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1.

Yielding is a common source of acoustic emission in metals. At what stress levels do significant emissions generally begin?

 a. 50-60 percent of the yield point

 b. 60-70 percent of the yield point

 c. 70-80 percent of the yield point

 d. 80-90 percent of the yield point

2.

In order to use the signal-amplitude measurement method to locate a continuous signal source, which of the following should be known?

 a. measured location of the sensors

 b. rank of the sensor output

 c. attenuation characteristics of the structure

 d. all of the above

3.

Thermal stress can be used to stimulate acoustic emission. A round, solid metallic object is heated and then immersed in a tank of cold water. The stresses in the first few seconds will be:

 a. tensile at the surface, compressive in the interior

 b. compressive at the surface, tensile in the interior

 c. tensile throughout

 d. compressive throughout

4.

The phrase “stress intensity factor” refers to the:

 a. stress in the neighborhood of a crack

 b. stress concentration produced by a hole

 c. stress needed to break a tensile specimen

 d. ratio of hoop stress to axial stress in a pressure vessel

5.

The hoop stress in a thin-walled pressure vessel is given by prit, where p is the internal pressure, r is the radius of the vessel, and t is the wall thickness. The axial stress is:

 a. twice the hoop stress

 b. the same as the hoop stress

 c. half of the hoop stress

 d. not directly related to the hoop stress

6.

Which of the following can be used to measure the operating characteristics of acoustic emission instrumentation?

 a. a RMS voltmeter

 b. a variable decibel attenuator

 c. a tone burst generator

 d. all of the above

7.

Conventional source location, using time-of-arrival and triangulation, has proven to be unsatisfactory for fiber-reinforced (FRP) equipment. Which item listed below is not one of the three main problems with source location in FRP equipment?

 a. Severe attenuation prohibits the multiple sensor hits that are required for triangulation

 b. Triangulation assumes constant stress wave velocities in all directions. Since most FRP structures are anisotropic, this is rarely the case

 c. Sensors resonant at 60 kHz are typically used for acoustic emission tests on FRP equipment. Time-of-arrival is generally not measured with these sensors

 d. High event rates from single sources are typical in FRP material. Attenuation may cause one event to go undetected at one sensor and the system may mistake the next event for the one undetected

8.

What are the main components of the primary calibration system described in ASTM E 1106?

 a. waveform generator, pulser, device to be calibrated (mounted face-to-face with the pulser), and recorder

 b. mechanical input device, standard transducer, device to be calibrated, transfer block, and recorder

 c. transfer block, device to be calibrated, recorder, and 0.3 mm, 2H mechanical pencil

 d. waveform generator, pulser, calibration device and strip chart recorder

9.

What type of wave is considered for primary calibration?

 a. bulk waves

 b. buried longitudinal waves

 c. buried shear waves

 d. surface waves

10.

During primary calibration, the standard transducer and the device to be calibrated are placed:

 a. face to face

 b. on opposite surfaces

 c. on the same surface as the mechanical input device

 d. none of the above

11.

During primary calibration, a transfer block fabricated from lower-density material will result in:

 a. no shear waves being generated

 b. only low-frequency sensors being calibrated

 c. higher loading to couple the device that is being calibrated

 d. lower sensitivity

12.

The reference sensor used for secondary calibration is:

 a. a NIST conical transducer

 b. any commercial AE sensor that has been calibrated by the manufacturer

 c. an accelerometer used at its natural frequency

 d. a 5 MHz ultrasonic transducer

13.

For a secondary calibration system per ASTM E 1106, the following two things must be demonstrated

 a. that no couplant is required for mounting the device being calibrated and that no mechanical loading is required to couple the device to the transfer block

 b. at least three sensors produce repeatable results and at least one sensor demonstrates that the secondary calibration is in agreement with the primary calibration

 c. a and b

 d. at least two sensors produce repeatable results and one sensor demonstrates that the secondary calibration is in agreement with the primary calibration

14.

For a secondary calibration system per ASTM E 1106, the following two things must be demonstrated

 a. that no couplant is required for mounting the device being calibrated and that no mechanical loading is required to couple the device to the transfer block

 b. at least three sensors produce repeatable results and at least one sensor demonstrates that the secondary calibration is in agreement with the primary calibration

 c. a and b

 d. at least two sensors produce repeatable results and one sensor demonstrates that the secondary calibration is in agreement with the primary calibration

15.

During continuous monitoring of pressure boundaries, stable flaw growth is indicated by:

 a. steady detection of locatable events

 b. a linear increase in the events versus time for a given event cluster

 c. an exponential change in the events versus time for a given event cluster

 d. a variable increase or decrease in events versus time for a given event cluster

16.

How is the dynamic range (DR) in an AE system’s electronics determined?

 a. DR = 20 log₁₀ (signal overload point voltage/background noise voltage).

 b. DR = 20 log₁₀ (test threshold setting/ background noise voltage)

 c. DR = 20 log₁₀ (amplitude of a pencil lead break/minimum threshold allowed by background noise)

 d. DR 20 log₁₀ (maximum test signal amplitude/threshold setting)

17.

Where is a system’s noise voltage (rms-noise voltage) measured?

 a. at the AE sensor output

 b. across the AE sensor-preamplifier cable, unless an integral sensor is used

 c. at the system input for the preamplifier noise and at the preamplifier input for AE sensor noise

 d. at the preamplifier output when the noise to the preamplifier is to be characterized, at the system amplifier output if the entire system noise is to be characterized

18.

In using pencil lead breaks to generate AE signals, which of the following is NOT a recommendation to keep the sources as repeatable as possible?

 a. only 0.3 mm (0.01 in.) diameter lead shall be used

 b. the distance of the pencil lead break from the sensor should be at least 10 cm (3.9 in.)

 c. always use as close as possible the same spot on the test object and the same angle of pencil lead to test object

 d. use the same length of lead on each break

19.

What properties of an ultrasonic transducer are preferred when using it to check the reproducibility of an AE sensor?

 a. the transducer is heavily damped to have a broad frequency response and it should have a center frequency below the frequencies of the sensors to be characterized

 b. the transducer should be highly resonant to produce a very large AE signal and it should have a center frequency below the frequencies of the sensor to be characterized

 c. the transducer is heavily damped to have a broad frequency response and it should have a center frequency in the range of 2.25 to 5.0 MHz range

 d. the transducer should be highly resonant to produce a very large AE signal and it should have a center frequency in the range of 2.25 to 5.0 MHz range

20.

Hold Periods at high during fiberglass reinforced pressure (FRP) vessel examinations using ASME Article II are necessary to:

 a. Calculate the felicity ration

 b. Check for leaks

 c. Monitor continuing damage

 d. Measure the Kaiser ratio

21.

In acoustic emission testing per ASME Section V, Article 11, sensor spacing on fiberglass-reinforced pressure (FRP) pressure vessels in governed by:

 a. The article temperature

 b. Sensor diameter

 c. Attenuation.

 d. The type o couplant

22.

How can an examiner be assured that proper contact has been made between the sensor and the vessel?

 a. Apply extra couplant around the sensor

 b. Use heavy-duty fasteners on sensors and cables

 c. Measure the peak amplitude response from a simulated acoustic emission source

 d. Use acoustic waveguides

23.

The source of the energy of the acoustic emission wave during crack growth is the:

 a. Acoustic emission sensor

 b. Surface energy of the new crack

 c. Elastic stress field in the structure

 d. Power supply from the mainframe to the preamplifier

24.

Which of the following can be a significant source of background noise?

 a. Inrushing fluid

 b. Wind

 c. Radio transmissions

 d. All of the above

25.

The elastic energy that is released by materials when they undergo deformation is called:

 a. Transformation

 b. Acoustic emission

 c. Brittle fracture

 d. Isotropy

26.

One of the two major differences in the acoustic emission method from other forms of NDT is that:

 a. Acoustic emission relies on visual interpretation of data

 b. Computers are used exclusively for analysis

 c. The energy detected is radiated from the defect itself

 d. Transducers are used to gather data

27.

One advantage of using acoustic emission over other forms of NDT is that acoustic emission can:

 a. Be used to evaluate an entire structure during one test

 b. Be used to “size” a discontinuity in a material

 c. Determine material thicknesses

 d. Measure thermal gradients within a material

28.

During loading, a metallic structure emits throughout the test period. When the load is reduced and then reapplied, no emissions are noted until the previous stress level was exceeded. This phenomenon is an example of:

 a. The Dunegan corollary

 b. The Kaiser effect

 c. The Felicity ratio

 d. A Hsu-Nielsen source

29.

The founder of modern acoustic emission technology was:

 a. Conrad Earl Krieder

 b. Professor Firestone

 c. James C. Bolling

 d. Josef Kaiser

30.

The test most often performed on a structure to determine maximum sensor spacing is called:

 a. A flaw detection test

 b. An attenuation test

 c. An EMI test

 d. A Kaiser test

31.

The use of a couplant between the acoustic emission sensor and the surface of the material being tested is to provide:

 a. A protection for the sensor

 b. Ground loop elimination

 c. A medium through which elastic stress waves can excite an acoustic emission sensor

 d. None of the above

32.

During a pressure vessel test, there is a rapidly (exponentially) increasing count rate. There are several possible causes. The operator’sfirst priority is to examine the possibility that:

 a. The initial system calibration was invalid

 b. The vessel is undergoing local yielding due to high secondary stresses

 c. Failure of the vessel is impending

 d. The level of background noise has increased

33.

In order for an acoustic emission (AE) system to detect an active AE source in a material, the AE sensor must be placed:

 a. Directly on the AE source

 b. Anywhere in the general vicinity of the AE source

 c. As far from the AE source as possible

 d. At a standard distance from the AE source

34.

Which of the following is measured in meters per second (m/s)?

 a. The time required for a crack to grow

 b. The resonant frequency of a material

 c. The velocity of sound in a given material

 d. The rate of strain when a material is being deformed

35.

A sensor is positioned 3 m form an acoustic emission (AE) source. If a particular component of the AE wave travels at 3000 m/s, how long will it take this component to travel from source to sensor?

 a. 1 millisecond

 b. 3 milliseconds

 c. 9 milliseconds

 d. 1000 milliseconds

36.

One of the major difference is the acoustic emission NDT method compared to most other NDT methods is that:

 a. Acoustic emission relies on visual interpretation of data

 b. Computers are used exclusively for analysis

 c. Acoustic emission directly detects the growth of flaw

 d. Transducers are used to gather data

37.

Which of the following facilitates the transmission of acoustic waves to a typical sensor?

 a. Active element

 b. Surface of the test object

 c. Couplant

 d. Damping material

38.

Of the following components, which one is A not considered to be part of a typical acoustic emission sensor?

 a. electrodes

 b. active element

 c. acoustic waveguide

 d. backing material

39.

When performing source location, which of the following most directly affects the accuracy of computed location?

 a. accuracy of sensor placement

 b. physical size of a sensor

 c. sensor frequency

 d. sensor couplant

40.

In acoustic emission testing of fiberglass-reinforced pressure (FRP) tanks and pressure vessels. significant activity on low frequency sensors and very little activity on high frequency sensors normally indicates:

 a. need to relocate high frequency sensors

 b. high amplitude, low frequency emissions

 c. fiber breakage

 d. crazing

41.

In acoustic emission testing of fiberglass-reinforced pressure (FRP) tanks and pressure vessels, low frequency sensors are used for:

 a. eliminating spurious noise sources

 b. low temperature environments

 c. examinations using cables over 91 m (300ft)

 d. backing up the high frequency sensors

42.

Which of the following factors tend to increase the amplitude of the acoustic emission response?

 a. low strength material

 b. small grain size

 c. absence of discontinuities

 d. high strain rates

43.

One of the two major differences in the acoustic emission method from other forms of NOT is that:

 a. acoustic emission relies on visual interpretation of data

 b. computers are used exclusively for analysis

 c. the energy detected is radiated from the defect itself

 d. transducers are used to gather data

44.

One advantage of using acoustic emission over other forms of NOT is that acoustic emission can:

 a. be used to evaluate an entire structure during one test

 b. be used to “size” a discontinuity in a material

 c. determine material thicknesses

 d. measure thermal gradients within a material

45.

Which of the following facilitates the transmission of acoustic waves into a typical sensor?

 a. couplant

 b. active element

 c. surface of the test object

 d. damping material

46.

In what acoustic frequency range works AE testing usually?

 a) 10 Hz – 100 KHz

 b) 20 KHz to 1 MHz

 c) 20 KHz to 100 KHz

 d) active element

47.

What generates the acoustic waves?

 a) the transducer

 b) the crack

 c. determine material thicknesses

 d. measure thermal gradients within a material

48.

How many transducers are used to record the acoustic waves?

 a) One and more transducers

 b) Always one transducer

 c) Four transducers

 d. transducers are used to gather data

49.

What is the Kaiser effect?

 a) describes the phenomenon that a material under load emits acoustic waves only after a primary load level is exceeded

 b) appearance of significant acoustic emission at a load level below the previous maximum applied level

 c) the Kaiser effect

 d) the Felicity effect

50.

What kind of signal is generated by a crack?

 a) shock wave signal

 b) continuous signal

 c) burst signal

 d) the transducer

51.

What did Hsu-Nielsen invent?

 a) an acoustic emission transducer

 b) an aid to simulate an acoustic emission event

 c) a signal filter technique

 d) continuous signal

52.

What effect appears first when loading a material?

 a) the Kaiser effect

 b) the Felicity effect

 c) a signal filter technique

 d) continuous signal

53.

What is a guard sensor?

 a) to discriminate from sources originating outside the area of interest

 b) to localize the position of an acoustic emission source

 c) One and more transducers

 d) Always one transducer

54.

What can AE not be used for?

 a) defect location

 b) defect sizing

 c) longitudinal wave

 d) transversal wave

55.

What is an important wave mode in AE testing?

 a) longitudinal wave

 b) transversal wave

 c) Lamb wave

 d. none of the above

56.

A qualitative description of the sustained signal level produced by rapidly occurring acoustic emission events is the accepted definition for:

 a. burst emission

 b. acoustic emission signature

 c. acoustic emission signal

 d. continuous emission

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