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1.

What type of pressure relief device would be most appropriate where a large relief area, high set pressures, and very short blowdown are required?

 a) composite rupture disk

 b) pilot-operated safety relief valves

 c) conventional safety reliefvalve

 d) vacuum vent valve

2.

Which of the following services is suitable for a balanced safety relief valve?

 a) on ASME Section I steam boiler drums

 b) onASMESectionIsuperheaters

 c) on ASME Section VIII Div. 1 pressure vessels

 d) all of the above

3.

Which of the following would normally be used in a refinery with a hot flammable liquid service where high back pressures are present at the valve discharge?

 a) relief valve

 b) safety valve

 c) balanced safety relief valve

 d) rupture disk device

4.

Which of the following is not suitable for a conventional safety relief valve?

 a) where any built-up back pressures are within the allowable overpressure

 b) on ASME Section VIII Div. 1 pressure vessels

 c) as a bypass valve

 d) all of the above

5.

Where can a conventional safety relief valve be used in a refinery and petrochemical process?

 a) flammable service

 b) hot service

 c) toxic material service

 d) all of the above

6.

What is the normal operation setting for a safety relief valve in gas or vapor service?

 a) fully open at 1% overpressure

 b) fully open at 5%overpressure

 c) fully open at 10% overpressure

 d) fully closed at 10% overpressure

7.

Where should pressure relief valves not be used?

 a) in steam, air, gas, or other vapor services

 b) in services piped to a closed header without back pressure consideration

 c) as bypass valves

 d) all of the above

8.

Which of the following is a location where safety valves should not be used?

 a) in corrosive services not isolated from the process by a rupture disk

 b) where the discharge must be piped to remote locations or a closed system

 c) where the escape of process fluid around blowing valves is not desirable

 d) all of the above

9.

What is the term that is described by the pressure increase over the set pressure of the pressure relief device allowed to achieve rated flow?

 a) overpressure

 b) set pressure

 c) opening pressure

 d) closing pressure

10.

What recommended practice describes the inspection and repair practices for automatic pressure-relieving devices commonly used in the oil and petrochemical industries?

 a) API RP 520

 b) API RP 521

 c) API RP 574

 d) API RP 576

11.

Where would a pilot-operated safety relief valve generally not be used?

 a) in low-viscosity liquid service

 b) in low-corrosive environments

 c) in dirty fluid service without a filtering system

 d) all of the above

12.

What type of valve is normally used to protect atmospheric and low-pressure storage tanks against a pressure large enough to damage the tank?

 a) pressure vent valve

 b) pilot-operated safety relief valve

 c) conventional safety relief valve

 d) all of the above

13.

Which of the following valves would not be used at a set pressure of 150 psi?

 a) pilot-operated safety relief valve

 b) conventional safety relief valve

 c) pressure vent valve

 d) all of the above

14.

A rupture disk device is made up of which of the following items?

 a) rupture disk and flange

 b) rupture disk and coupling

 c) rupture disk and holder

 d) rupture disk and control spring

15.

Which of the following best describes the operation of a rupture disk device?

 a) a non-reclosing pressure relief device actuated by the static differential pressure between the inlet and outlet of the device

 
b) a relief device actuated by the static differential pressure between the inlet and outlet of the device to allow a spring-loaded disk to open and close as required

 c) a relief device actuated by the dynamic differential pressure between the inlet and outlet of the device to allow a non-reclosing disk to bust open when overpressured

 d) a disk that ruptures when corrosion becomes accelerated

16.

What will happen to the conventional domed rupture disk reaching its burst pressure?

 a) it will immediately close completely to protect the system

 b) it will fragment

 c) it will open, then close when the pressure subsides

 d) it will bulge but not break, sending an electronic signal to a warning alarm

17.

What is the purpose of the scoring in a scored rupture disk?

 a) to appropriately size the disk

 b) to control the burst pressure and pattern

 c) to rate the disk (more scores provide a higher rating)

 d) to control the dome radius

18.

Which side of a flat composite rupture disk is designed to burst when it is overpressured?

 a) on the concave side

 b) on the convex side

 c) on the side closest to the next control valve

 d) on the side designated by the manufacturer

19.

What typical maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a domed composite rupture disk generally permitted to operate?

 a) 70%

 b) 80%

 c) 85%

 d) 90%

20.

Which side of a reverse-acting rupture disk is designed to burst when it is overpressured?

 a) on the concave side

 b) on the convex side

 c) on the side closest to the next control valve

 d) on the side designated by the manufacturer

21.

What maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a reverse-acting rupture disk generally permitted to operate?

 a) 70%

 b) 80%

 c) 85%

 d) 90%

22.

Which of the following rupture disk devices is designed not to fragment upon overpressuring?

 a) conventional domed rupture disk

 b) graphite rupture disk

 c) reverse-acting rupture disk

 d) composite rupture disk

23.

How is a graphite rupture disk designed to burst?

 a) when it is overpressured on the concave side

 b) when it is bended or sheared

 c) when it is overpressured on the side designated by the manufacturer

 d) when it is overpressured on the convex side

24.

What type of rupture disk is resistant to most acids, alkalis, and organic solvents?

 a) reverse-acting rupture disk

 b) scored rupture disk

 c) composite rupture disk

 d) graphite rupture disks

25.

What maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a graphite rupture disk generally permitted to operate?

 a) 70%

 b) 80%

 c) 85%

 d) 90%

26.

Which of the following is a good application for rupture disk devices?

 a) to protect the downstream side of pressure relief valves against a pulsating flow and potentialforfatiguecracking

 b) to protect pressure relief valves from low-viscosity fluids

 c) instead of pressure relief valves if the slow response is desirable

 d) to minimize process leakage and reduce fugitive emissions

27.

Under normal operating conditions, what is the usual service life of pre-bulged metal rupture disks?

 a) 6 months

 b) 12 months

 c) 18 months

 d) at routine inspection intervals

28.

When rupture disk devices are not replaced periodically, what may occur when operating at normal pressures?

 a) they become brittle and may not fragment

 b) they become stiffer and may not fragment

 c) they may fail without warning

 d) they may not fail after 2 years of service

29.

When a relief valve is removed for service maintenance, what should be done with the accompanying rupture disk?

 a) discard the rupture disk since it can be easily damaged and can fail prematurely if reused

 b) visually inspect the rupture disk, and if satisfactory, return it to service

 c) inspect the rupture disk with LT, and if satisfactory, return it to service

 d) inspect the rupture disk with UT, and if satisfactory, return it to service

30.

What is the advantage of installing a rupture disk device on the inlet or outlet of a pressure relief valve?

 a) may provide added fouling protection of the valve internals

 b) allows for higher operating pressures

 c) allows for higher operating temperatures

 d) may provide added corrosion protection of the valve internals

31.

Which of the following is a common cause of damaged valve seats?

 a) corrosion

 b) foreign particle damage

 c) improper piping to the valve inlet

 d) all of the above

32.

What is the consequence of a pressure-relieving valve spring failure?

 a) a jammed valve

 b) an uncontrolled valve opening

 c) uncontrolled valve closing

 d) decrease in flow rate and loss of production

33.

Generally, where should direct spring-loaded valves be set?

 a) in-situ

 b) in the valve maintenance shop

 c) at the manufacturer’s shop

 d) all of the above

34.

Which of the following is a frequent cause of improper valve setting?

 a) over-tightening of the wheel nut

 b) under-tightening of the wheel nut

 c) incorrect calibration of pressure gauges

 d) poor material selection

35.

Which of the following are common causes of improper pressure-relieving device performance?

 a) corrosion, damaged seating surfaces, and failed springs

 b) improper setting/adjustment, plugging and sticking

 c) misapplication of materials, rough handling, and the improper differential between operating and set pressures

 d) all of the above

36.

What should be done before disconnecting pressure-relieving devices to ensure that they are sufficiently supported?

 a) measure the pressure at the device

 b) measure the pressure and temperature at the device

 c) the connected piping and block valves should be checked

 d) all of the above

37.

For each pressure relief valve, what information since its last inspection should the operating history include?

 a) information on upsets and their effect on the valve

 b) the extent of any leakage while in service

 c) any other evidence of malfunctioning

 d) all of the above

38.

What should be done with a safety relief valve in hydrofluoric acid (HF) service after it is removed from service for repair?

 a) it must be correctly acidized immediately

 b) any corrosion product must be hand scrapped and collected

 c) it must be correctly neutralized immediately

 d) any fouling product must be hand scrapped and collected

39.

What can happen when pressure relief valves are damaged during transportation to the shop?

 a) may result in failing the “as received” pop pressure test

 b) may result in passing the “as received” pop pressure test

 c) may result in an inaccurate “as received” pop pressure test

 d) may decrease repair time

40.

Under what circumstances may the user waive the “as received” pop pressure test for a pressure relief valve and instead reduce the inspection interval?

 a) if the valve is extremely fouled and dirty and the “as received” popping of the valve may damage the valve’s seats

 b) at the inspector’s discretion when the valve has been damaged during transportation

 c) at the valve repair mechanic’s discretion when the valve has been damaged during transportation

 d) if the valve is an acid service

41.

After the pressure relief valve has been “as received” pop tested after being removed from service, how should it be inspected to estimate its condition?

 a) VT

 b) EC

 c) UT

 d) AE

42.

When inspecting a pressure relief valve that has been removed from service, how is the seat flatness checked?

 a) VT

 b) with as straight-edge

 c) with calibrated flatness blocks

 d) with suitable lap rings recommended by the manufacturer

43.

After a pressure relief valve has been inspected and it have been reassembled, what should not be done to the nozzle and disk seating surfaces?

 a) should not be sandblasted clean

 b) should not be lead-shot blasted clean

 c) should not boiled

 d) should not be scrapped with a carbon steel brush

44.

What is the normal deviation of a pressure relief valve pop pressure for a set pressure of 70 psi?

 a) ±2 psi

 b) ±3 psi

 c) ±5 psi

 d) 0% to +10%

45.

For pressure relief valves that comply with ASME Section VIII Div. 1, UG 125(c)(3), what is the permissible deviation of the pop pressure from the set pressure?

 a) 0% to +5%

 b) 0% to +10%

 c) ±5%

 d) ±10%

46.

Once a pressure relief valve is set to pop at its CDTP and the seat tightness is checked for leakage on the test block, what pressure should be applied on the valve to observe the discharge side of the valve for evidence of leakage?

 a) 50% of the CDTP

 b) 75% of the CDTP

 c) 90% of the CDTP

 d) 110% of the CDTP

47.

When a pressure relief valve is tested on-stream by hydraulically lifting the valve stem while the valve remains in service, which of the following needs to be considered?.

 a) potential failure of the rupture disk in rupture disk/relief valve combinations

 b) possible introduction of foreign material into the valve seating area which may result in mechanical damage and/or leakage through the valve upon reseat

 c) possible release of process material to the atmosphere

 d) all of the above

48.

Which of the following should be considered when inspecting a pilot-operated pressure relief valve?

 a) check for plugging in pilot assembly and external tubing

 b) check for material trapped in the main valve dome area

 c) inspect the pressure pick-up device and its orientation

 d) all of the above

49.

For pressure or vacuum vent valve that has a flame arrester on the inlet nozzle, what should the inspector look for to ensure the valve is not damaged in service?

 a) excessive fouling or plugging

 b) excessive flame length

 c) excessive flame intensity

 d) insufficient flame length and intensity

50.

How often should rupture disks be replaced?

 a) on a regular schedule based on their application

 b) on a regular schedule based on the external inspection interval

 c) on a regular schedule based on the on-stream inspection interval

 d) on a regular schedule based on the internal inspection interval

51.

On what basis is the interval between shop inspection/overhaul of pressure-relieving devices determined?

 a) normal basis

 b) manufacturer’s basis

 c) regulatory body basis

 d) all of the above

52.

Which of the following should be done as part of a visual on-stream inspection of a pressure relief device?

 a) if not clear from the records, that the established test interval has not been exceeded

 b) no gags, blinds, closed valves, or piping obstructions would prevent the valves from functioning properly

 c) seals installed to protect the spring setting and ring pin setting have not been broken

 d) all of the above

53.

What is the maximum interval for visual on-stream inspections of pressure-relieving devices?

 a) on a regular schedule based on their application

 b) on a regular schedule based on the on-stream inspection interval

 c) 5 years

 d) 10 years

54.

What type of records should be kept for each pressure-relieving device?

 a) a complete and permanent record

 b) the manufacturer’s recommended record

 c) repair record

 d) maintenance andoperationrecord

55.

Which of the following is typically a responsibility of engineering personnel for pressure-relief devices?

 a) to specify test intervals

 b) to initiate work requests

 c) to furnish test reports

 d) to prepare in-service reports

56.

Which of the following is typically a responsibility of process unit operators for pressure-relief devices?

 a) to prepare in-service reports

 b) to specify test intervals

 c) to record service data

 d) to maintain specification records to facilitate repairs

57.

Which of the following is typically a responsibility of craftsmen for pressure-relief devices?

 a) to maintain specification records to facilitate repairs

 b) to check for leaking valves

 c) to check vents and drains for operability

 d) all of the above

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