All of the above
93.
The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface between the two media is called:
(a) The angle of incidence

(b) The angle of refraction

(c) The angle of diffraction

(d) The angle of reflection
94.
Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic attenuation losses?
(a) 1 MHz

(b) 2.25 MHz

(c) 10 MHz

(d) 25 MHz
95.
Attenuation is made up of:
(a) Diffusion and absorption

(b) Scatter and reflection

(c) Absorption and scatter

(d) Reflection at grain boundaries
96.
The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test results is:
(a) The ultrasonic signal amplitude

(b) A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction

(c) A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics

(d) The ultrasonic signal location
97.
A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:
(a) Scatter of the sound beam due to microstructure of test object

(b) Increased grain noise or ‘hash’

(c) Less beam spread

(d) Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface
98.
Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:
(a) Quartz

(b) Lithium sulfate

(c) Lead meta niobate

(d) Barium titanate
99.
Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?
(a) Quartz

(b) Lithium sulfate

(c) Lead meta niobate

(d) Barium titanate
100.
The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound pressure occur is mostly affected by:
(a) The frequency of the transducer

(b) The diameter of the transducer

(c) The length of the transducer cable

(d) Both (a) and (b)
101.
An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:
(a) Higher sensitivity to small discontinuities

(b) Less likelihood of spurious echoes

(c) Greater likelihood of spurious echoes

(d) Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities
102.
Resolution is inversely proportional to:
(a) Wavelength

(b) Crystal thickness

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Mechanical losses
103.
Of the piezoelectric materials listed below, the most efficient sound transmitter is:
(a) Lithium sulfate

(b) Quartz

(c) Barium titanate

(d) Silver oxide
104.
Other factors being equal, which of the following transducers would have the greatest beam spread?
(a) A larger diameter transducer

(b) A smaller diameter transducer

(c) A higher frequency transducer

(d) None of the above has any effect
105.
The fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric crystal is primarily a function of:
(a) The length of the applied voltage pulse

(b) The amplifying characteristics of the pulse amplifier in the instrument

(c) The thickness of the crystal

(d) None of the above
106.
In which zone does the amplitude of an indication from a given discontinuity diminish exponentially as the distance increases?
(a) Far-field zone

(b) Near field zone

(c) Dead zone

(d) Fresnel zone
107.
A typical application for a through-transmission technique is:
(a) Flaw depth sizing

(b) Flaw depth location

(c) Thickness measuring

(d) Bond/lack of bond testing
108.
An advantage of a dual crystal search unit is that:
(a) There is no ‘dead zone’

(b) There is no near-surface resolution

(c) There is no near field

(d) All of the above are true
109.
Most contact testing is performed by which of the following techniques?
(a) Through transmission

(b) Pitch-catch

(c) Pulse-echo

(d) Continuous wave
110.
When contouring an angle beam wedge for a convex surface, an undesirable result of a wedge that is contoured too well might be:
(a) Production of unwanted surface waves

(b) Greater beam divergence due to larger contact area

(c) Lower beam divergence due to larger contact area

(d) Overly efficient coupling of the sound beam into the test part
111.
It is possible for a discontinuity smaller than the transducer to produce indications of fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being performed in the:
(a) Fraunhofer zone

(b) Near field

(c) Snell field

(d) Shadow zone
112.
A smooth flat discontinuity whose major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of sound propagation may be indicated by:
(a) An echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection

(b) A complete loss of back surface reflection

(c) An echo amplitude larger in magnitude than the back surface reflection

(d) All of the above
113.
An effective method of testing for air bubbles in a pipe is to:
(a) Measure pipe back wall echo amplitude

(b) Analyze the frequency spectrum of pipe back wall echo

(c) Transmit sound across pipe diameter and look for echo loss

(d) Transmit sound across pipe diameter and look for echoes from air bubbles
114.
The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a discontinuity is:
(a) Shear wave

(b) Longitudinal wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) Compression wave
115.
Inspection of castings is often impractical because of:
(a) Extremely small grain structure

(b) Coarse grain structure

(c) Uniform flow lines

(d) Uniform velocity of sound
116.
One of the most common applications of ultrasonic tests employing shear waves is the:
(a) Detection of discontinuities in welds, tubes, and pipe

(b) Determination of elastic properties of metallic products

(c) Detection of laminar discontinuities in heavy plate

(d) Measurement of thickness of the thin plate
117.
The 2 mm wide notch in the IIW block is used to:
(a) Determine beam index point

(b) Check the resolution

(c) Calibrate angle beam distance

(d) Check beam angle
118.
A primary purpose of a reference standard is:
(a) To provide a guide for adjusting instrument controls to reveal discontinuities that are considered harmful to the end use of the product

(b) To give the technician a tool for determining the exact discontinuity size

(c) To provide assurance that all discontinuities smaller than a certain specified reference reflector are capable of being detected by the test

(d) To provide a standard reflector that exactly simulates natural discontinuities of a critical size
119.
Laminations would most likely be encountered in which of the following product forms?
(a) Forgings

(b) Hot rolled plate

(c) Castings

(d) Welds
120.
A 50 percent decrease in echo amplitude is equal to a loss of how many decibels?
(a) 2

(b) 6

(c) 10

(d) 14
121.
Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete are:
(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 kHz to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz
122.
Compared to the echo returned from a smooth reflector, the echo returned from a natural flaw of the same area and orientation is:
(a) The same

(b) Greater

(c) Smaller

(d) Not related to
123.
Which of the following is least likely to be a source of false indications?
(a) Discontinuities oriented at an angle to the entry surface

(b) Contoured surfaces

(c) Edge effects

(d) Surface condition
124.
Abnormally large grain size in the test material may be indicated by:
(a) High levels of baseline noise, or hash

(b) High amplitude reflections between front and back surface echoes

(c) High amplitude, spurious echoes which are not repeatable

(d) Abnormally high back surface echo
125.
The coated inside surface of the large end of a cathode ray tube which becomes luminous when struck by an electron beam is called:
(a) An electron gun

(b) An electron amplifier

(c) A CRT screen

(d) An electron counter
126.
In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the time baseline is called a:
(a) Sweep circuit

(b) Receiver

(c) Pulser

(d) Synchroniser
127.
Gas discontinuities are reduced to flat discs or other shapes parallel to the surface by:
(a) Rolling

(b) Machining

(c) Casting

(d) Welding
128.
Reflection indications from a weld area being inspected by the angle beam technique may represent:
(a) Porosity

(b) Cracks

(c) Weld bead

(d) All of the above

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1 thought on “Take Free NDT UT Level 2 Exam Practice Test – Quiz Course”

Jerry Albert
February 16, 2023 at 9:05 pm
Thanks for posting. However- several answers are obviously wrong at worst, and questionable at best. #9- should be 48°. Did the math several times. #15- believe answer should be D. Y-cut crystals are used far less frequently than an incident L-wave mode converted to produce a refracted S-wave. #50- Answer should be A, not D. Mode conversion occurs due to beam spread, and depending on length of bar and how many times reflection occurs- spurious signals can occur after BW signal. #94- answer obviously should be 25 MHz, not 2.25 MHz. #95- Answer should be C. I have seen this question literally dozens of times in preparing for my Level 3 exam, and the answer is always “absorption & scatter.” #118- Clearly the correct answer is A. C is wrong because a standard ensures detection of a discontinues LARGER than a reference reflector, not smaller. Also, I have seen this exact question in either the ASNT study guide or Q & A book. #123- I feel A is better answer. How can a discontinuity (which requires evaluation) create a “false” signal. If anything, depending on angle- it may lead to a lack of return signal. #112- Both A and B are correct. The exact same question is in the ASNT Questions & Answers Book (3rd edition), and they give the correct answer as: “A smooth flat discontinuity whose major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of sound propagation may be indicated by an echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection AS WELL AS a complete loss of back surface reflection.”

Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:

For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:

The resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:

The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:

For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)2 ]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the transmission coefficient is given by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

Snell’s law is given by which of the following:

(a) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA

(b) (Sin A)/(Sin B) =VA/VB

(c) (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA

(d) (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]

Snell’s law is used to calculate:

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

Lithium sulfate, barium titanate and lead meta niobate are examples of:

The particle motion for compression waves is:

Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:

Near-surface resolution can be improved by:

The most important requirement for a paintbrush transducer is:

Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?

Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be followed by a more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?

A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:

Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an ultrasonic test?

When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in materials with similar impedance, surface finish, and attenuation:

An advantage of immersion testing is that:

An advantage of immersion testing is that:

An ultrasonic data display that shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:

An ultrasonic display that shows a cross-section of the test piece and any flaws which are found are called:

An ultrasonic display that shows echo locations and amplitude is called:

An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:

A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near-surface resolution problems is to:

When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall echo?

Materials that can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:

When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be inspected for possible near-surface discontinuities by:

Forging bursts are most often orientated:

The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:

During immersion testing of pipe or tubing, the incident longitudinal wave angle must be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:

A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a transducer position such as:

One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:

During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused by:

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete are:

Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and non-ferrous welds are:

Which of the following materials would probably require testing at the lowest frequency?

Which of the following is an advantage of contact testing over immersion?

Which of the following is a disadvantage of contact testing?

A typical application for a through-transmission technique is:

An ultrasonic technique in which two transducers are used, in a constant position relative to each other, is:

Which of the following cast materials could most likely be successfully ultrasonically tested?

Which of the following product forms would probably be tested at the lowest frequency?

The addition of approximately 6% antimony as an alloying element could be expected to increase the ultrasonic inspectability of which of the following materials?

Strong signals which travel across the horizontal time base of an A-scan presentation while the transducer is motionless on the test piece are probably:

When inspecting a long bar with a longitudinal wave from one end, a series of additional echoes are seen immediately after the bottom surface reflection. these are most likely:

The excessive ringing of the transducer could be caused by:

One of the most apparent characteristics of a discontinuity echo, as opposed to a non relevant indication, is:

Typical immersion test frequencies for wrought aluminum are:

Choice of ultrasonic test frequency depends upon which of the following?

Polished, flat surfaces are undesirable for ultrasonic testing consideration because:

The most effective liquid ultrasonic couplant (highest acoustic impedance) is:

When using a straight beam technique to examine a thick test piece what change(s) would you expect to see in back wall echo size as you approach the side of the test piece? (Transducer remains completely on test piece)

What useful purpose may be served by maintaining the grass on the baseline?

Which of the following describes the sound field propagating in a piece of a steel bar stock which is being tested from one end with longitudinal waves?

When a probe is coupled to a solid, strong surface wave may be produced:

To avoid interfering surface waves, low frequencies should only be used on:

Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause strong, interfering surface waves?

Flaw sizing by the 6 dB drop technique is applicable to:

How many decibels of attenuation corresponds to an ultrasonic signal loss of from 100% to 25% on full-screen height?

An increase in gain of how many decibels corresponds to a 5:1 increase in flaw echo amplitude?

A focused sound beam is produced by a:

A divergent sound beam is produced by:

A type of cast iron that has ultrasonic properties similar to steel is:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)² ]/[(Z1-Z2)²]

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)²]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)²]/[Z1+Z2)²]

(a) [(Z1+Z2)²]/[(Z1-Z2)²]

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)²]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)²]/[Z1+Z2)²]

Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination
Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back surface?