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1.

NPS stands for

 A. Non-Pipe Standard

 B. Nominal Pipe Specification

 C. Nominal Permitted Size

 D. Nominal Pipe Size

2.

The maximum permitted ovality tolerance of a pressure vessel shell (D max -D min) shall not exceed ….. of the nominal diameter of the vessel.

 A. 1%

 B. 2%

 C. 3%

 D. 5%

3.

Qualification is a combination of all of the following except

 A. Skill

 B. Knowledge

 C. Training

 D. Commitment

4.

The process of monitoring or observing the inspection activities associated with materials, equipment, and/or components for adherence to the specific procedure, product specification, code, or standard specified in the contractual requirements are called:

 A. Quality Surveillance

 B. Quality inspection

 C. Quality control

 D. Quality assurance

5.

Cold Working is Plastic deformation:

 A. below is the recrystallization temperature

 B. above the recrystallization temperature

 C. at the recrystallization temperature

 D. below the melting temperature

6.

Hot Working is Plastic deformation

 A. Below is the recrystallization temperature

 B. Above the recrystallization temperature

 C. At the recrystallization temperature

 D. Below the melting temperature

7.

Maximum Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP) is the maximum gauge pressure at the

 A. Top of a pressure vessel

 B. Middle of the vessel

 C. Lowest point of the vessel

 D. At the pressure gage point

8.

Magnesium symbol is

 A. Mg

 B. Mn

 C. Me

 D. Ms

9.

Manganese symbol is

 A. Mg

 B. Mn

 C. Me

 D. Ms

10.

Authorized Inspector’s approval is required ….. to release.

 A. After

 B. At the time of

 C. Prior

 D. If it is a requirement prior

11.

Each inspection report should be reviewed for all of the following except:

 A. Content,

 B. Completeness

 C. Technical clarity

 D. Progress report

12.

The ultimate risk associated with each equipment item is

 A. POF multiplied by COF

 B. POF plus COF

 C. POF divided by COF

 D. COF divided by POF

13.

If any conflict should arise during the inspection activity, the source inspector should notify his/her …. for resolution as soon as possible

 A. Client

 B. Vendor

 C. Sub vendor

 D. Supervisor

14.

Later editions of industry codes and standards …. apply if the contract or purchase order has specified an earlier edition of a specific standard.

 A. Does

 B. Does not

 C. May

 D. Shall

15.

All project documents should have been reviewed/approved by the:

 A. Purchaser

 B. Inspector

 C. Vendor

 D. Sub vendor

16.

Root Mean Square (RMS) is a measure of

 A. Surface finish

 B. Variance

 C. Variability

 D. Statistical accuracy

17.

Documents filled out by the SI indicating concerns or other factual descriptions of what was noticed during the course of product surveillance, but not necessarily issues that may be considered defects or requiring NCRs is called… It is intended to flag off the issues and problems and may lead to an NCR if not resolved.

 A. Supplier Observation Reports (SOR)

 B. Inspection Record

 C. Inspection Report

 D. NCR

18.

A document that contains the requirements and acceptance criteria for the manufacturing and fabrication of specific types of equipment and components is called:

 A. Specification

 B. Codes

 C. Standard

 D. Procedure

19.

Reheating a hardened metal to a temperature below the transformation range to improve toughness is called:

 A. Sintering

 B. Sensitizing

 C. Heat Treating

 D. Tempering

20.

VDDR stands for

 A. Vendor Document and Drawing Requirement

 B. Validated Document Design Request

 C. Variable Documented Development Revised

 D. Vendor Development Design and Revision

21.

API Recommended Practice 572, Inspection of Pressure Vessels,4th Edition, Sections 3 and 4
Several different methods are used to construct pressure vessels. Most pressure vessels are constructed today using ____________ construction.

 a. welded

 b. hot forged

 c. riveted

 d. multilayer

22.

The most common material used to construct pressure vessels is:

 a. titanium

 b. austenitic stainless steel

 c. Monel

 d. carbon steel

23.

Construction codes are periodically revised as the designs of pressure vessels improve and as new construction materials become available. A pressure vessel should be maintained according to the:

 a. requirements under which it was designed and constructed

 b. standards and specifications of the owner/user

 c. principles and specifications of the jurisdiction

 d. guidelines of the NBIC

24.

The basic reasons for inspection are:

 a. to meet the prerequisites of the ASME Code

 b. to fulfill the provisions of the API 510

 c. to satisfy the requirements of OSHA

 d. to determine the physical condition of the vessel and determine the type, rate, and causes of deterioration

25.

The most common environmental cracking in pressure vessels in refineries are:

 a. wet H2S and CUI

 b. polythionic cracking in ferritic stainless steel

 c. amine stress cracking in stress-relieved vessels

 d. caustic embrittlement under 400°F

26.

Erosion is the attrition of a surface caused by:

 a. loss of material caused by sulfur and chloride compounds

 b. attrition of material caused by acid or caustic attack

 c. the impingement of solid particles or liquid drops

 d. wearing down of a material caused by oxidation

27.

Many problems with pressure vessels are caused by faulty fabrication. Which item on the following list is not related to faulty fabrication?

 a. poor welding

 b. chloride stress corrosion cracking

 c. improper heat treatment

 d. dimensional intolerance

28.

The external inspection of a pressure vessel should start with:

 a. vessel foundation and anchor bolts

 b. ladders, stairways, platforms, or walkways connected or bearing on the vessel

 c. nozzles and connecting piping

 d. protective coatings and insulation

29.

If an internal inspection of a vessel is not the initial one, the first step is to:

 a. make a walk-around visual check of the vessel

 b. review the previous records of the vessel to be inspected

 c. check with the vessel operators for unusual operating conditions

 d. make a preliminary manway inspection

30.

Which of the following is not a tool for measuring the thickness of vessel shells?

 a. acoustic emission transducers

 b. ultrasonic instruments

 c. radiography with step gages

 d. corrosion buttons and depth drilling

31.

API Recommended Practice 577, Welding Inspection and Metallurgy, 2nd edition
The level of learning and training offered by RP 577 is __________________.

 A. consistent with an AWS CWI

 B. the same as required for an AWS CWI

 C. is not a replacement for AWS CWI training

 D. automatically makes one a welding inspector

32.

DCEN means.

 A. direct current, electrode none

 B. direct current, electrode negative

 C. don’t come easy, Norman

 D. direct current, electrode normal

33.

Another name or abbreviation for a penetrameter is:

 A. O.C.T

 B. D.E.Q.

 C. I.Q.I.

 D. D.T.Q.

34.

A theoretical throat dimension is based on the assumption that the root opening is equal to:

 A. zero

 B. 1/16

 C. 1/8

 D. 1/32 – 1/16

35.

Welding inspection is a critical part of any ____________ program.

 A. Quality Assurance

 B. Quality Process

 C. ISO 9000

 D. ISO 11000

36.

Welding inspection can be separated into 3 distinct stages:

 A. welding, NDE, hardness testing

 B. pre-welding, NDE, heat treatment

 C. visual, NDE, RT

 D. before welding, during welding, and after welding

37.

One of the items that should be checked prior to welding is:

 A. confirm NDE examiners qualifications

 B. confirm acceptability of heat treatment procedures

 C. review WPS, PQR, and WPQ’s

 D. All of the above should be checked prior to welding

38.

When discovered, welding defects should be:

 A. removed and re-inspected

 B. radiographed to determine the extent

 C. shear wave tested

 D. evaluated to API 580 acceptance criteria

39.

NDE examiners should be qualified to ______ when specified by the referencing code.

 A. ASME XII

 B. API 570

 C. SNT-TC-1A

 D. API 510

40.

As a minimum, each Inspector should review the ______________ prior to starting each job.

 A. OSHA regulations

 B. EPA regulations

 C. site safety rules

 D. HAZWOPER Guidelines

41.

An advantage of SMAW is:

 A. equipment is very expensive

 B. slag must be removed from weld passes

 C. can be used on almost all commonly-used metals or alloys

 D. deposition rates are much higher than for other processes

42.

GTAW and SMAW can be distinguished from other processes as they are both used with _______.

 A. cc-power supplies

 B. cv power supplies

 C. external gas shielding

 D. flux cored electrodes

43.

API Recommended Practice 578, Material Verification Program for Alloy Piping Systems, 3rd Edition
API 578 provides guidelines for a quality assurance system to verify:

 A) all materials

 B) all-alloy materials

 C) only non-ferrous materials

 D) only high-alloy materials

44.

Usually substituting an alloy for carbon steel would not cause a problem. Which of the process services substituting an alloy for carbon steel could result in a problem?

 A) Caustic, amine, and Chloride in service

 B) Hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen fluoride, and sulphuric acid in service

 C) Catalyst, oxygen scavengers, and inhibitors in service

 D) None of the above

45.

Alloy material is any metallic material that contains alloying elements that are added:

 A) only to improve mechanical properties

 B) only to improve corrosion resistance

 C) To improve either mechanical properties or improve corrosion resistance

 D) To improve the weldability of material

46.

Alloy components include, pipe, fittings, plate, flanges, and ____________ needs PMI

 A) Valves

 B) supports

 C) skirt vessels

 D) all of the above

47.

An inspection lot includes:

 A) all materials from the same supplier

 B) all materials included on the same purchase order

 C) all materials of the same material type (i.e. 316 SS)

 D) all materials of the same material type from the same supplier and heat.

48.

A documented material verification program should be established by the:

 A) Authorized inspector

 B) Owner/User

 C) Repair organization

 D) Engineering organization

49.

The material verification program should cover PMI testing of materials:

 A. during construction of piping systems

 B. in existing piping systems

 C. during repairs and alterations of piping systems

 D. in existing piping systems and during construction, repairs, and alterations of

 E. piping systems

50.

Random sampling is most appropriate for:

 A) low-risk systems

 B) low alloy systems

 C) stainless steel systems

 D) ferritic steel systems

51.

Who has the responsibility to determine the extent of PMI performed?

 A) Authorized inspector

 B) Owner/User or his designee

 C) Repair organization

 D) Engineering organization

52.

Who has the responsibility to verify that the material verification program is properly implemented?

 A) Authorized inspector

 B) Owner/User

 C) Repair organization

 D) Engineering organization

53.

AWS D1.1, Structural Welding Code- Steel
Where are the definitions associated with welding as per AWS D1.1 to be found?

 a. AWS A2.4

 b. AWS A3.0

 c. Annex B

 d. b and c above

54.

Safety precautions to be observed during welding to AWS D1.1 are found in

 a. Annex J

 b. ANSI Z49.1

 c. Annex K

 d. a and b above

55.

What does the nonstandard term “ downhand” mean?

 a. Welding vertically downward

 b. Welding in the flat position

 c. The pause during electrode changes

 d. The pause of welding during deslagging

56.

In what year was the first bridge welding specification published by the AWS?

 a. 1928

 b. 1934

 c. 1936

 d. 1972

57.

Which of the following steels are intended to be used in work covered by D1.1?

 a. All alloy steels with a yield strength of 97,000 psi or less

 b. Low carbon steels, 5/32 in. thick

 c. Low alloy steels with a yield

 d. Low carbon stainless steel

58.

When contract documents stipulate the use of AWS D1.1?

 a. All provisions of AWS D1.1 are mandatory

 b. All welding procedures must be qualified according to section 4

 c. Any AWS code may be used

 d. The engineer may modify the requirements of AWS D1.1

59.

Part A. What is the minimum length of a fillet weld?

 a. 3 inches

 b. Twice the base metal thickness

 c. 4 times the nominal size of the fillet weld

 d. 6 inches

60.

Part A. What is the minimum diameter of a plug weld?

 a. 1-inch

 b. The thickness of the thinner plate

 c. The thickness of the thicker plate

 d. The thickness of the plate is in plus 5/16 in

61.

Part B In a complete joint penetration weld, where the stress is tension normal to the effective area the allowable stress is

 a. Same as the base metal

 b. Same as filler metal

 c. Not a weld joint design consideration

 d. 0.30 times the tensile strength of the filler metal

62.

Part D. What is the Z loss dimension for a prequalified PJP T-, Y-, K- connector with a groove angle of 50° using short-circuiting transfer GMAW in the horizontal position?

 a. 0

 b. 1/8 in

 c. 1/4 in

 d. 6 mm

63.

American Society of Nondestructive Testing (ASNT) Recommended Practice SNT TC‐1A Personal Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing Personnel
Recommended training course outlines and references for NDT Levels I, II, and III personnel, which may be used as technical source material, are contained in:

 A. ASME Section V, Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Article 1

 B. ANSI/ASNT CP – 105

 C. ANSI/ASNT CP – 189

 D. ASNT/ASME CP – 105

64.

ANSI/ASNT CP – 105 is nothing but an:

 A. ASNT Standard for Training Programmes of Qualification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel

 B. ASNT Standard for Topical Outlines for Qualification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel

 C. ASNT Standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel

 D. ASNT Guidelines to establish Certification program of Nondestructive Testing Personnel

65.

Recommended training course outlines:

 A. Are included in CP-105 and must not be modified

 B. Are included in the most recent editions of SNT-TC-1A

 C. Are not available for visual and leak testing

 D. Are included in CP-105 for the methods listed as per SNT-TC-1A and ANSI/ASNT CP-189

66.

Recommended training reference material:

 A. Is available only through ASNT

 B. Is available from a variety of sources

 C. Can only include those references listed under CP-105

 D. Must be made available to each Trainee by the employer

67.

The training is to be done in accordance with a course outline approved by:

 A. The employer

 B. The outside agency

 C. NDT Level III

 D. Both the employer and the ASNT NDT Level III

68.

ASME BPVC Section V Nondestructive Examination
A film side penetrameter can be used for :

 a. inaccessible welds (unable to hand place a source penetrameter)

 b. all welds

 c. all castings at any time

 d. an alternative to a source-sde wire pentameter

69.

A dark image of the “B” on a lighter background is :

 a. Acceptable

 b. Rejectable

 c. Sometimes rejectable

 d. None of the above

70.

One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the processing details for :

 a. Post-examination cleaning

 b. Pre-examination cleaning

 c. Apply the penetrant

 d. All of the above

71.

The non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.

 True

 False

72.

The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an ammeter shall be verified :

 a. Each year

 b. Each two years

 c. When possible

 d. Every 6 months

73.

A flanged joint is composed of all but which of the following? 

 a) The flange

 b) The bolts

 c) The assembly method

 d) The gasket

74.

Does ASME B16.5 specify requirements for the alignment and assembly of joints?

 a) Yes

 b) No

75.

When applying to pressure ratings listed in ASME B16.5 at high or low temperatures which of the following must be considered?

 a) Risk of leakage due to forces and moments developed

 b) Bursting of the flanged fitting

 c) The bolting at the flange

 d) All of The Above

76.

Socket welded or threaded flanges are not recommended outside which of the following temperature ranges if severe thermal cycling or gradients are expected?

 a) -20°-300°F

 b) -50°-500°F

 c) -50°-750°F

 d) -20°-500°F

77.

When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at least________ minutes prior to performing the examination.

 a. 7

 b. 10

 c. 9

 d. 1

78.

A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.

 True

 False

79.

A field indicator is composed of _______low carbon steel pie sections, furnace brazed together.

 a. 2

 b. 6

 c. 10

 d. 8

80.

The type and amperage of magnetizing current must be identified on the written MT procedure.

 True

 False

81.

Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on :

 a. Carbon steels

 b. Ferritic stainless steel

 c. Austenitic stainless steel

 d. None of the above

82.

ASME BPVC Section VIII Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 1 and 2
Which of the following describes the service restrictions on welded joint types in lethal substance service?

 A. All joints of Category A shall be Type No. (1) of Table UW-12

 B. All joints of Category A and B shall be Type No. (1) Of Table UW-12

 C. All joints of Category B and C shall be of Type No. (2) Of Table UW-12

 D. All joints may be of any type permitted in Section VIII Div.1

83.

When a vessel is to be used with a lethal substance it shall be?

 A. completely ultrasonically tested if made of any high alloy

 B. pre-heated if constructed of carbon or low alloy steel

 C. Postweld Heat Treated

 D. made only from an approved list of base materials in Section VIII Div.1

84.

The term Category used in Section VIII Div.1 refers to?

 A. The type of substance that is to be contained by a vessel

 B. The location of a welded joint in a vessel

 C. The type of weld used to make the welded joint

 D. The welding process used to make the welded joint

85.

Which of the following describe? “A welded joint used to make flange connections?

 A. Category A

 B. Type C

 C. Type B

 D. Category C

86.

A Category “A” butt-welded joint can be one of the following?

 A. Circumferential weld connecting one shell course to another shell course

 B. A Circumferential weld connecting a hemispherical head to a shell

 C. A flange connection to a head

 D. A nozzle connection to a shell or head

87.

Materials used in the construction of welded pressure vessels shall be of weldable quality. This requires that the material be proven by;

 A. Successful qualification of a Welding Procedure in accordance with Section IX of the ASME Code

 B. Acceptance by Section II Part D of the ASME Code

 C. Chemical tests and mechanical testing

 D. Listing in the stress tables in Section VIII Div. 1

88.

Welding materials used for production shall comply with the requirements of Section VIII Div. 1, those of Section IX, and the applicable qualified welding procedure specification. When the welding materials comply with one of the specifications in Section II, Part C; the marking or tagging of the material, containers, or packages as required by the applicable Section II specification may be accepted for identification in place of;

 A. The actual testing of the weld filler metal

 B. The welding procedure requirements

 C. The certificate of compliance or certified test report

 D. Markings may not be substituted for a manufacturer’s documentation

89.

One of the minimum thicknesses for shells and heads of vessels built to Section VIII Div. 1 is;

 A. 3/32”

 B. 5/32”

 C. 1/8”

 D. 1/16”

90.

The mill under tolerance for a plate of 1/2” thickness in Section VIII Div.1 is;

 A. 6% of the thickness

 B. .010”

 C. .001”

 D. 3% of the thickness

91.

The loadings to be considered in designing a vessel shall include those from:

 A. Internal pressure only

 B. Internal and external pressure only

 C. Internal and external pressure, the weight of the vessel, and contents

 D. Internal and external pressure, the weight of the vessel and contents, and superimposed loads from attachments.

92.

ASME BPVC Section IX Welding and Brazing Qualifications, Welding only
A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on the plate?

 A. F, H, OH

 B. F, V, OH

 C. V, OH, SP

 D. H, V, OH

93.

Which of the following is a covered electrode?

 A. E6010

 B. E 7018

 C. E9028

 D. All of the above

94.

Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

 A. The WPS

 B. The PQR

 C. The WPQ

 D. All of the above

95.

In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than two guided bend specimens for qualification?

 A. 5G and 6G

 B. 2G and 4F

 C. 4G and 5G

 D. None of the above

96.

Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

 A. Porosity, underfill

 B. Lack of penetration/fusion

 C. Slag, overlap

 D. Any of the above

97.

A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:

 A. Essential variable

 B. Non-essential variable

 C. Supplementary essential variable

 D. All of the above

98.

The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

 A. Notch Toughness Test

 B. Tension Test

 C. Fillet Weld Test

 D. Guided-Bend Test

99.

ASME B31.3, Process Piping, Chapters I, III, IV, V, VI
What is the minimum wall schedule that can be used in a male threaded joint in normal fluid service, carbon steel (notch-sensitive) and NPS 1.5 and smaller?

 a. Sch 10

 b. Sch 40

 c. Sch 80

 d. Sch 160

100.

The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

 A. The skill of the welder

 B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties

 C. The corrosion -resistance of the proposed weldment

 D. None of the above

101.

When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:

 A. 5X

 B. 2X

 C. 10X

 D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

102.

What is an example of a straight-threaded joint?

 a. threads (male) of threaded piping

 b. threads (female) on a threaded valve

 c. a union comprising male and female ends joined with a threaded union nut

 d. a joint used in instrument tubing

103.

A change in a supplementary essential variable requires requalification when notch-toughness is a consideration.

 True

 False

104.

Determine the linear expansion (in/100ft) of a carbon steel pipe between 70 degrees F. and 450 degrees F.

 a. 3.04” per 100 ft

 b. 3.39” per 100 ft

 c. 2.93” per 100 ft

 d. 3.16” per 100 ft

105.

A 20’ long carbon steel pipe is heated uniformly to 450 degrees F . from 70 degrees F. Determine its length after heating.

 a. 20.052’

 b. 20.263’

 c. 20.210’

 d. 20.250’

106.

If 4 materials, carbon steel, 18Chr-8Ni, Monel, and Aluminium are heated from 70 degrees F. to 550 degrees F., which one will expand more?

 a. 18 Chr-8Ni

 b. Monel

 c. Aluminium

 d. Carbon Steel

107.

What is the modulus of elasticity of carbon steel material (carbon content 0.3) at 700 degrees F.

 a. 25,500,000 psi

 b. 25,300,000 psi

 c. 26,700,000 psi

 d. 29,500,000 psi

108.

Poisson’s ratio may be taken as _________ at all temperatures for all metals.

 a. 0.30

 b. 0.31

 c. 0.32

 d. 0.33

109.

Stop valves are allowed on the inlet and outlet side of a pressure-relieving device, provided:

 a. the valves are approved by the jurisdiction

 b. they are approved by the inspector

 c. they can be locked or sealed in both the open and closed position

 d. the valves are non-rising stem valves

110.

For a liquid thermal expansion relief device that protects only a blocked-in portion of a piping system, the set pressure shall not exceed the lesser of the system test pressure or _________% of design pressure.

 a. 105

 b. 110

 c. 115

 d. 120

111.

An ASTM A53 Grade B pipe with a maximum wall thickness of 0.75” is being considered for use in a cold service. What minimum temperature can it be used and not have an impact test?

 a. +20 degrees F

 b.+15 degrees F

 c.+10 degrees F

 d. 0 degrees F

112.

ASME B16.5 Pipe Flanges and Flanged Fittings, Chapters 1‐8
What does ASME B16.5 cover?

 a) Pressure and temperature ratings

 b) Materials, dimensions, tolerances, and, marking

 c) Testing and methods of designating openings

 d) All of the above.

113.

What size piping flanges and fittings are addressed by ASME B16.5?

 a) 1/2″ to 24″ NPS

 b) 1″ to 36″ NPS

 c) 1/4″ to 36″ NPS

 d) 1/4 to 48″ NPS

114.

Can a manufacturer or contractor use flanges or fittings made in conformance to an earlier edition of ASME B16.5 on a current project?

 a) No

 b) Yes, if in conformance with the current edition of ASME B16.5. 

 C) Yes if permitted by the owner-user. 

 D) Yes

115.

The flange markings on a flanged fitting indicate which of the following?

 a) Pressure

 b) Pressure at a specified temperature

 c) Flange class

 d) Maximum pressure

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